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Fire Protection System Quiz

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of the fire protection system?

a)

To extinguish fires in the cabin only

b)

To prevent fires from starting in the aircraft

c)

To detect and extinguish fires in critical areas like the engines, APU, and cargo compartments

d)

To alert the crew about potential fire risks

2.

Where is the fire detection sensors located?

a)

Only in the engine compartments

b)

In the cockpit and cabin

c)

In the engines, APU, and cargo compartments

d)

Only in the cargo hold

3.

How many fire extinguishers are available for engine fire protection?

a)

One for each engine

b)

Two for each engine

c)

One for the left engine only

d)

One for the right engine only

4.

What happens when the fire detection system in the engine compartment detects a fire?

a)

A warning light illuminates on the flight deck

b)

The engines automatically shut down

c)

The aircraft's autopilot disengages

d)

The APU starts to provide backup power

5.

What must be done after a fire warning light illuminates for an engine?

a)

The crew must attempt to extinguish the fire immediately

b)

The crew must shut down the engine and discharge the fire extinguisher

c)

The aircraft must land immediately

d)

The autopilot should be engaged

6.

How is the fire suppression system activated in the cargo hold?

a)

Automatically when a fire is detected

b)

Manually by the flight crew using a cockpit switch

c)

By a ground crew member before take off

d)

By cabin crew using a button in the galley

7.

What does the cockpit fire warning system consist of?

a)

Warning lights and an audible alarm

b)

A temperature sensor and a visual gauge

c)

A smoke detector

d)

A siren and a cabin display

8.

What type of fire extinguishing agent is used in the cargo compartment?

a)

Halon 1301

b)

Water

c)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

d)

Dry chemical agents

9.

What happens when a fire is detected in the APU compartment?

a)

The APU automatically shuts down, and the fire extinguisher is activated

b)

The crew must manually shutdown the APU after receiving a warning

c)

The APU continues to run but at a reduced power setting

d)

There is no impact unless the fire escalates

10.

What is the primary purpose of the fuel system?

a)

To supply fuel to the engine and auxiliary power unit (APU)

b)

To store fuel for long-term use

c)

To cool the engines

d)

To measure fuel consumption during flight

11.

How many main fuel tanks are there?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

12.

What is the function of the fuel cross feed system?

a)

To transfer fuel between the tanks to balance fuel distribution

b)

To allow fuel transfer from the APU to the engines

c)

To supply backup fuel to the engines during emergencies

d)

To prevent fuel contamination

13.

What is the purpose of the fuel jettison system?

a)

To remove excess fuel in case of emergency landing

b)

To prevent fuel contamination

c)

To balance the fuel load in all tanks

d)

To increase engine performance

14.

What happens if a fuel pump fails?

a)

The engine will automatically shut down

b)

The fuel cross feed system will transfer fuel to the affected tank

c)

The APU will supply fuel to the engine

d)

There will be no impact on the flight

15.

How is fuel transferred between the tanks?

a)

Manually by ground crew

b)

Automatically via the fuel cross feed system

c)

By the APU during flight

d)

By the aircraft's autopilot system

16.

What is the purpose of the fuel transfer valves?

a)

To allow fuel to be sent to the APU

b)

To control the flow of fuel between tanks

c)

To monitor fuel quality

d)

To balance the aircraft weight

17.

What does the fuel quantity indicator show?

a)

The total amount of fuel remaining in the aircraft

b)

The fuel flow rate to each engine

c)

The pressure in the fuel lines

d)

The fuel temperature in the tanks

18.

What is the primary function of the APU?

a)

Provide electrical power during flight

b)

Generate thrust for take off

c)

Supply air conditioning and electrical power when the main engines are off

d)

Assist in engine start-up

19.

What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?

a)

10,000 feet

b)

15,000 feet

c)

25,000 feet

d)

30,000 feet

20.

What is the primary power source of the APU?

a)

Battery

b)

Engine generators

c)

Jet fuel

d)

Ground power unit (GPU)

21.

What is the maximum operating speed of the APU?

a)

50% RPM

b)

75% RPM

c)

100% RPM

d)

110% RPM

22.

What happens if the APU fails to start?

a)

The aircraft will not be able to take off

b)

The pilot will receive an automatic warning

c)

The aircraft can still operate using ground power

d)

The aircraft will automatically switch to backup power

23.

Which of the following is an APU component that is critical for starting the engines?

a)

Power generation system

b)

Pneumatic system

c)

Hydraulic pump

d)

Ignition system

24.

How is the APU shutdown performed?

a)

The pilot manually shuts it off via the cockpit control panel

b)

Automatically when the engines are started

c)

By pressing a button located in the cabin

d)

The ground crew performs the shutdown

25.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the APU?

a)

Starting the main engines

b)

Providing cabin air conditioning

c)

Supplying hydraulic pressure

d)

Powering electrical systems

26.

The engine used on Boeing 737 is CFM 56-3, the type of the engine is:

a)

Low by-pass, dual rotor, axial flow, turbo fan engine

b)

Low by-pass, dual rotor, centrifugal flow turbo fan engine

c)

High by-pass, dual rotor, centrifugal flow, turbo fan engine

d)

High by-pass, dual rotor, axial flow, turbo fan engine

27.

How the accessory gear box?

a)

It is installed to the fan case, right hand side

b)

It is installed to the fan case, left hand side

c)

It is driven by LP turbine via radial and horizontal driven shaft

d)

It is driven the inlet gear box directly via radial drive shaft

28.

The type of engine bearing are roller bearing and ball bearing:

a)

Ball type for bearing no. 1 and no. 5

b)

Ball Type for bearing no.1 and no. 3, Roller type for bearing no. 2, 4 and 5

c)

Ball type for bearing no. 1 and no. 4, Roller type for bearing no. 2, 3 and 5

d)

Ball type for bearing no. 1 and no. 2, Roller type for bearing no. 3, 4 and 5

29.

In working around a running engine, for safety reason be aware of the following, Except:

a)

Not to wear any lose articles

b)

Hot and high speed exhaust blast is quite dangerous

c)

Ear protector is not so necessary when the engine is only at idle speed

d)

Use the safety corridor in approaching the engine

30.

Concerning fan blade installation, with statement is correct?

a)

Spacer is to limit axial movement of the blade

b)

Fan balancing is done to shorten landing roll

c)

Balancing screw is on spinner rear cone

d)

Retainer is to limit radial movement of the blade

31.

The engine has two fuel pump and HP fuel pump:

a)

The LP pump is gear type

b)

Fuel pump assembly contains LP pump and HP pump

c)

The HP pump is centrifugal type

d)

As mentioned on A, B and C

32.

The fuel shut off valve (Start valve) is located in the MEC:

a)

It is controlled electrically from the cockpit

b)

It is driven mechanically by the start lever

c)

It is a normally open valve

d)

It is driven mechanically by the throttle lever from flight deck

33.

The installation of the fuel flow transmitter is:

a)

Upstream of the MEC

b)

Upstream of the fuel Pump

c)

Downstream of the Fuel pump

d)

Downstream of the MEC

34.

In the operational, how does the MEC monitors the position of the VBV, VSV and HPTCC?

a)

VBV and VSV position is monitored mechanically

b)

VBV positioned is monitored hydraulically

c)

HPTCC position is monitored electrically

d)

A, B and C are correct

35.

The engine idle control system:

a)

On MEC, solenoid energized for low idle

b)

On MEC, solenoid energized for high idle

c)

Low idle light always illuminated on the ground

d)

Low idle light always illuminated in flight

36.

What adjustment do you have on MEC?

a)

Idle speed adjustment, Part power adjustment and SG adjustment

b)

Acceleration and deceleration adjustments

c)

Part power adjustment and SG adjustments

d)

Idle speed adjustment, part power adjustment and pull power adjustment

37.

Where is the location of the CIT sensor?

a)

In the engine inlet, at 12.00 O'clock

b)

In HP compressor outlet

c)

Between LP Compressor and HP Compressor at 06.00 O'clock

d)

Between LP Compressor and HP Compressor at 12.00 O'clock

38.

On the VSV system, some stages of HP compressor stator vanes are made variable:

a)

IGV, stage 1, stage 2, and stage 3 vanes

b)

IGV, stage 1, and stage 2 vanes

c)

Stage 1, stage 2, stage stator vanes

d)

IGV and stage 1 stator vanes

39.

The HPTCC timer is active as follows:

a)

Aircraft on the ground with engine RPM 95% N2

b)

Aircraft in flight

c)

One time operation for maximum 182 seconds per engine cycle

d)

A and C are correct

40.

What indication do you have, when an engine anti icing valve is closed due to the operation of over pressure protection?

a)

Amber light ON, blue light bright

b)

Amber light ON, blue light OFF

c)

Amber light OFF, Blue light ON

d)

Amber Light ON, Blue light OFF

41.

The oil tank is vented to

a)

Forward sump

b)

Aft sump

c)

Accessory gear box

d)

Over board directly

42.

The oil FILTER BYPASS Light illuminate when:

a)

Differential oil pressure filters 25-27 psid

b)

Oil pressure filter is being bypass

c)

Oil pressure filter is clogged

d)

All above are correct

43.

During engine starting when the start switch is selection to GND, so:

a)

Start valve open

b)

5" stage bleeds valve open

c)

Start valve light illuminate

d)

As mentioned on A, B, and C

44.

About the ignition system:

a)

The LH is DC ignition and RH is AC ignition system

b)

Both are AC ignition system

c)

The ignition plugs are always operating together

d)

The LH is AC ignition and The RH is DC ignition system

45.

Where the location of the ignition exciters?

a)

On the engine fan case

b)

On the engine core case

c)

In the E/E compartment

d)

In the flight deck

46.

Concerning starter duty cycle. Which statement is not correct?

a)

2 minutes ON, 20 seconds OFF

b)

15 minutes ON, 15 Minutes OFF

c)

2 minutes ON, 20 second OFF then 2 minutes ON again and let the starter become cool for three minutes

d)

20 minutes ON then 2 minutes OFF for cooling down

47.

The precaution to be obeyed prior to working on ignition system is:

a)

We can work directly on the system after a failure is identified

b)

Pull the system CB and disconnect the low tension connector

c)

Wait for enough time there is no high voltage in the system

d)

B and C are correct

48.

Choose the correct statement for N1 indicating system is:

a)

The sensor is an induction type tachometer generator

b)

The sensor is installed to the accessory gear box

c)

The indicator is on secondary engine display unit

d)

As mentioned on A, B and C

49.

The limitations of the engine are as follow, except:

a)

Maximum EGT during starting is 930 degree

b)

Maximum N1 is 106 %

c)

Maximum N2 is 105 %

d)

Maximum EGT during T/O 930 Degree C

50.

Engine performance will be done for the following reasons, except:

a)

To warm up the engine during pre-flight check

b)

As required to check an aircraft system

c)

After engine installation or component replacement that effect engine performance

d)

To conform inconclusive reported fault or to prove an adjustment

51.

What is the primary function of the air conditioning system?

a)

To provide cabin pressurization during flight

b)

To control the temperature and ventilation in the cabin and cockpit

c)

To supply hydraulic power to actuators

d)

To regulate fuel flow to the engines

52.

The turbo-fan valve of an air conditioning unit opens?

a)

When the aircraft is on the ground only

b)

When the aircraft is on the ground or in flight when flaps are extended

c)

Only when the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light is illuminated

d)

When the aircraft is in flight only

53.

The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights are normally extinguished

a)

During the cruise

b)

After take-off and flaps are up

c)

Just before landing

d)

After landing

54.

The E & E compartment is cooled by?

a)

The equipment cooling system

b)

The ram air system

c)

The AUTO or STANDBY pressurisation systems

d)

Engine bleed air

55.

The air supply for the Re-circulating Fan is?

a)

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay and forward outflow valve collected in a shroud located above the aft cargo compartment

b)

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay collected in a shroud located above the aft cargo compartment

c)

Exhaust air from the electrical equipment bay collected in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment

d)

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay collected in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment

56.

Pack Valve automatically closed and PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates for following conditions, except...

a)

Overheat in the turbine outlet

b)

Overheat in the compartment duct

c)

Overheat in the turbine inlet

d)

Overheat in the compressor discharge

57.

The Re-circulating Fan air shroud is located

a)

Forward of the E & E compartment

b)

Forward cargo compartment aft ceiling

c)

Above the aft cargo compartment

d)

Under the Cockpit floor

58.

The position of the forward outflow valve

a)

Is open when the main outflow valve is closed

b)

Is closed when the re-circulating fan is not operating

c)

Is closed when the re-circulating fan is operating

d)

Is open when the main outflow valve is open

59.

During inspection, it is found that the indicator on the water separator is the 'red range'...

a)

The water separator must be replaced

b)

The bypass valve must be replaced

c)

The coalescer bag must be replaced

d)

The pack system must be replaced

60.

During operation, the mix valve modulate...

a)

It controls the cold air flow

b)

It controls the hot air flow

c)

It controls the ram air

d)

It controls the hot air and cold air flow

61.

The cabin Altitude Warning horn will

a)

Sounds (steady horn) when the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet altitude

b)

Sounds (steady horn) when the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet altitude

c)

Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet altitude

d)

Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet altitude

62.

The Re-circulating Fan system provides?

a)

A filtered air supply into the mix manifold

b)

An unfiltered air supply into the mix manifold

c)

An air supply directly from the mix manifold into the passenger cabin only

d)

An air supply directly from the mix manifold into the control cabin only

63.

The Re-circulation Fan is

a)

Aircraft battery powered

b)

A.C. powered

c)

Pneumatically powered from APU or engine bleed air

d)

D.C. powered

64.

The safety relief valves are normaly closed valve, and will automatically open at...

a)

The differential pressure 8.65 psid

b)

The differential pressure 7.50 psid

c)

The differential pressure 7.80 psid

d)

The differential pressure 8.50 psid

65.

The cabin pressure controller is located in the

a)

Flight compartment

b)

Electronic compartment

c)

Forward cargo

d)

Aft fuselage, near the outflow valve

66.

With aircraft on ground, how is the ram air system

a)

Deflector door retracted, modulation panels open

b)

Deflector door retracted, modulation panels closed

c)

Deflector door extended, modulation panels open

d)

Deflector door extended, modulation panels closed

67.

Where is location of the Ram Air Controller?

a)

In the air conditioning bay

b)

In the cockpit

c)

In the forward cargo

d)

In the electrical compartment

68.

The cabin pressurization system selection is...

a)

Auto mode, Standby mode and manual mode

b)

Auto mode, Alternate mode and manual mode

c)

Auto mode, Alternate mode and Standby mode

d)

Auto mode and Alternate mode

69.

The illumination of an OVERHEAT light on the air conditioning control panel (P5) show...

a)

Supply duct overheat at 250 degrees fahrenheit

b)

Supply duct overheat at 190 degrees fahrenheit

c)

Supply duct overheat at 140 degrees fahrenheit

d)

Supply duct overheat at 110 degrees fahrenheit

70.

The temperatur indicator on the air conditioning control panel (P5)

a)

Cockpit duck or cockpit zone temperature as selected

b)

Cabin zone or cockpit zone temperature as selected

c)

Cabin zone temperature

d)

Cabin duct or cabin zone temperature selected

71.

The right No.2 window heating input is controlled by

a)

The left No.1 window heat control system

b)

The right No.1 window heat control system

c)

The right SIDE window heat control system

d)

The left SIDE window heat control system

72.

If a window overheats light illuminates this indicates that

a)

The associated window has reached an overheat condition and it must be selected OFF manually to remove power before any damage takes place

b)

Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 5 PSI

c)

The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system and will be re-introduced automatically when the window has cooled

d)

The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system

73.

With all window heaters selected ON and OVHT selected on the window heat test switch

a)

All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights may extinguish immediately, or remain illuminated for as long as 70 seconds

b)

All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights will extinguish immediately

c)

All OVERHEAT lights and ON lights will extinguish immediately

d)

The ON lights will not be affected but observe a rise in on the AC ammeters

74.

The right No.2 window heat is supplied from

a)

Standby AC BUS

b)

Battery Bus

c)

Generator BUS No. 1

d)

Generator BUS No. 2

75.

After the overheat lights have illuminated during OVHT test

a)

The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to RESET to reset the system

b)

The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to OFF to reset the system

c)

No action is required as the resetting of the system is automatic

d)

Push overheat light to reset

76.

The wing anti-ice valves will

a)

Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground only

b)

Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground or in flight

c)

Close when the pressure in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground or in flight

d)

Close when the pressure in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground only

77.

The wing anti-ice control valves

a)

Are pneumatically operated

b)

Are DC motor operated

c)

Pneumatically control and DC motor operated

d)

Are AC motor operated

78.

The source of air for wing anti-ice is

a)

Pneumatic manifold from 5th stage engine bleed air only

b)

Pneumatic manifold from 5th and 9th stage engine bleed air

c)

Pnematic manifold from 9th stage engine bleed air only

d)

Fan air

79.

The thermal protection of the wing anti-ice ducting is

a)

An inflight function only

b)

An inflight and flap not fully retract

c)

An on-ground function only

d)

Operative at all times

80.

With all windshield heating switches ON and the aircraft on the ground

a)

If a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master Caution light will not come ON

b)

all lights remain extinguished until the aircraft is airborne because of touchdown relays

c)

if a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master Caution light will also come ON

d)

failure of engine bleed switch

81.

Both windshield wipers are controlled by

a)

Their own respective rotary switches

b)

One rotary switch

c)

Their own respective lock-toggle switches

d)

Window heat switch

82.

Window NO.3 in the control cabin is

a)

Is fully anti-fogged from the air conditioning system

b)

Electrically heated

c)

Not electrically heated

d)

B and C are correct

83.

The Window Heat ON light (green) illuminates to indicate

a)

The window heat controller is applying heat to the associated window

b)

The associated window heat switch has been selected to OVHT TEST

c)

The associated window heat switch is positioned to ON

d)

The associated window heat switch is positioned to OFF

84.

What is the function of the four windows heat control units in electronic compartment

a)

To control heating for windows no.1, no.2

b)

To control heating for windows no.4, no.5

c)

To control heating for windows no.1, no.2, no.4 and no.5

d)

To control heating for windows no.1, no.2, no.3 and no.4

85.

When the wiper control on P5 panel is selected to PARK, wiper blade moves to such as position

a)

Blade moves outboard in high speed, then stop

b)

Blade moves outboard in low speed, then stop

c)

Blade moves inboard in high speed, then stop

d)

Blade moves inboard in low speed, then stop

86.

The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by the

a)

Ram air controller

b)

Pneumatic activated pre-cooler valve

c)

Modulating and shut-off valve

d)

Engine Bleed Valve

87.

APU bleed air used to start NO.1 engine is

a)

Routed direct to the No.1 engine starter valve

b)

Controlled by the modulating and shut-off valve

c)

Routed via the No. 1 engine bleed air valve to the No.1 engine starter valve

d)

Routed via Isolation Valve

88.

With the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed switches ON and both Air Conditioning Pack switches selected to AUTO or HIGH

a)

The isolation valve will be closed

b)

The isolation valve will be closed when the flaps are extended

c)

The isolation valve stay at last position

d)

The isolation valve will be open

89.

The DUAL BLEED light will be on

a)

With No. 2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve closed and APU bleed valve open

b)

With the air-conditioning panel set for a bleeds-off take off

c)

With No. 2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve open and APU bleed valve open

d)

With No. 1 and No. 2 bleed valves closed and APU bleed valve open

90.

An engine BLEED TRIP OFF light will illuminate

a)

Only if engine bleed air pressure exceeds a predetermined limit

b)

Engine Bleed Air Switch OFF

c)

Only if engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit

d)

When engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit

91.

The pneumatic duct pressure gauge

a)

Indicates pressure in left and right pneumatic ducts

b)

Is DC powered

c)

Indicates pressure available for engine anti-icing

d)

Indicates pressure in left pneumatic ducts

92.

With a ground pneumatic source connected and the isolation valve switch selected to CLOSE

a)

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator

b)

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the left hand pointer on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator

c)

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by both the left and right pointers on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator

d)

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by left or right pointers on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator depend on Air conditioning pack switch

93.

The 9th stage modulating and shut-off valve

a)

Will open if the 5th stage air is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure

b)

Will open if the APU is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure

c)

Is open at all times irrespective of 5th stage air pressure output

d)

Will open if the 5th stage air is sufficient in maintaining proper pressure

94.

The engine bleed valves are

a)

Pneumatically activated and operated

b)

DC activated and operated

c)

DC activated and pneumatically operated

d)

AC activated and pneumatically operated

95.

The sources of engine bleed are

a)

5th and 9th stages of the fan section

b)

5th and 13th stages of the fan section

c)

5th and 9th stages of the turbine section

d)

5th and 9th stages of the compressor section

96.

Water tank pressurisation in flight is normally provided by

a)

5th and 9th stage air from the No. 1 engine

b)

5th and 9th stage air from the No. 2 engine

c)

Bleed air from the APU

d)

5th and 9th stage air from the both engines

97.

Both hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by

a)

5th and 9th stage air from engine No. 2 only

b)

5th and 9th stage air from engine No. 1 only

c)

Separate engine bleeds directly to the reservoirs

d)

Air from the pneumatic manifold

98.

The source air ducted through the pre-cooler is

a)

5th stage bleed air

b)

Pressure controlled ram air

c)

Fan air

d)

9th stage bleed air

99.

The isolation valve is

a)

DC controlled and pneumatically operated

b)

DC operated

c)

AC operated

d)

AC controlled and pneumatically operated

100.

During operation, what condition makes the high stage valve closed

a)

The downstream pressure to high

b)

The engine is on idle speed

c)

The 9th stage air > 110 psi

d)

The 5th stage air > 110 psi

101.

The airplane has three main jack point

a)

Wing jack point

b)

Aft body jack point

c)

Forward jack point

d)

A and B are correct

102.

The airplane has auxiliary jack point

a)

Wing jack point

b)

Aft body jack point

c)

Forward jack point

d)

All are correct

103.

The airplane is normally towing movement max

a)

70⁰

b)

78⁰

c)

80⁰

d)

68⁰

104.

The boing 737 classic type design fuselage is

a)

Monocoque fuselage

b)

Semi monocoque fuselage

c)

Full monocoque fuselage

d)

Buckets fuselage

105.

How many entry door to the passenger cabin

a)

Base entry door

b)

Two entry door

c)

Three entry door

d)

Four entry door

106.

The airstair can be retracted or extended with airplane use

a)

Hydraulic power

b)

Battery power

c)

AC power

d)

B and C are correct

107.

How many time to extend or retract the air stair

a)

20 second

b)

30 second

c)

35 second

d)

40 second

108.

Power to operate the air stairs door is

a)

AC power

b)

DC power

c)

Hydraulic power

d)

All above correct

109.

How many of the gally service door

a)

One galley service door

b)

Two galley service door

c)

Three galley service door

d)

Four galley service door

110.

Emergency exit hatch operation can re open

a)

Inside removal

b)

Outside removal

c)

Only inside removal

d)

A and B correct

111.

The fixed window location no is

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 3, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 5

112.

The window location use power for heating for anti icing and defogging is

a)

No 1 and no 2

b)

No 1 and no 3

c)

No 3 and no 4

d)

No 4 and no 5

113.

The window no use power for heating is

a)

Window no 1

b)

Window no 3

c)

Window no 4

d)

Window no 5

114.

The seat can the adjustment control for sliding and to height is

a)

Pilot seat

b)

Observer seat

c)

Cabin crew seat/ attendant seat

d)

Passenger seat

115.

The air grilles functional for

a)

The recirculation fan

b)

The pressure differential

c)

That prevents debris

d)

All above answer true

116.

The crew oxygen system used

a)

A high pressure gaseous oxygen

b)

A chemically -- generated oxygen

c)

A and B correctly

d)

Portable oxygen

117.

Where location the crew oxygen bottle system component

a)

In the passenger compartment

b)

In the attendant compartment

c)

In the forward cargo compartment

d)

A, B and C no correct

118.

How many pressure crew oxygen flow regulator reduces in the distribution system

a)

1850 psi to 75 psi

b)

1850 psi to 80 psi

c)

1850 psi to 100 psi

d)

1850 psi to 50 psi

119.

If used the oxygen generator for passenger on the generator turns change color to

a)

Green

b)

Red

c)

Black

d)

Yellow

120.

Oxygen is generated inside the generator by the chemical use

a)

Natrium chlorate and iron

b)

Sodium chlorate and iron

c)

Sodium chlorate and alumunium

d)

Sodium chlorate and copper

121.

The major light system is

a)

Flight compartment light

b)

Passenger compartment light

c)

Cargo and service compartment light

d)

A, B, and C correct

122.

The passenger compartment light is exception

a)

Reading light

b)

Dome light

c)

Window light

d)

Taxi light

123.

The exterior compartment light is

a)

Logo light

b)

Turn off light

c)

Position light

d)

A, B and C correct

124.

Power supplied passenger reading light is

a)

115 VAC

b)

28 VAC

c)

28 VDC

d)

24 VDC

125.

The exterior position red light navigation is

a)

Left side position

b)

Right side position

c)

Tail side position

d)

A, B and C correct

126.

 

      THE EXTERIOR POSITION GREEN LIGHT NAVIGATION IS

a)

LEFT SIDE CONTROL

b)

RIGHT SIDE CONTROL

c)

TAIL SIDE POSITION

d)

A,B,C ARE CORRECT

127.

    THE STROBE LIGHT FLASH RATE IS

a)

    65± 3 PER MINUTES

b)

  

60± 3 PER MINUTES

c)

    65± 5 PER MINUTES

d)

60± 5 PER MINUTES

128.

     EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHT THE BATTERY PACK CONTAIN

a)

   FOUR NICAD BATTERIES

b)

   FIVE NICAD BATTERIES

c)

SIX NICAD BATTERIES

d)

SEVEN NICAD BATTERIES

129.

    THE POWER FOR BATT CHARGER IS

a)

NORMAL GROUND SERVICE BUS, ALTERNATE MAIN BUS

b)

    ALTERNATE MAIN BUS 2, ALTERNATE GROUND SERVICE BUS

c)

   NORMAL GROUND SERVICE BUS, ALTERNATE TRANSFER BUS

d)

    NORMAL GROUND SERVICE BUS, ALTERNATE MAIN BUS 2

130.

  GENERATOR CONTROL UNIT 3 ARE LOCATED IS

a)

  E /E COMPARTMENT

b)

P6 PANEL

c)

P18 PANEL

d)

LOWER NOSE COMPARTMENT R/H SIDE

131.

 

     IN FLIGHT APU POWER

a)

   CAN SUPPLY ONLY ONE GEN BUS

b)

    CAN SUPPLY BOTH GEN BUS

c)

    CAN SUPPLY ONLY GEN BUS 1

d)

CAN SUPPLY ONLY

GEN BUS 2

132.

     WHEN BATTERY TEMPERATURE EXCEED 58⁰C

a)

   THE BATTERY OVER TEMPERATURE LIGHT IS ON

b)

   THE HOT BUS UN POWERED

c)

    THE BATTERY STOP CHARGING AUTOMATICALLY

d)

   THE BATTERY VOLTAGE DROP TO ZERO

133.

    GCR (GENERATOR CONTROL RELAY) WILL TRIP IF

a)

OVER FREQUENCY OCCUR

b)

UNDER VOLATGE OCCURE

c)

GEN SWITCH ON

d)

   UNDER FREQUENCY OCCUR

134.

1.      THE GENERATOR CONTROL RELAYS (GCR) ARE LOCATED IN THE

a)

A.    NOSE WHEEL WELL

b)

A.    E-3RACK IN THE E/E COMPARTMENT

c)

A.    GENERATOR CONTROL UNIT (GCU’S)

d)

A.    P5-4

135.

THE MAXIMUM AMPERAGE FOR ANY GENERATOR LOADIN FLIGHT IS

a)

125 AMPERE

b)

65 AMPERE

c)

50 AMPERE

d)

28 AMPERE

136.

 

    FIRST PRIORITY THE GEN BUS IS

a)

ENGINE GENERATOR

b)

APU GENERATOR

c)

    EXTERNAL POWER

d)

NO PRIORITY

137.

    WHEN THE GROUND SERVICE PANEL LIGHT ILLUMINATE IF

a)

GROUND SERVICE PANEL ON POSITION

b)

EXTERNAL POWER PLUG IN POSITION

c)

GROUND SERVICE POWER OFF POSITION

d)

EXTERNAL POWER FLIGHT IN SWITCH OFF POSITION

138.

    IF GROUND SERVICE PLUG IN EXTERNAL POWER AVAIL, WHATCOLOUR OFLIGHT WILL ILLUMINAE AT THE GROUND

a)

AMBERE

b)

GREEN

c)

PINK

d)

BLUE

139.

     AC POWER FREQUENCY ACD VOLTAGE IS  

a)

A.    240 HZ/115 VAC

b)

400 HZ/115 VAC

c)

60 HZ/115 VAC

d)

   90 HZ/115 VAC

140.

    THE DC VOLTAGE OF THE BATTERY AND TRANSFORMER INTERIOR OUTPUT IS

a)

   12 V

b)

   115 V

c)

28VDC

d)

    16 V

141.

   TO CHECK THE BATTERY CHARGE ON DISCHARGE THE SELECTION MUST BE

a)

    BATT MUST POSITION

b)

BATT POSITION

c)

STANDBY POWER POSITION

d)

TEST POSITION

142.

WHEN YOU DISCONNECT THE CSD FOR GENETATOR, WHAT THREE LIGHT OF ELECTRICAL SYSTEM ILLUMINATE (APU NOT RUNNING)

a)

CSD LOW OIL PRESSURE GEN OFF BUS ,BUS OFF

b)

   CSD LOW OIL PRESSURE, APU GEN OFF BUS, STBY POWER

c)

   TRANSFER BUS OFF, BUS OFF, GEN BUS OFF

d)

   STBY POWER, HIGH OIL TEMP, GEN OFF BUS

143.

ENGINE CSD DISCONNECT HANDLE IS PULLED, WHICH LIGHT  ILLUMINATE ON N 328

a)

  FEEDER FAULT (FF) LIGHT

b)

LOW VOLTAGE (LV) LIGHT

c)

    MANUAL TRIP (MT) LIGHT

d)

HIGH VOLTAGE (HV) LIGHT

144.

    MAX CSD OIL TEMPERATURE

a)

1570⁰C

b)

157⁰C

c)

145⁰C

d)

145⁰F

145.

      IF THE CSD OIL TEMPERATUR INCREASE TO 157⁰C

a)

   THE CSD DISCONNECT  WILL ENGAGE AND REMOVE THE INPUT DRIVE TO CSD

b)

THE GENERATOR CONTROL RELAY (GCR) WILL TRIP

c)

    THE GENERATOR BREAKER (GB) WILL TRIP

d)

THE CSD OIL HIGH OIL TEMPT LIGHT WILL ILUMINATE

146.

 

  SWITCH IN ALL TO POSITION, NO SMOKING LIGHT WILL ILLUMINATE IF

a)

L/G LEVER HANDLE DOWN

b)

    T/E FLAP DOWN

c)

    L/G LEVER HAND

d)

.    ONLY NO SMOKING SWITCHES ON

147.

   GROUND SERVICE PANEL SWITCH IS LOCATED ON

a)

    GROUND SERVICE PANEL

b)

EXTERNAL NOSE LEFT WING

c)

  P5 COCKPIT PANEL

 

d)

FORWARD ATTENDANT

148.

     ENTRY DOOR SHOULD BE EQUIPPED EMERGENCY LIGHT SWITCH IS INSTALLED AT THE FUSELAGE, WHERE IS THE LOCATION OF BATTERY POWER SUPPLY

a)

   FWD CARGO COMPARTMENT

b)

AFT CARGO COMPARMENT

c)

CEILING CABIN

d)

  A AND B CORRECT

149.

    OVER FREQUENCY (OF) OCCUR, WHICH RELAY / BREAKER WILL TRIP

a)

POWER READY RELAY AND GENERATOR BREAKER

b)

ONLY POWER READY RELAY (PRR)

c)

    GCR, BPR, AND GB

d)

ONLY GENERATOR BREAKER(GB)

150.

     THE BATTERY CAN BE CHARGE BY

a)

BATTERY CHARGER

b)

DC EXTERNAL POWER

c)

DC BUS 1

d)

DC BUS 2

151.

The standby hydraulic system provide power to operate :

a)

Landing gear, thrust reserve, and flight control

b)

     Trust reserve, rudder, and leading edge devices

c)

    Rudder, leading edge devices, and alternate brake.

d)

     Leading edge devices, alternate brake, and thrust reverse.

152.

The pressure generation for system A is from :

a)

    One EDP and one PTU.

b)

Two Engine Driven Pumps

c)

    One EDP and one EMDP.

d)

Two Electric Motor Driven Pumps.

153.

Low quantity in standby reservoir can be seen From:

a)

Quantity indicator at standby reservoir.

b)

   Quantity indicator at P2 is shown below 88%.

c)

    Quantity indicator on P2 shown below 50%.

d)

     Low quantity amber light on P5.

154.

The PTU is powered from:

a)

System A pressure.

b)

     Standby system pressure.

c)

   System B Pressure.

d)

   AC bus 1

155.

The PTU valve will open in flight if EDP low pressure and flap

a)

  Extended.

b)

Not UP but < 15 units.

c)

  Extended.

d)

     Extend > 15 units

e)

     Retracted.

156.

System B supplies:

a)

   Standby rudder

b)

     Alternate brake

c)

Trailing Edge flap

d)

    Standby rudder and leading edge devices.

157.

During engine Running with EDP switch is ON position:

a)

     Depressurization solenoid energized and blocking valve open.

b)

Depressurization solenoid energized and blocking valve closed

c)

Depressurization solenoid de-energized and blocking valve closed.

d)

    Depressurization solenoid de-energized and blocking valve open.

158.

EDP low pressure amber light will illuminate if:

a)

  Fire handle is pulled and system pressure LOW.

b)

Fire handle is pulled and system pressure normal

c)

    Fire handles normal and EDP output low pressure.

d)

     Fire handles normal and reservoir low

159.

The over heat sensors EMDP are located on:

a)

    Reservoir.

b)

   Motor case housing and case return line of the EMDP.

c)

Heat Exchanger.

d)

     Selecting EMDP switch to Off for 5 minutes.

160.

After different current occurs, the EMDP can be reset by:

a)

Push Reset button at P6-1

b)

   Automatic reset after EMDP removal

c)

    Selecting EMDP switch to OFF and then ON again.

d)

Selecting EMDP switch to OFF for 5 minutes

161.

Brake wear limits are checked by:

a)

Measuring brake wear indication pin with brake release

b)

  Measuring brake wear indication pin brake applied.

c)

Measuring length of return spring pins

d)

Using GO/NO GO gage between brake rotor and stator plate

162.

Landing gear is hydraulically operated

a)

Using system A for alternate retraction

b)

    Using system B for alternate retraction and extension.

c)

    Using system A for alternate extension.

d)

     Using system B for alternate retraction.

163.

With hydraulic system A available and system B failure:

a)

Brake are operated by system A pressure.

b)

     Brake are operated by accumulator pressure.

c)

     Parking is operated by system A pressure.

d)

     A and C are the correct answers.

164.

To prevent brake release during retraction of the landing gear:

a)

    The landing gear lever up switch

b)

   The alternate brake selector valve is opened.

c)

The parking brake SOV close

d)

    The normal antiskid valves are provided an over dump signal.

165.

When auto brake RTO is selected the amber light

a)

Remain OFF if the system is good

b)

     Flashed for 1,5 seconds and comes on steady if system is bed.

c)

    Illuminate after 1,5 seconds if the system is bed.

d)

    Illuminate for 1,5 seconds and extinguishes if system is good.

166.

Hydraulic pressure for auto brake operation is provided by:

a)

   System A.

b)

PTU

c)

   System A and B.

d)

   System B.

167.

Main gear air and ground safety sensor are controlled by

a)

    Extension and compression of the right main gear.

b)

    Ground proximity radar waves.

c)

Extension and compression of the left main gear.

d)

   Wheel speed relays for the right main gear.

 

168.

To prevent Hydraulic lock during landing gear manual extension:

a)

   Depressurized System A.

b)

    Place the landing gear control lever OFF.

c)

Push the nose steering bypass vale

d)

Place the gear control lever DOWN

169.

In Flight the landing gear bypass closes when auto slat commanded and

a)

PTU valve close.

b)

System B low pressure

c)

     Transfer valve transferred condition.

d)

     Engine 1 failure N2 < 56%. 

170.

The normal antiskid system is monitored for Failure:

a)

When the parking brake is set.

b)

A.     Only when the normal brake system is being used.

c)

  Continuously when antiskid is turn ON.

d)

     Only in the air with the parking brake released.

171.

Two transfer valve test switches are located:

a)

     In The electronic equipment compartment.

b)

On the rear of the transfer valve.

c)

    On the face of the E11 shelf.

d)

    On The Overhead panel.

172.

When The Landing Gear transfer valve solenoid energized, the slide valve actuated by :

a)

    System A pressure.

b)

    Spring.

c)

     System B pressure

d)

    Standby system pressure.

173.

After manual extension of the landing gear, the indication on the fight deck that correct procedure are

a)

The light 3 green and 3 red illuminate.

b)

The light 3 red or 3 green extinguish.

c)

The light 3 green extinguish and 3 red illuminate.

d)

  The light 3 green Illuminate and 3 red extinguish.

 

174.

Changing over from normal to alternate brake is controlled by

a)

A solenoid operated transfer valve

b)

   An electric motor operated control valve.

c)

   A pressure operated selector valve

d)

   Manual lever on pilot centre panel.

175.

During take-off climb, the landing gear transfer valve will operate and allows system B to rise when the:

a)

  Number 1 engine N2 below 56% and the gear is in transit up

b)

System A fluid is lost.

c)

    Number 1 engine is at idle and the landing gear is not up.

d)

System A the EDP and EMDP fail and gear is in transit up

176.

The primary flight controls are:

a)

Ailerons, Elevators, Flaps and Rudder

b)

Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder and Spoiler.

c)

     Ailerons, Elevators, horizontal stabilizers, flaps and Rudder.

d)

Aileron, Elevators and Rudder

177.

 The Flap asymmetry test switch is located:

a)

     In the avionic compartment.

b)

    On the P6

c)

  In the wheel well

d)

    On the P2.

178.

When flight control switch A is selected to off:

a)

  Standby pump ON.

b)

  Flight control SOV A Close.

c)

   Flight control SOV A & B Close.

d)

A & C are the correct answer

179.

            The Operation of the trailing edge flaps:

a)

    In normal it is powered by system B, and controlled by flap control lever.

b)

    In alternate it is powered by standby system, and control by alt control switch.

c)

     In normal is powered by system B and PTU.

d)

     A & B are correct answer.

180.

With hydraulic pressure Available, the Aileron trim actuator electrically actuates:

a)

    Balance.

b)

Control wheel.

c)

   Aileron and control wheel.

d)

Aileron.

181.

            SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light is illuminate if speed brake lever in armed position and:

a)

    Total antiskid OFF.

b)

     Speed brake lever actuator not in lower position.

c)

   Speed brake electrical circuit malfunction.

d)

   All Above are the correct answer.

182.

The Stabilizer is operated in three ways:

a)

   Manual, main electric and autopilot.

b)

    Main electric, autopilot, and hydraulic.

c)

Manual, main electric, and hydraulic

d)

  Manual, autopilot, and hydraulic.

183.

The elevator can be moved by different input from:

a)

  Pilot command, pitot tube, feel computer and autopilot.

b)

Pilot command, autopilot, Mach trim and stabilizer.

c)

    Feel computer, autopilot, Mach trim and stabilizer.

d)

Pitot tube, feel computer, autopilot and Mach trim.

184.

During normal operation the rudder is powered by:

a)

    Hydraulic system A

b)

     Hydraulic system B

c)

    Hydraulic system A & B

d)

   Standby System.

185.

The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates when:

a)

    Both channels are invalid.

b)

   One channel is invalid and master caution is recalled.

c)

     Dynamic alpha compares disagreement followed by master caution recalled.

d)

     All above are correct answer.

186.

               When the airplane is on ground and either throttle is advanced, the intermittent aural warning horn will sound if:

a)

A.     Speed brake lever down detent

b)

A.     Stabilizer green range.

c)

    Trailing edge flaps > 15 unit.

d)

  Leading edge flaps extend.

187.

The Elevator feel force will increase if:

a)

    System A failure.

b)

    Airspeed increases.

c)

    System B failure.

d)

  All Above are correct.

188.

During landing The speed brake lever will be placed:

a)

In FLT DETEND.

b)

    At any is setting up to FLT DETEND.

c)

   In ARM

d)

    At any setting.

189.

The Rudder Trim actuator is:

a)

    Hydraulic motor.

b)

  Electric motor.

c)

   Mechanical.

d)

  A and C are correct answers.

190.

When asymmetry condition takes placed on the trailing edge flaps system:

a)

A.     Trailing edge flap is supplied by PTU.

b)

A.     Standby system automatically ON.

c)

A.     The bypass valve moves to bypass.

d)

A.     All above are correct.

191.

The AUTO SLAT system will automatically cause the movement of:

a)

   Leading edge flaps from intermediate to full extend position.

b)

    Leading edge Slats from retract to full extend position.

c)

  Leading edge Slats from intermediate to full extend position.

d)

     Leading edge flaps from retract to full extend position.

192.

With loss pressure on hydraulic system A and B What system operated the elevator:

a)

   Electrical system.

b)

Standby Hydraulic system

c)

   Elevator cannot be controlled.

d)

    Mechanical control system.

193.

During Rejected Take-Off (RTO) The speed brake lever will be lifted up by:

a)

A.     Wheel spin up to signal.

b)

A.     Right hand main gear.

c)

A.     Thrust reverser cam.

d)

A.     Throttle lever.

194.

Whenever the aileron control is jammed, a force is exerted overcome a spring on the control system:

a)

  By First Officer to control aileron.

b)

By firs Officer to control flight spoiler

c)

   By the Captain to control aileron.

d)

   By the captain to control flight spoiler.

195.

            The Flight control hydraulic module is installed to control the hydraulic power for:

a)

    Aileron, Rudder, Elevator and flight spoiler.

b)

   Aileron, Rudder and Elevator.

c)

Aileron, Rudder and Trailing edge Flaps

d)

Aileron, Rudder, Elevator and ground spoiler

196.

The ELEVATOR FEEL DIFFERENTIAL light illuminates when:

a)

Trailing edge flap are fully retracted

b)

  A difference of 25% between system A and B Output pressure is detected.

c)

     A & B are the correct answers.

d)

Trailing edge are fully retracted and three no hydraulic pressure available.

197.

To operated Trailing edge Flaps electrically:

a)

     Select alternate flap arm switch to ARM and moved flap lever.

b)

   Select flight control switch to STANDBY RUDD and move flap lever.

c)

    Select Alternate Flap arm switch to ARM and Move the alternate flap control switch.

d)

   Select flight control switch to STANDBY RUDD and move the alternate flap control switch.

198.

The ground Spoiler are powered by:

a)

   The standby Hydraulic System.

b)

Both A and B Hydraulic system.

c)

  The B Hydraulic system.

d)

   The A Hydraulic System.

199.

            The tailing edge Flaps asymmetry protection available:

a)

  Only when normal flaps system is operative.

b)

     In flight only

c)

     Only when the trailing edge flaps are in take-off position.

d)

     Only when alternate flap system is used.

200.

The Yaw damper operation result in:

a)

   Rudder pedal movement.

b)

     No Rudder pedal movement provide the autopilot is engaged.

c)

     No Rudder pedal movement.

d)

    Rudder pedal movement and provide the autopilot is engaged