wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Micro Exam 2 Review-Spring 26- Prok, Euk, Viruses

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A eukaryotic organism that gets it's carbon and energy by digesting other organisms and reproduces via spores is

a)

protozoa

b)

helminth

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

2.

The stalk-like filaments of molds that consist of many joined cells are

a)

conidiospores

b)

hyphae

c)

sporangium

d)

spores

3.

Thrush, vaginal yeast infections and infections of moist skin are examples of infections caused by

a)

dinoflagellates

b)

Candida albicans

c)

dermatophytes

d)

histoplasmosis

4.

A mass of fungal hyphae is called what?

a)

conidiospores

b)

mycelium

c)

sporangium

d)

spores

5.

Algae are

a)

chemoheterotrophs

b)

photoautotrophs

c)

parasites

d)

saprobes

6.

Which types of algae are associated with producing toxins?

a)

diatoms

b)

red algae

c)

dinoflagellates

d)

brown algae

7.

Spread of the protozoal infection malaria is via

a)

respiratory droplets

b)

ingestion of cysts from infected food/water

c)

sexual contact

d)

bite from an infected mosquito

8.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Plasmodium infection in humans?

a)

it causes lysis of red blood cells

b)

it replicates in the liver

c)

it causes anemia and organ damage

d)

it produces toxins

9.

Why is E.coli 0157:H7 so virulent?

a)

contains a glycocalyx capsule

b)

Produces an enterotoxin that causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, kidney failure, death.

c)

produces endospores

d)

it lacks a cell wall

10.

Which of the following are true regarding Clostridium? (choose all that apply)

a)

they produce endospores

b)

they produce powerful neurotoxins

c)

they lack cell walls

d)

they frequently cause UTI infections

e)

they are anaerobic

11.

Viruses that only attack bacteria are called...?

a)

Capsulated

b)

Helical

c)

Bacteriophage

d)

Bacteria Vectors

12.

Which process allows for the virus's DNA to lay "dormant" or hide in the host DNA while the cell reproduces?

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

c)

Enveloped

d)

Capsid

13.

Retroviruses use what enzyme to make a DNA copy from their RNA genome?

a)

reverse transcriptase

b)

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

ligase

14.

What biological reason explains why RNA viruses generally mutate more quickly than DNA viruses?

a)

RNA is more complex than DNA

b)

RNA viruses do not need to use the nucleus of the host cell

c)

RNA dependent RNA polymerase does not have proofreading ability

d)

RNA viruses replicate more quickly than DNA viruses

15.

A viral infection that causes symptoms and progresses over many years in one person is a

a)

latent infection

b)

acute infection

c)

persistent infection

d)

phage infection

16.

In general, animal viruses can only infect cells if the virus can

a)

inject it's DNA/RNA into the cell

b)

cause cancer

c)

bind to receptors on those cells

d)

cause lysis of those cells

17.
A capsid is
a)
a structure that directly causes cell lysis
b)
the type of virus that attacks bacteria
c)
the genetic material of a virus
d)
the protein coat of a virus
18.

Which of the following are examples of how transduction can occur as a result of phage infection? (choose all that apply)

a)

bacterial DNA adjacent to the phage genome is excised and packaged into phage virions

b)

random pieces of host DNA are accidentally packaged into phage virions

c)

bacterial host DNA is packaged into vesicles and released out of the host cell

d)

mosquitos transfer host DNA from one bacterial cell to another

19.

After infection with chicken pox, the virus remains asymptomatic in the body for years before reactivating to cause shingles. This form of dormancy is called

a)

oncogenesis

b)

persistant infection

c)

latency

d)

acute infection

20.

Which describes "A"?

a)

helical

b)

polyhedral

c)

spherical

d)

binal

21.
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a VIRUS?
a)
Measles
b)
Polio
c)
Chicken Pox
d)
Strep throat
22.

What is the term for the fusion of infected cells to form a large cell with multiple nuclei?

a)

inclusion bodies

b)

syncytia

c)

cell lysis

d)

apoptosis

23.

Which of the following viruses is known for causing persistent infections and potentially leading to long-term effects like shingles?

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Respiratory syncytial virus

c)

Varicella-zoster virus

d)

Influenza virus

24.

HIV stands for...

a)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

b)

Human Immune Virus

c)

Have Infected Viral Disease

25.

What types of host cells does HIV infect?

a)

Liver cells

b)

Respiratory cells

c)

Epithelial Cells

d)

Plasma cells

e)

CD4 T cells, Macrophages and Dendritic cells

26.

HIV is what type of microbe?

a)

A naked negative sense RNA virus

b)

An enveloped double stranded DNA virus

c)

A naked double stranded DNA virus

d)

An enveloped retrovirus

e)

A gram negative bacteria

27.

The disease smallpox was eradicated (ended) in 1979 because

a)

of worldwide vaccination

b)

it went away naturally

c)

of antibiotic treatment

d)

of variolation (blowing smallpox up the nose)

28.

What does a patient of smallpox develop?

a)

Fever

b)

Body pain

c)

Vomitting

d)

Rashes

29.

Which virus causes chicken pox?

a)

Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

b)

Variola Virus

c)

Epstein-Bar Virus

d)

Rous Sarcoma Virus

30.

This protist causes red tide

a)

Euglenas

b)

Diatoms

c)

Dinoflagellates

d)

Ciliates

31.

Plasmodium species including Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium falciparum are what type of microbe?

a)

Gram negative bacterium

b)

Protozoan

c)

Gram positive bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

DNA virus

32.
which species of nematode is transferred to humans by eating infected pig meat
a)
trichonella
b)
pinworm
c)
diroflaria
d)
cestoda
33.

Which of the following is a general term for any fungal infection?

a)

fungitis

b)

mycology

c)

mycosis

d)

fungosis

34.

Which fungal infection is commonly associated with oral thrush and vaginal yeast infections?

a)

Aspergillosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Cryptococcosis

35.

What is the scientific name of the pathogen C. diff

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Salmonella enterica

c)

Clostridium difficile

d)

Clostridium tetani

36.

A Gram-positive bacterium that causes strep throat and scarlet fever.

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Lactobacillus acidophilus

c)

Enterococcus faecalis

d)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

37.

What type of microorganism is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a)

Bacterium

b)

Virus

c)

Fungus

d)

Protozoa

38.

What is the unique feature of the cell wal of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that makes it distinctive from other bacteria?

a)

It is composed of cellulose

b)

It lacks a cell wall

c)

It has cell wall that abundantly composed of mycolic acids

d)

It has double cell wall

39.
What is a direct ELISA?
a)
An antibody binding to an antibody
b)
An antibody binding to an antigen
c)
An antibody binding to another antibody that bound to an antigen
d)
An antibody binding to an antigen, which bound to another antibody
40.
What is an indirect ELISA?
a)
An antibody binding to an antibody
b)
An antibody binding to an antigen
c)
An antibody binding to another antibody that bound to an antigen
d)
An antibody binding to an antigen, which bound to another antibody
41.

A Western Blot is used clinically to determine if a patient sample contains

a)

specific antigens

b)

specific antibodies

c)

microbial DNA

d)

bacterial enzymes

42.

Serological testing detects (select all that apply)

a)

microbial DNA

b)

antigens

c)

antibodies

d)

microbial enzymes

43.

PCR stands for

a)

Polymerase chain reaction

b)

Primer copied reaction

c)

Primer copy repeat

d)

Polymerase copy repetition

44.

A DNA probe will hybridize with a sample if

a)

antibodies are present

b)

the sample DNA is the complementary sequence to the probe

c)

the specific antigens are present in the sample

d)

the DNA has been replicated

45.

In DNA fingerprinting

a)

fluorescence indicates a positive result

b)

sizes/patterns of DNA fragments are compared

c)

DNA probes bind to genes in samples

d)

color of media may change

46.

Cyanobacteria (choose 2)

a)

perform photosynthesis

b)

are normal flora of humans

c)

are important ecologically

d)

are used to ferment foods such as yogurt

e)

cause disease via arthropod vectors

47.

Which two taxons are used to give an organism their scientific name?

a)

kingdom/phylum

b)

phylum/class

c)

genus/species

d)

kingdom/species

48.

What is taxonomy?

a)

A two-word naming system for describing organisms

b)

A classification system based on shared characteristics

c)

A method of observing living organisms in their natural environment

d)

A process for using radioactive elements to date fossils

49.

Parasitic worms that cause infection

a)

protozoa

b)

prions

c)

fungi

d)

helminths

50.

In general, how are helminth infections transmitted?

a)

arthropod vectors

b)

healthcare acquired infections

c)

inhalation of spores

d)

ingestion of eggs

51.

The tests performed in a microbiological lab that detect production of bacterial enzymes or what sugars or carbon sources bacteria use are examples of

a)

serological tests

b)

molecular tests

c)

biochemical tests

d)

microscopic tests

52.

Describe the process of PCR amplification.

a)

PCR amplification is a technique used to identify a specific DNA segment

b)

PCR amplification is a technique used to reduce the number of DNA copies

c)

PCR amplification is a technique used to make multiple copies of a specific DNA segment.

d)

PCR amplification is a technique used to make multiple copies of RNA

53.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
54.

What does staphylo mean?

a)

In a line

b)

group of 4

c)

groups or clusters

d)

single

55.

What is this bacteria shape and arrangement?

a)

Streptobaccillus

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Diplococcus

d)

Staphylococcus

56.

A microbiologist identified the following characteristics about a bacterium: it is gram-positive, it can form endospores, it has low G+C content, and it is medically important. Which of the following phyla would this organism most likely be classified as?

a)

Algae

b)

Spirochaetes

c)

Archaea

d)

Firmicutes

57.

Which phylum includes many medically important, Gram-negative bacteria, and is often identified by the presence of an outer membrane containing LPS? E. coli is found in this phylum.

a)

Proteobacteria

b)

Firmicutes

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Bacteroidetes

58.

Which phylum contains bacteria that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis, are extremely important to the environment, and often appear as blue-green pigments in water samples?

a)

Actinobacteria

b)

Proteobacteria

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Plactomycetes

59.

Protozoan classification used to be based on their means of

a)

locomotion.

b)

reproduction.

c)

growth.

d)

obtaining nutrients.

60.

What kind of Archaea would you find in places such as volcanoes and hot vents on the ocean floor?

a)

Thermophiles

b)

Halophiles

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Plasmophiles

e)

Volcanophiles

61.

Which genus is a prominent member of the Actinobacteria phylum?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Mycobacterium

c)

Bacillus

d)

Clostridium

62.

Which of the following describes Proteobacteria in domain Bacteria?

a)

  1. phylum

b)

  1. class

c)

  1. species

d)

  1. genus

63.

Which of the following bacterial phyla is known for having a high cytosine and guanine content in their DNA?

a)

Firmacutes

b)

Actinobacteria

c)

Nonproteobacteria

d)

Alphaproteobacteria

64.
A capsid is
a)
a structure that directly causes cell lysis
b)
the type of virus that attacks bacteria
c)
the genetic material of a virus
d)
the protein coat of a virus
65.

What is a cytopathic effect?

a)

a beneficial interaction between a virus and host cell

b)

the structural changes in host cells resulting from viral infection

c)

the immune system's response to a bacterial infection

d)

the process by which viruses replicate without harming the host

66.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing (rupturing)?

a)

lytic

b)

mitosis

c)

lysogenic

d)

meiosis

67.

How do most viruses get inside their host?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Injecting their DNA into host

c)

Pinocytosis

d)

Plasmolysis

68.
A virus can be classified by its type of
a)
mitochondria
b)
chromosomes
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrates
69.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
70.
What is the main function of the projections on the surface of a virus?
a)
They aid in respiration
b)
They help the virus grow
c)
They help the virus invade its host
d)
They help the virus digest food molecules
71.

Prions are known to cause which of the following diseases?

a)

Potato tuber spindle disease

b)

Subterranean clover mottle virus

c)

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy

d)

Influenza

72.

What terminology is suggested as more accurate than "alive" or "dead" when describing viruses?

a)

Dormant or active

b)

Active or inactive

c)

Living or non-living

d)

Growing or shrinking

73.

Which of the following is the correct order of the general phases of the animal replication cycle?

a)

Adsorption, Penetration, Uncoating, Synthesis, Assembly, Release

b)

Penetration, Adsorption, Synthesis, Uncoating, Assembly, Release

c)

Uncoating, Synthesis, Assembly, Release, Adsorption, Penetration

d)

Synthesis, Assembly, Release, Adsorption, Penetration, Uncoating

74.

Which of the following is NOT a human prion disease?

a)

Kuru

b)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

c)

Gerstmann–Sträussler–Scheinker syndrome

d)

Chronic wasting disease

75.

Chronic Wasting Disease is caused by which of the following pathogens.

a)

virus

b)

prion

c)

bacteria

d)

fungus

Similar Resources on Wayground

Hemodialysis Midterm/Final

75 questions

Hemodialysis Midterm/Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Ecology 1 Review

70 questions

Ecology 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Muscle System Review

80 questions

Muscle System Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Micro exam 2

72 questions

Micro exam 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

AP Bio: Information Processing

78 questions

AP Bio: Information Processing

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Man's impact on his environment

71 questions

Man's impact on his environment

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - Professio...

sinh lý bệnh y khoa (tt)

76 questions

sinh lý bệnh y khoa (tt)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Mills: Cell Structure & Function

72 questions

Mills: Cell Structure & Function

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University