wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Microbiology Ch. 6/7

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?

a)

Buffers

b)

Sugars

c)

Carbon

d)

Heat

e)

pH

2.

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ --> 2H2O?

a)

Superoxide dismutase

b)

Oxidase

c)

Catalase

d)

Peroxidase

3.

Most bacteria grow best at pH

a)

9.

b)

5.

c)

1.

d)

7.

e)

14.

4.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Mesophile - growth at 25°C

b)

Psychrotroph - growth at 0°C

c)

Hyperthermophiles - growth at 100°C

d)

Thermophile - growth at 37°C

e)

Psychrophile - growth at 15°C

5.

Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a

a)

Hypotonic environment.

b)

Lower osmotic pressure.

c)

Depletion of nutrients.

d)

Lower pH.

e)

Hypertonic environment.

6.

Three cells with generation times of 30 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?

a)

48

b)

1024

c)

243

d)

3 x 2^10

e)

16

7.

Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because

a)

Biofilms develop on catheters.

b)

Injected solutions are contaminated.

c)

Their immune systems are weakened.

d)

Bacteria cause infections.

e)

Infections can be transmitted from other people.

8.

Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?

a)

Glucose consumption

b)

Direct microscopic count

c)

MPN

d)

Turbidity

e)

Standard plate count

9.

Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?

a)

Metabolic activity

b)

Standard plate count

c)

MPN

d)

Direct microscopic count

e)

Filtration

10.

A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a

a)

Reducing medium.

b)

Selective medium.

c)

Complex medium.

d)

Differential medium.

e)

Chemically defined medium.

11.

A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a(n)

a)

Selective medium.

b)

Enrichment culture.

c)

Differential medium and Enrichment culture

d)

Differential medium.

e)

Selective medium and Differential medium

12.

Which of the following is an organic growth factor?

a)

Glucose

b)

NH4H2PO4

c)

Peptone

d)

NAD+

e)

H2O

13.

Which of the following is NOT used to determine metabolic activity?

a)

NO2- produced from the electron transport chain

b)

CO2 produced from the Krebs cycle

c)

Acid production from fermentation

d)

Turbidity

e)

Decreased dissolved oxygen

14.

Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?

a)

70%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

30%

e)

100%

15.

Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object?

a)

Temperature

b)

Presence of organic matter

c)

All of these

d)

pH

e)

Number of bacteria present

16.

Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?

a)

Soap

b)

Chlorhexidine

c)

Glutaraldehyde

d)

Chlorine bleach

e)

Phenol

17.

Which of the following will NOT inactivate endospores?

a)

Chlorine dioxide

b)

High pressure

c)

Supercritical CO2

d)

Plasma

e)

Autoclave

18.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Alcohols - open wounds

b)

H2O2 - open wounds

c)

Ag - burns

d)

Organic acids - food preservation

e)

CuSO4 - algicide

19.

Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to hospital-acquired infections?

a)

Some bacteria metabolize disinfectants.

b)

Bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash.

c)

All of these may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.

d)

Gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.

e)

Invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria.

20.

Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?

a)

72°C for 15 sec.

b)

They are equivalent treatments.

c)

63°C for 30 min.

d)

None is effective.

e)

140°C for 4 sec.

21.

Which of the following substances is NOT an oxidizing agent?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Glutaraldehyde

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Ozone

e)

Iodine

22.

Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by

a)

Supercritical fluids.

b)

Peroxygens.

c)

Ethylene oxide.

d)

Glutaraldehyde.

e)

Plasma sterilization.

23.

Which of the following substances is NOT used to preserve foods?

a)

Sodium nitrite

b)

Nisin

c)

Sodium propionate

d)

Potassium sorbate

e)

Biguanides

24.

Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?

a)

Protozoan cysts

b)

Gram-negative bacteria

c)

Viruses with lipid envelopes

d)

Mycobacteria

e)

Gram-positive bacteria

25.

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

a)

Ethylene oxide

b)

Autoclave

c)

Dry heat

d)

Formaldehyde

e)

Pasteurization

26.

Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

a)

The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

b)

All the cells in a culture die at once.

c)

Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.

d)

The pattern varies depending on the species.

e)

The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.

27.

Glutaraldehyde is considered one of the most effective disinfectants for hospital use. Which of the following statements about glutaraldehyde is false?

a)

Stains and corrodes

b)

Is safe to transport

c)

Attacks all microorganisms

d)

Is not hampered by organic material

e)

Acts rapidly

28.

Which of the following is NOT used to disinfect water?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Gamma radiation

c)

Heat

d)

Ozone

e)

Copper sulfate

29.

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?

a)

Cannot be used with glassware

b)

Cannot be used with heat-labile materials

c)

Cannot kill endospores

d)

Requires a long time to achieve sterilization

e)

Cannot inactivate viruses

30.

Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?

a)

Freezing

b)

Dry heat

c)

Membrane filtration

d)

Autoclave

e)

Pasteurization

31.

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2- + O2- + 2H+ --> H2O2 + O2?

a)

Superoxide dismutase

b)

Oxidase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Catalase

32.

During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

a)

Log phase

b)

Lag phase

c)

Stationary phase

d)

Death phase

e)

The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

33.

Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?

a)

The time needed for nuclear division

b)

The length of time needed for a cell to divide

c)

The duration of log phase

d)

The length of time needed for lag phase

e)

The minimum rate of doubling

34.

Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?

a)

Facultative halophiles

b)

Psychrophiles

c)

Hyperthermophiles

d)

Thermophiles

e)

Anaerobes

35.

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: 2H2O2 --> 2H2O + O2?

a)

Superoxide dismutase

b)

Catalase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Oxidase

36.

The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is

a)

Peptone and beef extract.

b)

Peptone and NaCl.

c)

All of these.

d)

Nutrient.

e)

Agar.

37.

Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?

a)

Can readily count cells that form aggregates

b)

Cannot be used to count bacteria in food

c)

Chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation.

d)

Requires incubation time

e)

Determines the number of viable cells

38.

Which of the following does NOT directly result from application of heat?

a)

Breaking of sulfhydryl bonds

b)

Damage to nucleic acids

c)

Breaking of hydrogen bonds

d)

Denaturing of enzymes

e)

Cell lysis

39.

Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Ultraviolet radiation

c)

Autoclave

d)

Microwaves

e)

Gamma radiation

40.

Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins?

a)

Bisphenols

b)

Alcohols

c)

Aldehydes

d)

Phenolics

e)

Halogens

41.

Which of the following substances is NOT effective against nonenveloped viruses?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Chlorine

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

All are equally effective.

e)

Ozone

42.

If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and didn't have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?

a)

Pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes

b)

Oven at 121°C for 1 hour

c)

Bleach

d)

Boiling for 1 hour

e)

Hydrogen peroxide

43.

Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats.

a)

3, 1, 2

b)

3, 2, 1

c)

1, 3, 2

d)

1, 2, 3

e)

2, 1, 3

44.

Assume you inoculated 100 cells into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 24 hours, you should have

a)

More cells in the 200 ml.

b)

The same number of cells in both.

c)

More cells in the 100 ml.

45.

Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?

a)

72

b)

9

c)

18

d)

36

e)

4

46.

In Figure 6.2, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?

a)

 

c and d

b)

 

b and d

c)

 

b only

d)

 

a and c

e)

 

a and b

47.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a catalase-negative cell incubated aerobically?

a)

b

b)

c

c)

a

48.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrophile incubated at room temperature?

a)

b

b)

a

c)

c

49.

In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10% of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?

a)

 

Fecal contamination of the bile ducts

b)

 

Bacterial cell walls in the water

c)

 

A biofilm in the reprocessor

d)

 

Contaminated disinfectant

50.

In Figure 6.4, in which tube are facultative anaerobes growing?

a)

a

b)

c

c)

b

d)

d

e)

e

51.

In Figure 6.4, in which tube are microaerophiles growing?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

52.

In Figure 6.2, which section shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

a and c

53.

In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

54.

In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

55.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a mesophile with an optimum temperature of 35°C incubated at 40°C?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

56.

In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates a mesophile at 5°C above its optimum temperature?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

57.

In Table, 6.1, in which medium would an autotroph grow?

a)

B

b)

A and C

c)

A and B

d)

A

e)

C

58.

Assume 109 E. coli cells/ml are in a flask.

Which graph in Figure 7.3 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7°C at time x?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

59.

In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

Can't tell

60.

In Figure 7.2, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture is approximately

a)

15 min.

b)

60 min.

c)

0 min.

d)

45 min.

e)

30 min.

61.

Assume that one culture is a freshly opened package of dried yeast with 0.1% moisture, another culture is the same yeast with 7.5% moisture, and the third culture is a package of yeast mixed with water. Each culture was exposed to 130°C in a hot-air oven. Which graph in Figure 7.1 most likely shows the yeast with 0.1% moisture?

a)

a and b

b)

c

c)

b and c

d)

a

e)

b

62.

In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

Can't tell

63.

Which graph in Figure 7.3 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 min. at time x?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

64.

In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth?

a)

Mortum

b)

 K.O.

c)

Doom

d)

Sterl

e)

Can't tell

65.

In Figure 7.2, the thermal death point for this culture is

a)

 

Can't tell from the data provided.

b)

 

30 min.

c)

 

50°C.

d)

 

170°C.

e)

 

15 min.

66.

Figure 6.3 shows three containers of water connected by tubes. A selectively permeable membrane divides each tube. Solutes are added to each container to give final concentrations of 5% NaCl in (a); 10% NaCl in (b); and 5% sucrose in (c). When the experiment is first set up, the initial movement of water will be

a)

 

b to a; b to c; c to a.

b)

 

a to b; b to c; c to a.

c)

 

a to b; c to b; c to a.

d)

 

a to c; b to c; c to a.

e)

 

a to c; c to b; c to a.

67.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

68.

The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)

a)

 

Halophile.

b)

 

Facultative anaerobe.

c)

 

Aerobe.

d)

 

Facultative halophile.

e)

 

Mesophile.

69.

In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?

a)

 

K.O.

b)

Doom

c)

Can't tell

d)

Sterl

e)

Mortum

70.

In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

Can't tell

71.

In Figure 7.2, the thermal death time for this culture is

a)

40 min.

b)

60 min.

c)

10 min.

d)

0 min.

e)

20 min.

72.

In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?

a)

 

No preservative

b)

 

Benzoate

c)

 

Sorbate + benzoate

d)

 

Sorbate

73.

In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal?

a)

Mortum

b)

Sterl

c)

Can't tell

d)

K.O.

e)

Doom

74.

Micrococci are facultative halophiles. In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts the growth of Micrococcus luteus in a nutrient medium containing 7.5% NaCl?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

75.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

76.

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?

a)

 

Glutaraldehyde

b)

 

Propylene oxide

c)

 

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

 

Ethylene oxide

e)

 

Beta-propiolactone

77.

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?

a)

 

Acid-anionic detergents

b)

 

Benzoic acid

c)

 

Pasteurization

d)

 

Supercritical CO2

e)

 

Peracetic acid

78.

Which of the following will NOT preserve foods?

a)

 

Ionizing radiation

b)

 

High pressure

c)

 

Microwaves

d)

 

Osmotic pressure

e)

 

Desiccation

79.

The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?

a)

 

The formation of hypochlorous acid

b)

 

The formation of ozone

c)

 

Disruption of the plasma membrane

d)

 

The formation of free O

e)

 

The formation of hydrochloric acid

80.

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

 

Supercritical fluids - CO2

b)

 

Plasma sterilization - free radicals

c)

 

Ozone - takes electrons from substances

d)

 

Ionizing radiation - hydroxyl radicals

e)

 

Ultraviolet radiation - desiccation

81.

In Table 6.1, which medium (media) is (are) chemically defined?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A and C

e)

A and B

82.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts Neisseria gonorrhoeae when growing inside the human body?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

83.

Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?

a)

 

Requires a large number of cells

b)

 

Sample volume is unknown.

c)

 

Requires no incubation time

d)

 

Can readily count organisms that are motile

e)

 

Enumerates dead cells

84.

Iodophors differ from iodine (I2) in that iodophors

a)

 

Are less irritating.

b)

 

Don't stain.

c)

 

Are combined with a nonionic detergent.

d)

 

Are longer lasting.

e)

 

All of these.

85.

Which of the following substances can sterilize?

a)

Phenolics

b)

 Ethylene oxide

c)

Chlorine

d)

Alcohol

e)

Soap

86.

Which of the following will NOT destroy prions?

a)

Proteases

b)

Incineration

c)

NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C

d)

All of these destroy prions.

e)

Boiling