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Worksheets

HAP 1st Semester Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

toward the midline of the body

a)

distal

b)

lateral

c)

medial

d)

inferior

2.

toward or at the front of the body

a)

anterior

b)

dorsal

c)

deep

d)

distal

3.

at the body surface

a)

distal

b)

superficial

c)

deep

d)

proximal

4.

Toward the head end of upper part of body

a)

Medial

b)

Inferior

c)

Lateral

d)

Superior

5.

Away from the midline

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Distal

d)

Proximal

6.

Toward a structure's origin or point of attachment to the trunk

a)

Lateral

b)

Proximal

c)

Distal

d)

Medial

7.

Away from the head.

a)

Inferior

b)

Lateral

c)

Deep

d)

Distal

8.

Toward the back of the body.

a)

Superficial

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Posterior

9.

Away from the trunk.

a)

Superior

b)

Distal

c)

Lateral

d)

Anterior

10.

Away from the surface of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Inferior

c)

Proximal

d)

Deep

11.

back of the body

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

12.

Posterior

a)

behind

b)

in front

c)

away from midline

d)

further from trunk

13.

Distal

a)

toward the body surace

b)

further from the trunk

c)

away from the body surface

d)

below

14.

Superior

a)

below

b)

above

c)

in front

d)

behind

15.

Front of the body

a)

Ventral/ Anterior

b)

Dorsal/ Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Sagittal

16.

The thigh is ____ to the shoulder.

a)

distal

b)

inferior

c)

superior

d)

posterior

17.

The brain is ____ to the skull.

a)

proximal

b)

superficial

c)

deep

d)

lateral

18.

Which letter indicates lateral?

a)

F

b)

E

c)

A

d)

G

19.

Which letter indicates proximal?

a)

H

b)

G

c)

C

d)

E

20.

Which letter indicates anterior?

a)

H

b)

G

c)

C

d)

F

21.

Front of knee

a)

popiteal

b)

plantar

c)

patellar

d)

cervical

22.

brachial

a)

arm

b)

forearm

c)

wrist

d)

hip

23.

buccal

a)

wrist

b)

cheek area

c)

curve of shoulder

d)

thigh

24.

cervical

a)

neck region

b)

hip

c)

anterior of leg

d)

curve of shoulder

25.

coxal

a)

the shin

b)

hip

c)

neck region

d)

thigh

26.

digital

a)

point of shoulder

b)

fingers and toes

c)

anterior of leg

d)

cheek area

27.

femoral

a)

upper arm area

b)

thigh

c)

lower anterior of leg

d)

eye area

28.

frontal

a)

forehead

b)

eye area

c)

chin

d)

mouth

29.

inguinal

a)

chin

b)

lateral part of leg

c)

forehead

d)

area where thigh meets body trunk

30.

orbital

a)

genital region

b)

eye area

c)

forehead

d)

chin

31.

pectoral

a)

anterior knee

b)

occuring on the chest

c)

ribs

d)

arm

32.

occipital

a)

posterior of head

b)

below the elbow

c)

eye area

d)

between shoulder blades

33.

fibular

a)

lateral part of leg

b)

front of head

c)

lower area of arm

d)

eye area

34.

lumbar

a)

lower back area

b)

lower leg area

c)

posterior of leg

d)

shoulder blade

35.

vertebral

a)

spine

b)

lower leg

c)

neck

d)

behind the head

36.

The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another is PHYSIOLOGY.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The study of how the body and its parts work or function is PHYSIOLOGY

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The study of how the body and its parts work or function is PHYSIOLOGY

a)

True

b)

False

39.

cells→ ___→ organs→ organ systems→ organism

What can fit in the blank?

a)

Macromolecules

b)

Cell Products

c)

Proteins

d)

Tissues

40.

The highest level of structural organization.

a)

Cell

b)

Organ System

c)

Organism

41.

This system is the external covering of the body.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Integumentary

c)

Lymphatic

42.

Stimulus, Efferent Pathway, Response, Input, Output, Afferent Pathway, Receptor, Control Center

What is the correct order?

a)

Receptor, Stimulus, Input, Efferent Pathway, Control Center, Output, Afferent Pathway, Response

b)

Stimulus, Receptor, Input, Efferent Pathway, Control Center, Output, Afferent Pathway, Response

c)

Stimulus, Receptor, Input, Afferent Pathway, Control Center, Output, Efferent Pathway, Response

d)

Receptor, Stimulus, Input, Afferent Pathway, Control Center, Output, Efferent Pathway, Response

43.

The heart is located ____ to the diaphragm.

a)

Superior

b)

Inferior

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

44.

The muscles are ____ to the skin.

a)

Superficial

b)

Proximal

c)

Distal

d)

Deep

45.

The shoulder JOINT is ____ to the elbow JOINT.

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

46.

In ANATOMICAL POSITION, the thumb is ____ to the index finger.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

47.

The vertebral region is _______ to the scapular region.

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

48.

Anatomical terms that apply to the backside of the body when it is in anatomical position:

a)

Ventral and Anterior

b)

Back and Rear

c)

Posterior and Dorsal

d)

Cephalic and Lateral

49.

Is this an example of negative or positive feedback?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

50.

A sagittal section cuts the body into ____ and ____ parts.

a)

Right and Left

b)

Superior and Inferior

c)

Anterior and Posterior

51.

A frontal section divides the body into ____ and ____ parts.

a)

Right and Left

b)

Superior and Inferior

c)

Anterior and Posterior

52.

A transverse or cross section divides the body into _____ and ____ parts.

a)

Right and Left

b)

Superior and Inferior

c)

Anterior and Posterior

53.

The topics of human anatomy and physiology are difficult to separate because the structures of the body parts are closely related to their

a)

chemicals

b)

function

c)

forces

d)

water

54.

Homeostasis refers to

a)

changing external
conditions.

b)

stable external
conditions.

c)

changing internal
conditions.

d)

maintaining
internal conditions.

e)

all of the
above.

55.

Which of the following examples illustrates a homeostatic mechanism?

a)

shivering in
response to a drop in body temperature

b)

increasing body
temperature during exercise

c)

decreasing body
temperature during prolonged exposure to cold conditions

d)

dehydration from
lack of water intake

e)

frostbite on exposure to cold

56.

The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The mediastinum separates

a)

the thoracic
cavity from the abdominal cavity.

b)

the thoracic
cavity into right and left parts.

c)

the thoracic
cavity from the pelvic cavity.

d)

the abdominal
cavity from the pelvic cavity.

e)

the abdominal
cavity into right and left parts.

58.

Which of the following organs is found in the pelvic cavity?

a)

urinary bladder

b)

Kidneys

c)

liver

d)

spleen

e)

gallbladder

59.

The membrane on the surface of the lung is called the

a)

visceral
pleura.

b)

parietal
pleura.

c)

visceral
pericardium.

d)

parietal
pericardium.

60.

The elbow is distal to the wrist.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

The stomach is an example of which organizational level?

a)

molecule

b)

organelle

c)

tissue

d)

organ

62.
Skin color is due to a pigment called
a)
Keratin
b)
Melanin
c)
Chromatin
d)
Epithelium
63.
What is the purpose / function of the skin?
a)
protection
b)
temperature maintenance
c)
excretion and sensory reception
d)
all of the choices
64.

Deepest layer (not actually part of the integument) that is made of elastic connective tissue and adipose tissue.

a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
hyperdermis
65.
What is the top layer of the skin called?
a)
Dermis
b)
Hypodermis
c)
Epidermis
d)
Subcutaneous
66.

When might you get a thermal burn?

a)

When your skin comes into contact with chemicals

b)

When you accidentally touch a very hot piece of metal

c)

When your skin is exposed to dangerous radiation

d)

When your skin touches an extraordinarily cold substance, like dry ice

67.

How do first-degree burns differ from second degree burns?

a)

First-degree burns only affect the epidermis; second-degree burns can extend into the dermis

b)

First degree-burns are painless; second-degree burns hurt a lot

c)

First degree-burns can extend into the dermis; second-degree burns only affect the epidermis

d)

First-degree burns hurt a lot; second-degree burns are painless

68.

Why can you often not feel third-degree burns?

a)

Because they damage the nerve endings in your skin

b)

Because they aren' t very damaging

c)

Because they cause scabs to form

d)

Because they only affect the inner part of your skin

69.

7. Place the following layers of skin in order, from

outermost to innermost: A) Dermis; B) Epidermis;

C) Hypodermis

a)

A, B, C

b)

B, A, C

c)

B, C, A

d)

A, C, B

70.

How does your body make new skin?

a)

Through the division of existing skin cells

b)

By recycling old skin cells

c)

By changing blood cells into skin cells

d)

By making existing skin cells bigger

71.

What might happen if you did not have melanocytes?

a)

Your skin would not protect you against disease

b)

Your skin would be extremely pale (white)

c)

You would not be able to produce new skin cells

d)

Your skin would become brittle and papery

72.

Which bodily system — parts of which can be found in the skin — is responsible for your sense of touch?

a)

The nervous system

b)

The immune system

c)

The muscular system

d)

The endocrine system

73.

Where can you find dead skin cells?

a)

Your innermost layer of skin

b)

Your outermost layer of skin

c)

The border between the epidermis and the dermis

d)

The border between the dermis and the hypodermis

74.

Which layer of skin is composed of connective tissue?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Stratum Spinosum

d)

Stratum Basale

75.

Hair and nails are composed of -

a)

Carotene

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Keratin

d)

Epithelial cells

76.

Which region of integument is composed of epithelial tissue?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Stratum Spinosum

d)

Hypodermis

77.

For which type of burn would you expect redness and mild pain?

a)

First Degree

b)

Second Degree

c)

Third Degree

d)

Fourth Degree

78.
What tissue is this?
a)

Cardiac

b)

Skeletal

c)

Smooth

d)
Nervous
79.
What tissue is this?
a)

Cardiac

b)

Skeletal

c)

Smooth

d)
Nervous
80.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Musclle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

81.
What tissue is this?
a)

Cardiac

b)

Skeletal

c)

Smooth

d)
Nervous
82.
What tissue is this?
a)

Neuron

b)

Dense Fibrous Regular

c)

Areolar

d)

Bone

83.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

84.
What tissue is this?
a)

Adipose

b)

Areolar

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

85.
What tissue is this?
a)

Adipose

b)

Areolar

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

86.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

87.
What tissue is this?
a)

Adipose

b)

Areolar

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

88.
What tissue is this?
a)

Adipose

b)

Areolar

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

89.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

90.
What tissue is this?
a)

Dense Fibrous Regular

b)

Hyaline Cartilage

c)

Reticular

d)

Bone

91.
What tissue is this?
a)

Dense Fibrous

b)

Hyaline Cartilage

c)

Reticular

d)

Bone

92.
What tissue is this?
a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

93.
What tissue is this?
a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

94.
What tissue is this?
a)

Keratinized Stratified Squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Nonkeratinized Stratified Squamous

d)

Simple Cuboidal

95.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

96.
What tissue is this?
a)

Stratified Squamous

b)

Simple Squamous (top view)

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

97.

What tissue is this?

a)

Stratified Squamous

b)

Simple Squamous (side view)

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

98.

What tissue is this?

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

99.

What tissue is this?

a)

Dense Fibrous Regular

b)

Hyaline Cartilage

c)

Dense Fibrous Irregular

d)

Bone

100.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

101.

What tissue is this?

a)

Hyaline Cartilage

b)

Areolar

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

102.

What tissue is this?

a)

Hyaline Cartilage

b)

Elastic Cartilage

c)

Blood

d)

Fibrocartilage

103.

What tissue is this?

a)

Keratinized Stratified Squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Nonkeratinzed Stratified Squamous

d)

Simple Cuboidal

104.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

105.

What tissue is this?

a)

Stratified Cuboidal

b)

Stratified Columnar

c)

Simple Cuboidal

d)

Simple Columnar

106.

What tissue is this?

a)

Stratified Cuboidal

b)

Transitional

c)

Simple Cuboidal

d)

Simple Columnar

107.

What tissue is this?

a)

Stratified Cuboidal

b)

Stratified Columnar

c)

Simple Cuboidal

d)

Simple Columnar

108.

Define tissue with regards to anatomy

a)

Multiple sheets of thin paper used to clean your nose

b)

The smallest structural and functional unit of an organism

c)

A series of different cells in the same area

d)

A group of structurally and functionally related cells that come together to perform common functions

109.
What is the function of epithelial cells?
a)
Act as barriers between the external environment, or between organs and fluidfilled cavities
b)
Provide movement by pulling on bones
c)
Provide secretions which help to digest food
d)
Act as the messaging pathway between different areas of the body
110.

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine functions?

a)

Exocrine cells secrete fluids to the outside of the body; endocrine cells secrete fluids into the inside of the body

b)

They are synonymous

c)

Exocrine cells secrete fluids into ducts; endocrine cells secrete fluids into the blood stream

d)

Exocrine cells secrete clear fluids; endocrine cells secrete opaque fluids

111.
The common term for adipose tissue is
a)
Fat
b)
Blood
c)
Bone
d)
Cartilage
112.
What are the four main tissues found in the body?
a)
Epithelial, Connective, Bone, Blood
b)
Muscle, Connective, Blood, Epithelial
c)
Nervous, Muscle, Connective, Epithelial
d)
Nervous, Muscle, Connective, Bone
113.

What landmark is labeled G?

a)

olecranon notch

b)

radial notch

c)

styloid notch

d)

trochlear notch

114.

What landmark is labeled A?

a)

Head of the Ulna

b)

Head of the Radius

c)

Neck of the Ulna

d)

Neck of the Radius

115.

What landmark is labeled M?

a)

Styloid process of the radius

b)

Styloid process of the ulna

c)

Radial tuberosity

d)

Ulnar tuberosity

116.

What landmark is labeled 4?

a)

greater tubercle

b)

lesser tubercle

c)

head

d)

anatomical neck

117.

What landmark is labeled 10?

a)

medial epicondyle

b)

lateral epicondyle

c)

trochlea

d)

capitulum

118.

What landmark is labeled 1?

a)

lesser tubercle

b)

greater tubercle

c)

deltoid tuberosity

d)

radial tuberosity

119.

Identify bone marking of the humeroulnar joint

a)

trochlear notch

b)

trochlea

c)

olecranon fossa

d)

olecranon process

120.

Which of the following statements is correct.

a)

this is the radius, it is located medially in the antebrachium

b)

this is the radius, it is located laterally in the antebrachium

c)

this is the ulna, it is located medially in the antebrachium

d)

this is the ulna, it is located laterally in the antebrachium

121.

Identify bone.

a)

humerus

b)

radius

c)

ulna

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

122.

Identify bones.

a)

metacarpals

b)

distal phalanges

c)

proximal phalanges

d)

middle phalanges

e)

carpals

123.

Identify bone marking #6

a)

trochlea

b)

trochlear notch

c)

olecranon process

d)

olecranon fossa

e)

head of radius

124.

Identify the landmark.

a)

lateral malleolus, tibia

b)

lateral malleolus, fibula

c)

medial malleolus, tibia

d)

medial malleolus, fibula

e)

styloid process

125.

Identify the highlighted region on the bone depicted above.

a)

head of femur

b)

neck of femur

c)

greater trochanter

d)

medial malleolus

e)

patellar surface

126.

Identify the highlighted region on the bone depicted above.

a)

lesser trochanter

b)

lateral condyle of femur

c)

greater trochanter

d)

linea aspera

e)

medial condyle of femur

127.

Identify this landmark

a)

radial tuberosity

b)

lesser tubercle

c)

tibial tuberosity

d)

femoral tuberosity

e)

lesser trochanter

128.

Identify this bone.

a)

femur

b)

patella

c)

tibia

d)

fibula

e)

humerus

129.

Identify the bone shown in green in the image:

a)

talus

b)

calcaneus

c)

navicular

d)

cuboid

e)

cuneiform

130.

Identify the bone shown in green in the image:

a)

talus

b)

calcaneus

c)

navicular

d)

cuboid

e)

cuneiform

131.

Identify the bones in green:

a)

metatarsals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

tarsals

e)

cuneiforms

132.

Identify the bones in green:

a)

metatarsals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

tarsals

e)

cuneiforms

133.

Bone #2 is...

a)

Frontal Bone

b)

Occipital Bone

c)

Sphenoid Bone

d)

Nasal Bone

134.

Bone #3 is...

a)

Parietal Bone

b)

Zygomatic Bone

c)

Sphenoid Bone

d)

Maxilla

135.

Bone #4 is...

a)

Mandible

b)

Occipital Bone

c)

Maxilla

d)

Temporal Bone

136.

Bone #5 is...

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Frontal Bone

d)

Occipital Bone

137.

Bone #6 is...

a)

Frontal Bone

b)

Parietal Bone

c)

Sphenoid Bone

d)

Occipital Bone

138.
a)
Occipital
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Sphenoid
139.

What are the immovable joints between bones of the skull called?

a)

foramen

b)

joints

c)

sutures

140.

Structure A is the ________suture.

a)

Coronal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Squamous

d)

Lambdoidal

141.

What is the name of the structure at the arrow?

a)

External auditory (acoustic) meatus

b)

Styloid Process

c)

Mastoid Process

d)

External Occipital Protuberance

142.
Label 6
a)
Manubrium
b)
Gladiolus
c)
Xyphoid Process
d)
Vertebral Ribs
143.
Label 2
a)
Vertebral Ribs
b)
Vertebrosternal ribs
c)
Vertebrochondral ribs
d)
Xyphoid process
144.
Label 5
a)
Vertebral Ribs
b)
Manubrium
c)
Vertebrochondral ribs
d)
Vertebrosternal ribs
145.
C1, articulates with the head
a)
Axis
b)
Atlas
146.

Which section of the vertebral column is shown?

a)

cervical

b)

lumbar

c)

thoracic

d)

sacral

147.

Identify #4

a)
Transverse foramen
b)

Transverse process

c)

Vertebral Body

d)
Spinous process
148.

Identify #3

a)
Transverse foramen
b)

Transverse process

c)

Vertebral Body

d)
Spinous process
149.

Which section of the vertebrae is highlighted?

a)

cervical

b)

thoracic

c)

lumbar

d)

sacrum

150.

What bone of the pelvic girdle is colored purple (#1)?

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

sacrum

e)

coccyx

151.

What bone of the pelvic girdle is colored pink (#3)?

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

sacrum

e)

coccyx

152.

What bone of the pelvic girdle is colored blue (#4)?

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

sacrum

e)

coccyx

153.

What bone of the pelvic girdle is colored blue (#5)?

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

sacrum

e)

coccyx

154.

Identify #16? It is the deep socket of the hip bone. It receives the head of the femur to form the ball and socket joint.

a)

acetabulum

b)

obturator foramen

c)

iliac crest

d)

greater sciatic notch

e)

ischial spine

155.

Identify #9? This projection is located on the posterior region. It allows for the attachment of various muscles and ligaments.

a)

acetabulum

b)

obturator foramen

c)

iliac crest

d)

greater sciatic notch

e)

ischial spine

156.

Identify the structure marked with the X: This cartilaginous joint joins the two pubic bones together.

a)

pubic symphysis

b)

obturator foramen

c)

iliac crest

d)

acetabulum

157.

Which pelvis in the illustration is the male pelvis?

a)

Pelvis A

b)

Pelvis B

158.

Name this bone.

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Spine

d)

Glenoid Cavity

159.

Name this bone.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

Spine

d)

Glenoid Cavity

160.

Name this structure.

a)

Glenoid Cavity

b)

Acromion Process

c)

Spine

d)

Suprascapular Notch

161.
The pink represents
a)
transverse process
b)
spinous process
c)
body 
d)
foramen 
162.

The muscular system interacts with the skeletal system by:

a)

smooth muscles are joined with spongy bone via cartilage

b)

skeletal muscles pull on joints to permit movement

c)

cardiac muscle is connected to the ribs

d)

skeletal muscles are joined to one another via ligaments

163.

The sliding filament theory explains which of the following?

a)

muscle extensions

b)

muscle inductions

c)

muscle contractions

d)

muscle formation

164.

______ and ______ work together to allow muscles to contract.

a)

ATP, Calcium

b)

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

c)

Electrolytes, Phosphorous

d)

hemoglobin, plasma

165.

Each unit in a muscle fiber is called a __________.

a)

myosin

b)

globular heads

c)

sarcomeres

d)

troponin

166.

Which of the following is a way that the skeletal system is necessary for the muscular system's function?

a)

the skeletal system has joints, which are what the muscular system pulls on to move

b)

the skeletal system provides structure for the muscular system

c)

the skeletal system provides calcium, which the muscles require along with ATP to contract

d)

all of the above

167.

Muscle used to grin

a)

zygomaticus

b)

buccinator

c)

occiptialis

d)

NONE

168.

Muscle used to raise your eyebrows

a)

frontalis

(frontal belly)

b)

masseter

c)

occipitalis

d)

orbicularis oculi

169.

This is the largest muscle of the buttocks

a)

gluteus medius

b)

gluteus maximus

c)

gluteus minimus

d)

NONE

170.

This muscle allows you to extend your head

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

trapezius

c)

erector spinae

d)

NONE

171.

Triangle muscle that allows you to raise your arms laterally

a)

deltoid

b)

latissiums dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

NONE

172.

This muscle is used for blinking and squinting

a)

buccinator

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

zygomaticus

173.

The prime mover in dorsiflexion.

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Quadriceps

femoris

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Tibialis anterior

174.

The brachioradialis is the synergist to this muscle in flexion.

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Quadriceps

femoris

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Tibialis anterior

175.

The prime mover for forearm extension

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Quadriceps

femoris

d)

Latissimus dorsi

176.

Muscles attach to bone via:

a)

ligaments

b)

tendons

177.

Within a sarcomere the thin myofilament is called:

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

178.

The connective tissue surrounding the muscle bundles is called:

a)

Perimysium

b)

Endomysium

c)

Epimysium

d)

Sarcolemma

179.

What is the role of ATP in muscle contractions?

a)

Regulates body temperature

b)

Transmits nerve impulses to muscle fibers

c)

Allows muscles to slide and prevent bursting

d)

Provides energy for muscle contractions

180.

The _________ separate one sarcomere from another?

a)

synapses

b)

m-lines

c)

z-lines (z-discs)

d)

active sites

181.
What muscle is located in the calf?
a)
Gastrocnemius
b)
Triceps
c)
Trapezius
d)
Gluteus maximus
182.
What muscle injury is often caused by overstretching a muscle?
a)
Myopathy
b)
Strain
c)
Dislocation
d)
Atrophy
183.
Region where a motor neuron comes in close contact with a muscle cell.
a)
neurotransmitter
b)
muscular dystrophy
c)
muscle tension
d)
neuromuscular junction
184.
a)
Masseter
b)
Buccinator
c)
Platysma
d)
Sternoclidomastoid
185.

Area #1 is called the -

a)

Deltoid

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Biceps Brachii

d)

Brachialis

186.

Area #2 is called the -

a)

Deltoid

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Biceps Brachii

d)

Brachialis

187.

Area #3 is called the -

a)

Deltoid

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Biceps Brachii

d)

Brachialis

188.

a)

external oblique

b)

intercostals

c)

diaphragm

d)

internal oblique

189.

Identify the highlighted muscle

a)

Deltoid

b)

Biceps

c)

Trapezius

d)

Hamstring

190.

Name this muscle

a)

Hamstring

b)

Quadricep

c)

Gluteus Maximus

d)

Rectus Abdominis

191.

Name this muscle

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Quadricep

c)

Triceps brachii

d)

Hamstring

192.

Name this muscle

a)

Pectorals

b)

Latissimus Dorsi

c)

Rectus Abdominis

d)

Gastrocnemus

193.

which skeletal muscle is represented in the image?

a)

rectus femoris

b)

vastus lateralis

c)

vastus medialis

d)

sartorius

194.

#7

a)

tibialis anterior

b)

fibularis longus

c)

soleus

d)

gastrocnemius

195.

#10 and #11

a)

adductor group

b)

abductor group

c)

vastus medialis

d)

iliopsoas

196.

a)

rectus femoris

b)

vastus lateralis

c)

vastus medialis

d)

biceps femoris

197.

This is what connects the gastrocnemius to the calcaneous bone (6)

a)

gastrocnemius

b)

calcaneous

c)

achilles tendon

d)

forman's ligament

198.

Identify the muscle labeled R

a)

hamstrings

b)

gluteus medius

c)

quadriceps

d)

fibularis

199.

Identify this muscle

a)

hamstrings

b)

quadriceps

c)

gastronecmius

d)

sartorius

200.

This muscle crosses the legs over one another (8)

a)

sartorius

b)

hamstrings

c)

Forman's crossorius

d)

extensor carpi radialis

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