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Worksheets1801-1900
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1801. If the airflow is constant and you decrease the diameter of the jet nozzle (Level 1)
a)
a) The outlet velocity does not change
b)
b) The outlet velocity decrease
c)
c) The outlet velocity increase
2.
1802. The thrust is generated by (Level 1)
a)
a) Pushing against the atmosphere
b)
b) Acceleration of airflow
c)
c) Acceleration of airflow and pushing against the atmosphere
3.
1803. With increasing altitudes (Level 1)
a)
a) The ambient pressure decreases and the temperature decreases
b)
b) The ambient pressure decreases and the temperature increases
c)
c) The ambient pressure increases and the temperature decreases
4.
1804. There was no engine compressor before 1937 due to (Level 2)
a)
a) There was no one can invent it
b)
b) There was no material that was heat-resistant enough for continuous combustion.
c)
c) The engine without compressor has better performance
5.
1805. Turboprop engines do not use on large A/C due to (Level 2)
a)
a) This engine is very loud
b)
b) This engine is not efficient
c)
c) It's hard to manage the rotation speed of propeller
6.
1806. On modern turbofan engines the bypass ratio is between 4:1 and 9:1, that means the fan can produce more than 80% to …% of the total thrust (Level 2)
a)
a) 0.9
b)
b) 0.7
c)
c) 0.95
7.
1807. If the velocity of the air at the engine inlet increases, thrust force would be (Level 2)
a)
a) Stay the same
b)
b) Increased
c)
c) Decreased
8.
1808. The higher the altitude, the…of the thrust a jet engine can produce (Level 2)
a)
a) More
b)
b) Less
c)
c) Equal
9.
1809. The reduction gear is used on turboprop engine for what purpose? (Level 2)
a)
a) Reduce speed of propeller
b)
b) Increase speed of propeller
c)
c) Maintain speed of propeller
10.
1810. The fans of turbofan engine are always driven by (Level 2)
a)
a) A turbine via two drive shafts
b)
b) A compressor via a drive shaft
c)
c) A turbine via a drive shaft
11.
1811. Which engine has the greatest bypass ratio? (Level 2)
a)
a) Turbofan engine
b)
b) Propfans engine
c)
c) Turbojet engine
12.
1812. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas. (Level 1)
a)
a) The static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
b)
b) The static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
c)
c) The total energy remains constant.
13.
1813. Which factors are NOT important for the combustion process? (Level 1)
a)
a) Minimum decrease in pressure
b)
b) Maximum increase of energy
c)
c) Minimum decrease fuel consumption
14.
1814. The primary function of the turbine (Level 1)
a)
a) Supply the torque which is necessary to drive the compressor
b)
b) Increases the pressure of the incoming air
c)
c) Increases the velocity of the incoming air
15.
1815. The fuel air mixture is burned in the combustion chamber (Level 1)
a)
a) The temperature, the volume of the air increases and the air pressure stays almost constant.
b)
b) The pressure, the volume and the temperature of the air increases
c)
c) The temperature, the pressure of the air increases and the volume stays almost constant.
16.
1816. The term Pt5 means. (Level 1)
a)
a) The total pressure at station No.5.
b)
b) Pressure and temperature at station No.5.
c)
c) The total inlet pressure outlet No.5
17.
1817. The external efficiency of engine mainly depends on (Level 2)
a)
a) The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas pressure
b)
b) The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas velocity
c)
c) The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas temperature
18.
1818. A flat rated engine gives a constant thrust at (Level 2)
a)
a) All ambient conditions below this flat rate temperature.
b)
b) All ambient conditions above this flat rate temperature.
c)
c) All ambient conditions
19.
1819. Which parameters are the engines used to measure the thrust? (Level 2)
a)
a) The engine pressure ratio or the RPM
b)
b) The engine pressure ratio or the engine burn temperature
c)
c) The engine fuel flow or the RPM
20.
1820. The term thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC) is (Level 2)
a)
a) The amount of fuel which an engine used at 100% speed for 1hour.
b)
b) The amount of fuel which an engine used at idle speed for 1hour.
c)
c) The amount of fuel which an engine needs to make 1kN of thrust for 1hour.
21.
1821. The equation shows that 1lb of thrust equals 1 thrust horsepower (THP) at a speed of (Level 2)
a)
a) At a speed of 175mph
b)
b) At a speed of 275mph
c)
c) At a speed of 375mph
22.
1822. The engine air intake has: (Level 1)
a)
a) The shape divergent
b)
b) The shape convergent
c)
c) The shape constant.
23.
1823. This design employs an external oblique shock wave in supersonic engine inlet for (Level 1)
a)
a) Increase the supersonic airflow before the normal shock occurs.
b)
b) Slow the supersonic airflow before the normal shock occurs.
c)
c) Prevent the shock occurs.
24.
1824. The engine anti −ice system also uses (Level 1)
a)
a) The hot air comes from either the pneumatic system or directly from the engine
b)
b) Electrical heating mats on lips skin panel.
c)
c) The hot air comes from directly from the engine only.
25.
1825. You can lock the wing anti −ice valves (Level 2)
a)
a) In the opened position only
b)
b) In the closed position only
c)
c) In the closed or opened position
26.
1826. The engine anti −ice valves you can lock (Level 2)
a)
a) In the opened position only
b)
b) In the closed position only
c)
c) In the closed or opened position
27.
1827. The wing anti−ice valves (Level 2)
a)
a) Close automatically when the aircraft lands.
b)
b) Open when the wing anti−ice pushbutton pushed ON anytime.
c)
c) Fail safe at open position.
28.
1828. Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly? (Level 1)
a)
a) Rotor and stator.
b)
b) Stator and diffuser.
c)
c) Compressor and manifold.
29.
1829. What is meant by a compressor stage? (Level 1)
a)
a) One rotor and one stator assembly.
b)
b) All rotors and stators.
c)
c) One rotor and one guide vane assembly.
30.
1830. The ring of fixed blades at the intake of an axial flow compressor are called. (Level 1)
a)
a) Inlet guide vanes.
b)
b) First stage stator blades.
c)
c) First stage diffuser blades.
31.
1831. The main components of a centrifugal flow compressor are: (Level 1)
a)
a) The rotor, the stator and the guide vane assembly.
b)
b) The rotor, the stator and the compressor manifold.
c)
c) The impeller, the diffuser and the compressor manifold.
32.
1832. The velocity of the airflow through the compressor will be? (Level 1)
a)
a) increased
b)
b) Decreased
c)
c) Kept constantly
33.
1833. Axial flow and centrifugal flow compressors have their own specific advantages and disadvantages. Which following statement is NOT correct? (Level 2)
a)
a) Centrifugal flow compressors have a very high pressure rise per stage.
b)
b) Axial flow compressors have a good efficiency over a wide speed range.
c)
c) Engines with axial flow compressors cause less drag than engines with centrifugal flow compressors
34.
1834. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the. (Level 1)
a)
a) Number of compressor stages.
b)
b) Air inlet velocity.
c)
c) Rotor diameter.
35.
1835. The used of bleed valves to avoid engine stall and surge. (Level 2)
a)
a) In the mid section and sometimes in the aft section of the engine compressor
b)
b) In the mid section and sometimes in the aft section of the engine turbine
c)
c) In the mid section and sometimes in the forward section of the engine compressor
36.
1836. The advantage of the variable stator vanes (Level 2)
a)
a) Optimum velocity of airflow on the following rotor blades
b)
b) Optimum angle of attack on the following rotor blades
c)
c) Optimum pressure of airflow on the following rotor blades
37.
1837. For basic compressor control the main engine control (MEC) uses (Level 2)
a)
a) The core engine speed N2 and the compressor inlet pressure.
b)
b) The compressor outlet temperature COT and the compressor inlet temperature CIT.
c)
c) The core engine speed N2 and the compressor inlet temperature CIT.
38.
1838. The variable stator vane actuators operate by (Level 1)
a)
a) Aircraft hydraulic power.
b)
b) Engine fuel pressure power.
c)
c) Electrical motor power.
39.
1839. The variable stator vanes (VSV) schedule open or close applies for (Level 2)
a)
a) Air inlet temperature only
b)
b) Air inlet pressure only
c)
c) Air inlet temperature and pressure.
40.
1840. The FADEC calculates a variable stator vane (VSV) demand signal based on (Level 2)
a)
a) The actual engine speed and compressor inlet temperature.
b)
b) The actual engine speed and compressor inlet pressure.
c)
c) The compressor inlet temperature and pressure.
41.
1841. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine is the same as the. (Level 1)
a)
a) Low pressure compressor.
b)
b) Forward turbine wheel.
c)
c) High pressure compressor.
42.
1842. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine are known as. (Level 2)
a)
a) Stator vanes.
b)
b) Bleed vanes.
c)
c) Pressurization vanes.
43.
1843. What is used to aid in stabilization of high compressor airflow? (Level 2)
a)
a) Variable stator vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.
b)
b) Pressurization and dump valves.
c)
c) Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
44.
1844. Combustion chamber flame temperature is in the order of. (Level 1)
a)
a) 2000°Centigrade.
b)
b) 2000°Fahrenheit.
c)
c) 2000°K.
45.
1845. The flame tube of annular combustion chamber has major parts: (Level 2)
a)
a) The air supply duct, the inner liner and the outer liner.
b)
b) The casing, the inner liner and the outer liner.
c)
c) The dome, the inner liner and the outer liner.
46.
1846. What is a can-annular combustion system? (Level 2)
a)
a) One common flame tube closed in a common air casing.
b)
b) A set of flame tubes, each mounted in a separate air casing.
c)
c) A set of flame tubes, enclosed in a common air casing.
47.
1847. The primary conditions are necessary for correct and safe combustion are: (Level 2)
a)
a) The ratio of air and fuel, the airflow pressure.
b)
b) The ratio of air and fuel, the airflow velocity.
c)
c) The ratio of air and fuel. the airflow temperature.
48.
1848. The mainly airflow which comes from the compressor to combustion is (Level 1)
a)
a) The primary airflow,
b)
b) The secondary airflow.
c)
c) The burned airflow.
49.
1849. The airflow that comes from the compressor is decreased by: (Level 2)
a)
a) The diffuser, the restrictors and by swirl vanes
b)
b) The diffuser, the restrictors and by guide vanes
c)
c) The diffuser, the restrictors and by supply ducts.
50.
1850. An air fuel mixture burns best at (Level 1)
a)
a) A ratio of 15:1
b)
b) A ratio of 7.5:1
c)
c) A ratio of 24:1
51.
1851. The flame tube is cooled by: (Level 1)
a)
a) The primary airflow
b)
b) The secondary airflow
c)
c) Cooling air system.
52.
1852. A thin coating of ceramic material on the inner surface of the flame tube for (Level 1)
a)
a) Strengthen the inner liner.
b)
b) Seal air from the inner liner.
c)
c) Protect the inner line
against heat.
53.
1853. The combustion case has: (Level 2)
a)
a) An outer wall, an inner wall and a diffuser.
b)
b) A inner liner, a outer liner and a diffuser.
c)
c) An outer wall, an inner wall and a guide vane.
54.
1854. What are the two main basic components of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine? (Level 1)
a)
a) Stator and rotor.
b)
b) Hot and cold.
c)
c) Impeller and diffuser.
55.
1855. The turbine blades are prevented from corrosion of sulfuric acid by (Level 2)
a)
a) Using the correct kind of jet fuel.
b)
b) Using the correct ratio of air fuel mix.
c)
c) Using the ceramic coating.
56.
1856. In convection cooling method, where does the cooling air escapes during cooling the turbine blades (Level 2)
a)
a) At the leading edges and at the blade tips
b)
b) At the leading edges and a the trailing edges of blades.
c)
c) At the trailing edges and at the blade tips
57.
1857. On most modern gas turbine engines, a combination of all 3 cooling methods of convection, impingement and film cooling is used on? (Level 2)
a)
a) The first stage nozzle guide vanes and the first stage rotor blades
b)
b) The first stage nozzle guide vanes and The second stage nozzle guide vanes.
c)
c) The second stage rotor blades and the second stage nozzle guide vanes.
58.
1858. Which does the engine use for the active clearance control of LP turbine? (Level 1)
a)
a) Compressor bleed air
b)
b) The engine fan air.
c)
c) The ram air.
59.
1859. The clearance control valves are normally controlled by the engine control unit and actuated by (Level 1)
a)
a) Electric motor control valves.
b)
b) Pneumatic pressures from PS3 station.
c)
c) Fuel pressure from the engine fuel system
60.
1860. In convergent exhaust nozzles, the maximum airflow at pressure ratios should be below of (Level 1)
a)
a) Approximately 2:1
b)
b) Approximately 3:1
c)
c) Approximately 1:1
61.
1861. On a four engine aircraft the angle of the reverse stream can be matched by (Level 1)
a)
a) The correct arrangement of the thrust reverser actuators.
b)
b) The correct arrangement of the cascade vanes in the thrust reverser cowlings.
c)
c) The correct troke of the thrust reverser actuators.
62.
1862. What indication does the pilot receive that thrust reversers have deployed? (Level 1)
a)
a) An audible warning.
b)
b) A sequence of lights.
c)
c) A feeling of rapid deceleration.
63.
1863. In normal operation, the pneumatic reversers usually operate with (Level 1)
a)
a) Pneumatic pressure from aircraft pneumatic system.
b)
b) Pneumatic pressure from the engine’s HP compressor.
c)
c) Pneumatic pressure from the engine’s LP compressor.
64.
1864. In maintenance operation, the pneumatic reversers usually operate with (Level 1)
a)
a) Pneumatic pressure from aircraft pneumatic system.
b)
b) Pneumatic pressure from the engine’s HP compressor.
c)
c) Pneumatic pressure from the engine’s LP compressor.
65.
1865. Speed control of the pneumatic thrust reverse system is via (Level 2)
a)
a) The speed sensor of the air motor.
b)
b) The overspeed mechanism of the air motor.
c)
c) The cam mechanism on the feedback rod.
66.
1866. How is the pneumatically operated reverser is latched in deploy position? (Level 2)
a)
a) By locking valve.
b)
b) By cam lock mechanism.
c)
c) By the brake in the pneumatic drive unit.
67.
1867. The main components of the hydraulically operated thrust reverser system are: (Level 2)
a)
a) The reverser control valve module and the hydraulic actuators to deploy or stow the reverser.
b)
b) The reverser control valve module, gearboxes, ballscrew actuators.
c)
c) The reverser control valve module, gearboxes and the hydraulic actuators to deploy or stow the reverser.
68.
1868. To avoid the jamming of the translating sleeve, the reverser system use: (Level 2)
a)
a) A directional control valve.
b)
b) A the synchronize control valve.
c)
c) The flexible drive shafts.
69.
1869. There are 2 methods to deactivate hydraulically operated thrust reversers are: (Level 2)
a)
a) Mechanically lock the movable reverser components, or shut−off the hydraulic supply to the reverser actuators by a manually operated shut−off valve.
b)
b) Mechanically lock the movable reverser components, or disconnect the electrical connector at the solenoid of the directional pilot valve.
c)
c) Disconnect the electrical connector at the solenoid of the directional pilot valve, or shut−off the hydraulic supply to the reverser actuators by a manually operated shut−off valve.
70.
1870. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is. (Level 1)
a)
a) On the HP Compressor housing.
b)
b) In the forward bearing housing.
c)
c) Attached to the turbine casing.
71.
1871. The accessory units are mounted in the ways of easy removal and installation of the accessory units are:
(Level 2)
a)
a) Bolted to the accessory gear box or fitted by a V−clamp.
b)
b) Bolted to the accessory gear box or by a QAD-ring.
c)
c) Fitted by a V−clamp or by a QAD-ring.
72.
1872. What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main rotation shaft of a gas turbine engine? (Level 2)
a)
a) Plain bearing.
b)
b) Roller bearing.
c)
c) Ball bearing.
73.
1873. A floating bearing is usually (Level 2)
a)
a) Plain bearing.
b)
b) Roller bearing.
c)
c) Ball bearing.
74.
1874. The type of seal between the drive shaft and the gearbox is: (Level 1)
a)
a) Carbon seals
b)
b) Labyrinth seals.
c)
c) Rubber seals.
75.
1875. How are bearings lubricated? (Level 1)
a)
a) By greases.
b)
b) By engine oil system.
c)
c) By engine fuel system.
76.
1876. Which are tasks of modern jet engines oil (Level 2)
a)
a) Lubricating only
b)
b) Cooling only
c)
c) Lubricating, corrosion protection, cleaning, cooling
77.
1877. What dose mineral oil often use? (Level 1)
a)
a) Piston engine
b)
b) Turbojet engine
c)
c) Turbo fan engine
78.
1878. What dose synthetic oil often use? (Level 1)
a)
a) Piston engine
b)
b) Turbojet engine
c)
c) Do not use for aviation engine
79.
1879. How many type of synthetic oil? (Level 1)
a)
a) 3
b)
b) 2
c)
c) 4
80.
1880. How is oil viscosity change when oil temperature increases (Level 2)
a)
a) Oil viscosity decreases
b)
b) Oil viscosity increases
c)
c) Oil viscosity not change
81.
1881. Why dose JET A1 mostly use for modern turbine engine? (Level 2)
a)
a) High flash point
b)
b) Low freezing point
c)
c) A high flash point of +38° C and a low freezing point of -47° C
82.
1882. What is function of oil supply line filter? (Level 1)
a)
a) To remove any foreign particles from oil before it reaches to oil nozzle
b)
b) To remove any fuel from oil before it reaches to oil nozzle
c)
c) To remove any water from oil before it reaches to oil nozzle
83.
1883. What kind of bearing seal? (Level 2)
a)
a) Labyrinth seal, dynamic seal
b)
b) Carbon seal, labyrinth seal
c)
c) Carbon seal, dynamic seal
84.
1884. Which statement is correct? (Level 2)
a)
a) The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It returns the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to the oil tank
b)
b) The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It supplies the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to the oil tank
c)
c) The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It drains the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to outside.
85.
1885. What is the most type pump using for oil system? (Level 1)
a)
a) Piston pump
b)
b) Gear pump
c)
c) Centrifugal pump
86.
1886. Which are data that oil system monitors (Level 2)
a)
a) Oil pressure only
b)
b) Oil quantity, oil temperature, oil pressure
c)
c) Oil temperature only
87.
1887. Which statement is correct? (Level 1)
a)
a) Magnetic chip detectors are small magnets which are in contact with the supply oil. They collect particles of magnetic metal which are passing through the oil.
b)
b) Magnetic chip detectors are small filter which are in contact with the scavenge oil. They collect particles of magnetic metal which are passing through the oil
c)
c) Magnetic chip detectors are small magnets which are in contact with the scavenge oil. They collect particles of magnetic metal which are passing through the oil
88.
1888. The supply pump is driven by? (Level 1)
a)
a) The N1 rotor system
b)
b) The supply pump is driven by the N2 rotor system via the gearbox
c)
c) The supply pump is driven by the N1 rotor system via the gearbox
89.
1889. The oil pressure is maintained constance by (Level 2)
a)
a) A pressure regulating valve
b)
b) Check valve
c)
c) Bleed valve
90.
1890. Which is statement correct? (Level 1)
a)
a) Most large jet engines use fuel cooled oil coolers as the primary coolers
because they are efficient and small.
b)
b) Most large jet engines use fuel cooled oil coolers as the secondary coolers
because they are efficient and small.
c)
c) Some large jet engines use air cooled oil coolers as primary coolers to
remove excessive heat from the oil
91.
1891. The pressure switch is connected to (Level 2)
a)
a) The pressure switch is also connected to the oil return line.
b)
b) The pressure switch is also connected to the oil drain line and the oil tank vent line
c)
c) The pressure switch is also connected to the oil supply line and the oil tank vent line
92.
1892. What are main tasks of the engine fuel distribution subsystem? (Level 1)
a)
a) Supply fuel to the engines
b)
b) Pressurize fuel sufficiently for vaporizing in combustion chamber
c)
c) Heat fuel for anti icing, supply fuel to the engines, pressurize fuel sufficiently for vaporizing in combustion chamber
93.
1893. what is component using for measuring the actual fuel flow and
transmits signals to the cockpit for the fuel flow and fuel used indication. (Level 1)
a)
a) Fuel regulator
b)
b) Fuel flow transmitter
c)
c) Fuel quantity probe
94.
1894. What are kind of low pressure fuel pumps? (Level 1)
a)
a) The fuel pumps are usually impeller type pumps driven by the accessory gearbox
b)
b) The fuel pumps are usually gear type pumps driven by the accessory gearbox
c)
c) The fuel pumps are usually piston type pumps driven by the accessory gearbox
95.
1895. What are kind of high pressure fuel pumps? (Level 1)
a)
a) The gear type pump and the impeller type pump.
b)
b) The gear type pump and the piston type pump.
c)
c) The impeller type pump and the piston type pump.
96.
1896. What is statement correct? (Level 2)
a)
a) Low pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements, and high pressure filters have cleanable wire mesh filter elements.
b)
b) High pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements, and low pressure filters have cleanable wire mesh filter elements.
c)
c) Low and high pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements.
97.
1897. What is function of relief valve of fuel filter (Level 2)
a)
a) Valve open by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become clogged
b)
b) Valve open by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become to hot
c)
c) Valve close by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become clogged
98.
1898. What does fuel manifold construction to prevent fuel leak (Level 2)
a)
a) There only have double sealed connections.
b)
b) There are shrouded connections and single sealed connections.
c)
c) There are shrouded connections and double sealed connections.
99.
1899. What is main function of fuel nozzle? (Level 1)
a)
a) To heat the fuel so that it vaporizes and burns as quickly as possible.
b)
b) To atomize the fuel so that it vaporizes and burns as quickly as possible.
c)
c) To regulate the fuel pressure so that it vaporizes and burns as quickly as possible.
100.
1900. What is main function of fuel control unit? (Level 1)
a)
a) To meter the fuel necessary for all operating conditions of the engine
b)
b) To meter the fuel necessary for take off operating conditions of the engine only
c)
c) To regulate the fuel pressure necessary for all operating conditions of the engine
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