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Psychiatry Review September 2025

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Patient with cancer experiences nausea when viewing a commercial that shows the location where the patient receives chemotherapy treatment. This patient's response is best understood as an example of which of the following?

a)

Observational learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Negative reinforcement

e)

Second order conditioning

2.

A "timeout" used to change the frequency of undesirable behaviors in children represents which type of operant conditioning?

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Negative punishment

e)

Extinction

3.

A patient with depression has been using alcohol more frequently to self-medicate. The patient reports that dysphoria and anhedonia temporarily improve after a few drinks. Which of the following best explains the use of alcohol in this scenario?

a)

Extinction

b)

Positive punishment

c)

Negative punishment

d)

Positive reinforcement

e)

Negative reinforcement

4.

Which pharmacologic properties allow buprenorphine to act as a functional opioid antagonist in individuals who are physically dependent on opioids?

a)

Low binding affinity and low intrinsic activity at the k-opioid receptor

b)

Low binding affinity and low intrinsic activity at the µ-opioid receptor

c)

High binding affinity and low intrinsic activity at the k-opioid receptor

d)

High binding affinity and low intrinsic activity at the µ-opioid receptor

e)

High binding affinity and high intrinsic activity at the µ-opioid receptor

5.

In the treatment of opioid use disorders, naloxone is combined with buprenorphine for which purpose?

a)

Reduce the risk of diversion

b)

Minimize irritation of the gastric mucosa

c)

Minimize residual withdrawal phenomena

d)

Enhance absorption of buprenorphine

e)

Slow hepatic deactivation of buprenorphine

6.

Which infant attachment style is characterized by paying little overt attention to the parent's presence?

a)

Secure

b)

Avoidant

c)

Resistant

d)

Ambivalent

e)

Disorganized

7.

Which of the following cognitive responses to environmental stimuli has been found to be more characteristic of patients with anxiety disorders when compared to patients with depression?

a)

Misattributions regarding stimuli

b)

Hopelessness regarding meaning of stimuli

c)

Automatic negative thoughts toward the stimuli

d)

Attentional bias toward potentially threatening stimuli

e)

Lack of awareness of physiological responses to stimuli

8.

Which therapy builds self-esteem, cohesive self, and improves interpersonal relations in severe psychopathology?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Dialectical

c)

Behavioral

d)

Supportive

e)

Psychodynamic

9.

After a stranger says "hello," a 12-month-old child turns and looks at his mother before responding. When the mother smiles and nods her head, the infant laughs and smiles in response to the stranger. This behavior is an example of:

a)

Secure attachment

b)

Object constancy

c)

Object permanence

d)

Theory of mind

e)

Social referencing

10.

Egocentrism is most associated with which stage of development?

a)

Infancy, birth–2 years

b)

Early childhood, 2–7 years

c)

Middle childhood, 7–11 years

d)

Adolescence, 11–19 years

e)

Early adulthood, 20–29 years

11.
  1. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, attainment of which of the following marks the transition from the sensorimotor stage to the preoperational stage?

a)

Curiosity

b)

Syllogistic reasoning

c)

Conservation

d)

Object permanence

e)

Reversibility

12.

Which factor is associated with an increased vulnerability to developing schizophrenia?

a)

Summer birth

b)

Female sex

c)

Cannabis use

d)

Childhood streptococcal infection

e)

Growing up in a rural community

13.

An 84-year-old patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for the treatment of depression. Two weeks later the patient's family reports that the patient is more lethargic, confused, has headaches, and an unsteady gait. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Serum sodium

c)

Serum glucose

d)

Cardiac enzymes

e)

Liver function studies

14.

Heavy smoking is most likely to affect the dosing of which antipsychotic?

a)

Olanzapine

b)

Ziprasidone

c)

Aripiprazole

d)

Risperidone

e)

Quetiapine

15.

Which is the first sign of puberty in boys?

a)

Breast growth

b)

Testicular enlargement

c)

Facial hair

d)

Increased muscle mass

e)

Increased libido

16.
  1. A veteran's unit in Iraq was under frequent mortar attacks. After returning to the United States, the veteran experiences elevated heart rate and the urge to run for cover when hearing fireworks. In terms of learning theory, what best describes this phenomenon?

a)

Extinction

b)

Punishment

c)

Habituation

d)

Generalization

e)

Discrimination

17.

Which of the following would most likely be first observed at 12 months in a typically developing child?

a)

Use of grammar

b)

Short Sentences

c)

Use of vowel sounds

d)

Single meaningful words

e)

Use of consonant sounds

18.

A typically developing 24-month-old would show the ability to:

a)

Copy a circle

b)

Draw people with four limbs

c)

Copy a triangle

d)

Build a tower with six blocks

e)

Follow two-step instructions

19.

A ten-year-old child is brought in by a parent for psychiatric evaluation. The parent shares that the child has been pervasively irritable and has had approximately four severe temper outbursts weekly for the past two years. These outbursts are characterized by screaming, throwing toys, and hitting others, and can occur with little provocation. The child's teacher reports that the child is alienating peers and has difficulty functioning in the classroom. Which of the following diagnoses best characterizes the child's presentation?

a)

Conduct disorder

b)

Bipolar I

c)

Oppositional defiant

d)

ADHD

e)

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

20.

The psychiatrist is considering prescribing donepezil for an 87-year-old. Which medication would most significantly interfere with its efficacy?

a)

Oxybutynin

b)

Loratadine

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Omeprazole

e)

Warfarin

21.

A physician is referred to employee health due to difficulty adhering to hospital standards for timely documentation and complaints from coworkers of an indifferent and condescending attitude toward others on the medical team. The physician's director reports that their documentation is thorough and high quality, but the delay in completing charts has become a patient safety concern. On evaluation, the physician describes completing several rounds of edits to each note until they are perfect. Which of the following potential diagnoses is most likely?

a)

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

b)

Borderline personality disorder

c)

Schizoid personality disorder

d)

Schizotypal personality disorder

e)

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

22.

Vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are indicated for the management of:

a)

Smoking cessation

b)

Tardive dyskinesia

c)

Early onset Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Treatment resistant depression

e)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

23.
  1. An 82-year-old patient presents with severe memory loss, impaired social judgment, restricted interests, and inability to perform activities of daily living independently. The best combination therapy to reduce decline in attention and global functioning would be donepezil plus a medication with which mechanism of action?

a)

Dopamine antagonist

b)

Cholinesterase inhibition

c)

Inhibition of serotonin reuptake

d)

Enhancement of GABA receptor

e)

Modulation of glutamate transmission

24.

Which of the following disorders is associated with hypocretin-1 deficiency?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Sleep terrors

c)

Klein-Levin syndrome

d)

Obstructive sleep apnea

e)

Hypersomnolence disorder

25.

An individual presents in your office with thoughts of harming her infant. Which of the following factors is the most reassuring?

a)

Delusional beliefs

b)

Poor insight

c)

Distorted reality testing

d)

Thoughts are ego dystonic

e)

Decreased need for sleep

26.

A 25-year-old patient presents to the emergency department for two hours of involuntary movements. They started taking risperidone two days ago. The patient’s eyes are conjugately deviated up and to the right in a sustained manner. They have no abnormal mouth or tongue movements, and the remainder of the neurological examination is normal. Which clinical syndrome is most likely?

a)

Acute akathisia

b)

Tardive dyskinesia

c)

Acute dystonic reaction

d)

Drug-induced Parkinsonism

e)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

27.

Which of the following lab abnormalities is associated with refeeding syndrome?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

e)

Hypophosphatemia

28.

A patient presents with stupor, grimacing, and mutism. On examination, the patient is noted to be holding a posture for an extended period. This finding is described as:

a)

Catalepsy

b)

Automatic obedience

c)

Mannerism

d)

Negativism

e)

Waxy flexibility

29.

The sedating effects of eszopiclone are a result of its binding with which receptor?

a)

GABA-A

b)

Histamine H1

c)

Melatonin MT1

d)

Muscarinic M3

e)

NMDA

30.

In young adults with schizophrenia, which of the following is associated with an increased risk of completed suicide?

a)

Lower level of education

b)

Good premorbid functioning

c)

Clozapine treatment

d)

Decreased performance expectations from others

e)

Poor insight

31.

An 18-year-old patient is evaluated for excessive skin-picking, resulting in multiple facial sores. The parents report that the patient spends up to one hour every day in the bathroom examining and washing the facial skin. On interview, the patient reports frustration with severe acne and discoloration of the facial skin. On examination, there are a few small pimples and no visible discoloration. The facial skin is most notable for excoriations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Excoriation disorder

b)

Illness anxiety disorder

c)

Body dysmorphic disorder

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

e)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

32.

Which of the following best describes a ten-year-old's understanding of the death of a pet?

a)

The pet can be brought back by wishful thinking

b)

The pet's death is a punishment for bad behavior

c)

Death is permanent and the pet will not be returning

d)

The pet is gone now, but is expected to return in the future

e)

The pet is buried underground and can feel hungry and cold

33.

According to Margaret Mahler, the child's conflict between the wish to depend on the mother and the wish for autonomy peaks during which subphase of the separation-individuation process?

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Practicing

c)

Rapprochement

d)

Differentiation

e)

Object constancy

34.

The multiple sleep latency test is used to diagnose which of the following?

a)

Cataplexy

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Night terrors

d)

Sleepwalking

e)

Sleep-phase delay

35.

Which finding on electromyography during REM sleep is most diagnostic of REM sleep behavior disorder?

a)

Excess muscle tone

b)

Increased fasciculations

c)

Reduced recruitment of muscle fibers

d)

Shortened firing duration of muscle units

e)

Increased spontaneous muscle fiber discharges

36.

An active duty Air Force pilot is evaluated by a primary care physician for complaints of feeling depressed. In response to the question, “Do you sometimes drink beer, wine, or other alcoholic beverages?” the patient answers, “Yes.” Which of the following should be the next step?

a)

Obtain a blood alcohol level

b)

Have the patient complete a substance use screening questionnaire

c)

Refer to an Air Force addiction specialist for a fitness-for-duty evaluation

d)

Advise the individual to start taking naltrexone to reduce craving

e)

Recommend temporary reassignment to a desk job

37.

A 19-year-old college student who has “always been overweight” complains that she is unable to lose weight despite exercising for an hour, four times a week, over the last year. She describes college as “very stressful,” admitting that she sometimes eats a whole pizza or a gallon of ice cream when feeling overwhelmed; this eating pattern is occurring four or five times a week recently. Afterward, she feels remorseful and vomits. She is concerned that she will always be overweight and plans to increase her exercise to two hours a day, six times a week. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely?

a)

Anemia

b)

Hypercarotinemia

c)

Hypercholesterolemia

d)

Reduced bone density

e)

Elevated serum amylase

38.

A patient with major depressive disorder who has responded well to citalopram 40 mg per day develops symptoms consistent with restless leg syndrome, resulting in sleep-onset insomnia and daytime sleepiness. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to add?

a)

Aripiprazole

b)

Bupropion

c)

Methylphenidate

d)

Modafinil

e)

Pramipexole

39.

Which of the following methods of gastrointestinal decontamination has the most evidence for treating lithium overdose?

a)

Weight-based intravenous N-acetylcysteine

b)

Intravenous bolus of sodium bicarbonate

c)

Oral lactulose administration four times daily

d)

Ingestion of activated charcoal at hourly intervals

e)

Whole bowel irrigation with polyethylene glycol solution

40.

Which brain structural change has been shown to occur in patients with schizophrenia?

a)

Increased amygdala volume

b)

Increased parahippocampal gyrus volume

c)

Decreased hippocampal volume

d)

Decreased lateral ventricle volume

e)

Increased fourth-ventricle volume

41.

Compared to men with substance use disorders, women are less likely to:

a)

Seek treatment

b)

Begin their use at a later age

c)

Be more vulnerable to relapse after abstinence

d)

Escalate their use more rapidly to addiction

e)

Experience negative health and social consequences

42.

Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a seven-year-old with ADHD?

a)

Modafinil

b)

Guanfacine

c)

Atomoxetine

d)

Clonidine

e)

Methylphenidate

43.

Which risk factor is most associated with the development of a depressive episode during perimenopause?

a)

Caucasian race

b)

Low social support

c)

Alcohol use disorder

d)

Prior episodes of depression

e)

Older age at menopause onset

44.

Patients with which of the following neurocognitive disorders are more likely to develop severe extrapyramidal side effects from antipsychotic medications?

a)

Prion disease

b)

Alzheimer disease

c)

Lewy body disease

d)

Cerebrovascular disease

e)

Cerebrovascular disease
E. Frontotemporal lobar degeneration

45.

A woman with postpartum depression experienced partial improvement on fluoxetine 40 mg over the last 12 weeks. She now endorses disturbing thoughts about stuffing her baby into a microwave and has visual images of her baby exploding. She has been avoiding going into the kitchen due to high anxiety. She does not have paranoia, delusions, or suicidal or homicidal ideations. Based on this information, the next best step in pharmacologic management would be to:

a)

Increase fluoxetine

b)

Start a neuroleptic

c)

Start a benzodiazepine

d)

Taper fluoxetine and start a mood stabilizer

e)

Taper fluoxetine and trial another antidepressant

46.

The psychiatrist evaluates a seven-year-old child who was referred for having "emotional outbursts" at school. The parents describe the child as generally well-behaved and cannot identify stressors in the home. Parents indicate that the child was initially excited about school, but has been increasingly reluctant to go in the morning, often complaining of stomach aches as school time approaches. Which of the following steps should the psychiatrist take next?

a)

Refer to a neurologist

b)

Recommend homeschooling

c)

Obtain neuropsychological testing

d)

Obtain a release to speak with the child's teacher

e)

Suggest that the family return at the end of the school year to re-evaluate

47.

Which of the following is the best predictor of later functional and adaptive outcomes in autism spectrum disorder?

a)

Age of onset

b)

Verbal ability at age five years

c)

Hyporeactivity to sensory input

d)

Presence of highly restricted, fixated interests

e)

Frequency of stereotyped or repetitive motor movements

48.

Successful use of the "not guilty by reason of insanity" defense:

a)

Occurs in greater than 10% of felony cases

b)

Is limited to psychotic defendants

c)

Produces greater recidivism rates than for convicted criminals

d)

Requires a full jury trial

e)

Often leads to hospitalizations as lengthy as prison sentences

49.

Sperm development in adolescent boys occurs through the action of which hormone on seminiferous tubules?

a)

Luteinizing hormone

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Androstenedione

e)

Dehydroepiandrosterone

50.

A woman is involved in a motor vehicle accident and experiences a traumatic limb amputation. She frequently poses questions such as "why me?" and expresses "this isn't fair." She is in which of the following stages proposed by Kübler-Ross?

a)

Anger

b)

Depression

c)

Bargaining

d)

Shock

e)

Denial

51.

Early in pregnancy, a female patient confides to her obstetrician that she is continuing to drink alcohol "a couple of times a week." At 20 weeks gestation, she is admitted to the hospital for dehydration. She states that she stopped drinking abruptly 12 hours ago and "may have" underreported her use. On exam, she is flushed, diaphoretic, tremulous, tachycardic, and hypertensive. Which medication is the best initial treatment?

a)

Naltrexone

b)

Acamprosate

c)

Disulfiram

d)

Lorazepam

e)

Valproate

52.

Which of the following best defines Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)?

a)

Prevalence measure of disability

b)

Estimated annual survival rate among the disabled

c)

Measure of decrease in quality of life

d)

Projected mortality rate for one year at a time

e)

One lost year of healthy life

53.

A resident is considering using an Internet search to gather information about a patient. In which of the following situations is this most appropriate?

a)

Providing patient information about which the clinician is curious

b)

Distinguishing between the patient's grandiose delusions and reality

c)

Investigating whether the patient is withholding information in psychotherapy sessions

d)

Reviewing social media posts as a source of general collateral information about the patient

e)

Determining information regarding patient socioeconomic status and need to pay a reduced rate

54.

Which of the following characteristics is more associated with bipolar depression rather than unipolar depression?

a)

Psychomotor agitation

b)

More common in females

c)

Abrupt onset of symptoms

d)

Fewer lifetime depressive episodes

e)

Insomnia

55.

People with schizophrenia are at decreased risk for developing which of the following medical comorbidities?

a)

HIV infection

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Cardiovascular disease

d)

Complex partial epilepsy

e)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

56.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of mental health courts?

a)

Adjudicate insanity defense

b)

Determine fitness to stand trial

c)

Divert offenders with mental illness away from incarceration

d)

Provide preliminary rulings on psychiatric malpractice cases

e)

Civilly commit dangerous mentally ill patients to outpatient treatment

57.

Evidence of a prior diagnosis in youth is required to diagnose which of the following personality disorders in an adult?

a)

Schizoid

b)

Antisocial

c)

Borderline

d)

Dependent

e)

Schizotypal

58.

What psychoanalytic term is used to describe the internal forces within a patient that obstruct their achievement of insight?

a)

Impedance

b)

Resistance

c)

Ego strength

d)

Transference

e)

Working through

59.

A woman presents to the emergency room with her infant at two weeks postpartum, describing intense anxiety, interrupted sleep, extreme worries about the infant's health, and increased checking overnight on the infant. Upon further examination, she also endorses intrusive thoughts of harming the infant, especially while holding the infant or giving the infant a bath. While describing these thoughts, she appears distressed and tearful. She reports that she cares deeply for her infant, but feels like a "horrible mother." The most appropriate next step is to:

a)

Obtain collateral information from the woman's support network

b)

Immediately separate the mother from her infant

c)

Call Child Protective Services

d)

Send the patient home with an outpatient follow-up appointment in four weeks

e)

Initiate the process for involuntary psychiatric admission

60.

According to Winnicott's theory of the development of infants' assertiveness and sense of competence, which of the following best describes the critical function of the "holding environment"?

a)

Encourages spontaneity while protecting the child from harm

b)

Uses "scaffolding" as a technique to facilitate cognitive development

c)

Anticipates the child's wishes before the child experiences frustration

d)

Reinforces prosocial behavior in relationships with caretakers and peers

e)

Establishes a consistent daily schedule for activities (e.g., meals, play, toileting)

61.

A woman with bipolar disorder is most likely to experience which of the following episodes during pregnancy?

a)

Manic

b)

Mixed

c)

Psychotic

d)

Hypomanic

e)

Major depressive

62.

Which of the following hypnotic medications has FDA-issued sex-specific dosage guidelines?

a)

Zaleplon

b)

Zolpidem

c)

Suvorexant

d)

Eszopiclone

e)

Temazepam

63.

Which of the following antidepressant medications is most likely to precipitate clozapine-associated neutropenia?

a)

Amitriptyline

b)

Bupropion

c)

Nortriptyline

d)

Paroxetine

e)

Sertraline

64.

Three days after giving birth, a 25-year-old woman with no past psychiatric history experiences rapid mood shifts, tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, insomnia, loss of energy, loss of appetite, and feeling overwhelmed. Which treatment is indicated at this time?

a)

Buspirone

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Hospitalization

d)

Psychotherapy

e)

Psychoeducation

65.

Which of the following types of memory is most dependent on medial temporal lobe integrity?

a)

Implicit

b)

Working

c)

Procedural

d)

Declarative

e)

Retrospective

66.

Which mode of delivery has the most extensive first pass metabolism?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intranasal

c)

Transdermal

d)

Oral

e)

Intramuscular

67.

Which is an adverse effect of maintenance methadone therapy?

a)

Tremor

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypogonadism

d)

Hyperglycemia

e)

Hypothyroidism

68.

hich research study type tests how well a treatment works under real-world conditions?

a)

Cohort

b)

Efficacy

c)

Effectiveness

d)

Cross-sectional

e)

Feasibility

69.

A patient expresses concerns about unusual new behaviors during sleep. The patient used to talk in their sleep occasionally, but now shouts during sleep almost every night. The patient has kicked their partner during sleep on multiple occasions and has no recollection of these episodes. The presence of these symptoms suggests that the patient is at an increased risk of later developing a major neurocognitive disorder due to:

a)

HIV infection

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Lewy body disease

d)

Traumatic brain injury

e)

Frontotemporal degeneration

70.

The ability of preschool children to regulate their emotions is most strongly enhanced by the development of:

a)

the ability to walk.

b)

language.

c)

guilt.

d)

cooperative play.

71.

The conscious, preconscious, and unconscious systems of the mind are core components of which theory of psychoanalysis?

a)

Topographical

b)

Instinctual

c)

Structural

d)

Attachment

e)

Object Relations

72.

A 30-year-old law student with no past psychiatric history presents to the emergency room with anxiety, tinnitus, and diarrhea. On exam, the patient appears euphoric and has facial flushing, rambling speech, and psychomotor agitation. They report not sleeping for two days due to the stress of upcoming exams. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular contractions. Urine toxicology is negative. This presentation is most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Bipolar II disorder

c)

Alcohol withdrawal

d)

Caffeine intoxication

e)

Cocaine use disorder

73.

The consultation-liaison psychiatrist evaluates a 54-year-old patient with end-stage breast cancer. The patient was previously very optimistic and energetic but has recently been told that the treatment protocol had failed and only palliative care was recommended. Since that time the patient has appeared depressed, and the team is concerned that she is suicidal. On interview, the patient is initially pleasant and able to amiably discuss neutral topics. When the subject shifts to her illness, the patient becomes tearful and expresses a crushing feeling of hopelessness about the future. She denies any plan to hurt herself, saying, "What's the point? I'm going to die soon anyway, but I would rather God just took me and didn't draw this out." Which of the following would be the best initial approach to this patient?

a)

Defer any intervention as the patient does not have a psychiatric illness.

b)

Validate the patient as having a normal reaction to an overwhelming situation.

c)

Recommend a transfer to a locked psychiatric unit for further evaluation and treatment.

d)

Discuss with the patient the possibility that an antidepressant might mitigate some symptoms.

e)

Suggest a course of cognitive behavioral therapy targeting the patient’s cognitive distortions regarding her prognosis.

74.

A patient is brought to the emergency department for altered mental status. She is currently prescribed sertraline, aripiprazole, and buspirone by a psychiatrist. She was discharged two days prior after a cholecystectomy and has reportedly been taking a "pain killer" and ondansetron every eight hours since discharge. On mental status exam, the patient appears diaphoretic, is oriented only to the person, and exhibits psychomotor agitation. Physical exam reveals hyperactive reflexes and inducible clonus at the ankles. She is febrile and hypertensive. Prescription of which of the following pain medications would most likely account for the patient's presentation?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Meperidine

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Codeine with acetaminophen

e)

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen

75.

A patient presents with low mood, anhedonia, poor concentration, psychomotor retardation, and escalating suicidality comorbid with heavy alcohol use. A diagnosis of major depressive episode not secondary to substance use would be most appropriate if symptoms:

a)

Improve when alcohol use is stopped

b)

Persist for several months after abstinence

c)

Preceded by heavy alcohol use

d)

First time in life

e)

Occur during withdrawal

76.

In accordance with federal model penal code, which of the following considerations is included when determining if criminal responsibility is attributable to mental disease or defect?

a)

Repeated criminal or antisocial conduct

b)

Cooperation with officials at time of offense

c)

Psychiatric treatment status at time of conduct

d)

Capacity to appreciate wrongfulness of conduct

e)

Comprehensive psychiatric testimony during trial

77.

A 22-year-old female is hospitalized with severe paranoia and hallucinations. During the review of systems, she acknowledges a history of acute abdominal pain, particularly during menstruation. Physical examination reveals reduced strength in the proximal upper and lower extremities and reduced tendon reflexes. Which of the following laboratory values is likely to be elevated and would explain her symptoms?

a)

Porphobilinogen

b)

Urine copper

c)

Serum ferritin

d)

Serum ceruloplasmin

e)

Long-chain fatty acids in urine

78.

Which of the following antipsychotic medications does not cause significant QTc interval changes?

a)

Iloperidone

b)

Paliperidone

c)

Aripiprazole

d)

Ziprasidone

e)

Quetiapine

79.

Which of the following is the most common biological cause of prenatal neurotoxicity linked to the development of intellectual disability?

a)

Alcohol exposure

b)

Lead exposure

c)

Maternal diabetes

d)

Mercury exposure

e)

Radiation exposure

80.

A patient with alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for several fractures following a motor vehicle accident. On the fifth day of admission, the patient describes repeated visions of cars crashing, accompanied by shortness of breath and racing heart rate. The patient startles easily when providers enter the room and has demanded that the window blinds stay shut as the window faces the street where the accident occurred. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Alcohol withdrawal

b)

Panic attacks

c)

Acute stress disorder

d)

Adjustment disorder with anxious features

e)

Posttraumatic stress disorder

81.

A patient has vivid nightmares accompanied by punching and kicking. Which of the following is a first-line agent for treatment of the patient's behaviors?

a)

Prazosin

b)

Sertraline

c)

Trazodone

d)

Amitriptyline

e)

Clonazepam

82.

Which of the following is the leading cause of death in persons with severe mental illness?

a)

Cancer

b)

Suicide

c)

Diabetes

d)

Accidents

e)

Cardiovascular disease

83.

In 2019, the USPSTF recommended counseling for pregnant/postpartum persons at increased risk of perinatal depression. This recommendation is an example of which type of prevention?

a)

Indicated

b)

Selective

c)

Universal

d)

Tertiary

e)

Primordial

84.

Which of the following antiseizure medications is most likely to affect the metabolism of other drugs through cytochrome P450 pathways?

a)

Gabapentin

b)

Topiramate

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Levetiracetam

e)

Zonisamide

85.

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity in a patient with an anxiety disorder?

a)

A mood disorder

b)

A personality disorder

c)

Another anxiety disorder

d)

A substance use disorder

e)

An impulse control disorder

86.

The four processes that reflect the flow and focus of a motivational interviewing conversation are: engaging, focusing, planning, and:

a)

Evoking

b)

Reflecting

c)

Validating

d)

Assessing

e)

Empowering

87.

Which pharmacokinetic parameter is increased in the elderly?

a)

Drug absorption

b)

Phase II reactions

c)

Concentration of water-soluble drugs

d)

Hepatic drug clearance

e)

Glomerular filtration rate

88.

Which of the following is the major mechanism of action shared by both methylphenidate- and amphetamine-based psychostimulants?

a)

Agonism at the D1 dopamine receptor

b)

Antagonism of the dopamine transporter (DAT)

c)

Inhibition of the monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzyme

d)

Inhibition of the catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) enzyme

e)

Promotion of dopamine release from reserpine-sensitive vesicles

89.

A father wants to know if he should allow his five-year-old child to attend the funeral of his mother. The child expresses a desire to go. To help the child through the funeral, it will be important to do which of the following?

a)

Shield the child from viewing the body

b)

Make the child an active participant in the service

c)

Have someone familiar accompany the child

d)

Allow the child to attend the ceremony, but not the burial

e)

Seat the child in the back of the room in case the child starts to cry

90.

Which of the following antipsychotic medications is the most potent alpha-1-adrenergic antagonist?

a)

Aripiprazole

b)

Cariprazine

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Lurasidone

e)

Risperidone

91.

Which of the following tasks measures processing speed associated with cognitive aging?

a)

Stroop Test

b)

Boston Naming Test

c)

Trail Making Test

d)

Digit Vigilance Test

e)

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

92.

A 26-year-old sexually active woman with bipolar II disorder agrees to a first-time trial of lamotrigine. Before deciding on a target dose, her psychiatrist asks what kind of contraception she uses. Which of the following is the reason for asking this question?

a)

Lamotrigine decreases the efficacy of hormonal contraception

b)

Lamotrigine is a teratogen, so good contraception is necessary

c)

Oral contraceptives containing progestin increase serum levels of lamotrigine

d)

Oral contraceptives containing estrogens decrease serum levels of lamotrigine

93.

Which of the following is a characteristic of assertive community treatment (ACT) for the treatment of the severely mentally ill?

a)

Primarily office-based care

b)

24-hour-a-day mental healthcare coverage

c)

Use of day hospital at least three days a week

d)

Indirect involvement in admissions and discharges by the ACT team

e)

Integration of primary care through a federally qualified health center

94.

Which of the following describes a key feature of the accountable care organization (ACO) model of healthcare delivery?

a)

A focus on improving care for patients with private and employer-based insurance plans

b)

An increase in fee-for-service billing

c)

A focus on early preventive intervention

d)

Healthcare facilities that emphasize tertiary care are rewarded

e)

A focus on readmission rates within 60 days of discharge

95.

Which serum clozapine level is considered a minimum threshold for a fair trial?

a)

0.1 mg/L

b)

0.35 mg/L

c)

0.60 mg/L

d)

1 mg/L

e)

3 mg/L

96.

A patient has been stable on clozapine for one year with no complications. According to the Risk Evaluation and Management Strategy (REMS) program, which of the following is the required frequency for monitoring the absolute neutrophil count?

a)

Biweekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Every three months

d)

Every six months

e)

Annually

97.

A college student studies diligently and performs well on a surprise test. This is an example of what type of reinforcement schedule?

a)

Variable-interval

b)

Fixed-ratio

c)

Variable-ratio

d)

Fixed-interval

e)

Continuous