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Air Tech - PPL Exam Ready

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The blade back is the flat part of the propeller blade

a)

True

b)

False

2.

If you wanted to decrease power in an aircraft with a CSU what is the order you would operate the levers in the cockpit?

a)

Throttle, Pitch, Mixture

b)

Mixture, Pitch, Throttle

c)

Pitch, Throttle, Mixture

d)

Mixture, Throttle, Pitch

3.

What is the main advantage of a variable pitch propeller?

a)

It is most efficient at a wide range of airspeeds

b)

It is lighter

c)

It is more simple to operate

d)

A variable pitch propeller can provide more horsepower

4.

What is the helix angle

a)

The angle between the chord line and the plane of rotation

b)

The angle between the chord line and the RAF

c)

The angle between the RAF and the plane of rotation

d)

The angle between the advance per revolution and the relative airflow

5.

Why is a propeller twisted?

a)

To maintain the correct angle of attack across the length of the blade

b)

To maintain the correct blade angle across the length of the blade

c)

To be more aerodynamic

d)

To reduce the amount of drag the propeller blade creates

6.

What type of Gyro does the DI use?

a)

Tied

b)

Earth

c)

Rate

d)

Space

7.

The TC's gyro is inclined at 30 degrees?

a)

True

b)

False

8.

An earth gyro's axis of rotation with parallel with the surface of the earth?

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Select all that apply: Which instruments utilise the use of a gyroscope?

a)

ASI

b)

A/H

c)

DI

d)

Compass

10.

What is the maximum permissible real drift that a DI can be subject to?

a)

4 deg per 15min

b)

16 deg per 30min

c)

12 deg per hour

d)

15 deg per hour

11.

What is precession?

a)

The tendency for a force to be felt 90 deg against the plane of rotation

b)

The tendency for a force to be felt 90 deg in the plane of rotation

c)

The tendency for a force to be felt where it is applied

d)

The tendency for a force to be felt 45 deg in the plane of rotation

12.

Select all that apply: What is the purpose of the fluid in the compass?

a)

To dampen the movement of the compass

b)

Lubrication

c)

Buoyancy

d)

Magnification for easier reading

13.

You are flying a heading of 215 deg M and need to turn onto 330 deg M. Your DI is unserviceable, what compass heading do you turn onto to correctly roll out on your desired heading?

a)

000

b)

330

c)

310

d)

350

14.

You are flying a heading of 355 deg M and need to turn onto 240 deg M. Your DI is unserviceable, what compass heading do you turn onto to correctly roll out on your desired heading?

a)

250

b)

230

c)

240

d)

245

15.

What is the purpose of the crankshaft?

a)

To facilitate valve timing

b)

To wind MCL up

c)

To convert the movement of the pistons to power at the propeller

d)

To connect the piston to the camshaft

16.

What is the third stroke of a four stroke engine for?

a)

Combustion

b)

Intake

c)

Exhaust

d)

Compression

17.

What facilitates valve timing?

a)

crankshaft

b)

camshaft

c)

connecting rod

d)

cylinder

18.

What are the advantages of a dual ignition system?

a)

redundancy if one spark plug was to fail

b)

more responsive controls and its safer

c)

more efficient burning in the cylinder

d)

more efficient combustion and its safer

19.

Which statement is correct?

a)

An engine would not run from one magneto and one spark plug

b)

In one cylinder each spark plug is run by a separate magneto

c)

Each cylinder is run by a separate magneto

d)

There are generally 4 spark plugs per cylinder run from the magnetos

20.

What is impulse coupling?

a)

When the left magneto produces a large advanced spark for starting

b)

When the left magneto produces a large delayed spark for starting

c)

When the right magneto produces a large delayed spark for starting

d)

When the right magneto produces a large advanced spark for starting

21.

When should peak pressure be developed for most efficient operation?

a)

55 degrees before TDC

b)

15 degrees before BDC

c)

11 degrees after TDC

d)

30 degrees after BDC

22.

What happens to CoP, lift and drag at 16 degrees angle of attack

a)

Lift is minimum, drag is maximum and CoP moves rearwards

b)

Lift is minimum, drag is minimum and CoP is at a rearward position

c)

Lift is maximum, drag is low, CoP moves forwards

d)

Lift is maximum, drag is high, CoP is at it's forward most point

23.

Which statement is correct

a)

Stall is associated with an airspeed

b)

Stall is associated with an angle of attack

c)

Stalling will only occur when the throttle is closed

d)

Flap causes stall speed to increase

24.

Which statement is correct

a)

L=CD 1/2 p V² S

b)

L proportional to a/a x a/s

c)

L=CL 1/2 p V S

d)

CL = a/a x a/s

25.

What is a wingdrop stall?

a)

When both wings stall together

b)

When the aircrafts nose pitches up close to the stall

c)

When one wing stalls before the other

d)

When the aircraft is stalled, rolling, yawing and pitching

26.

Which instrument(s) take in static pressure?

a)

ASI, VSI

b)

ASI, VSI, ALI

c)

ALT, VSI

d)

ALT, VSI, ASI

27.

What is static pressure?

a)

ambient pressure

b)

pressure due to movement

c)

dynamic pressure - total pressure

d)

dynamic pressure + total pressure

28.

What is the basic principle of the ASI?

a)

Pitot pressure enters a capsule and static pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

b)

Static pressure enters a capsule and slowly leaks into the instrument casing

c)

Static pressure enters a capsule and pitot pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

d)

Static pressure enters the instrument casing and a capsule expands or contracts as the pressure changes

29.

What is the basic principle of the VSI?

a)

Pitot pressure enters a capsule and static pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

b)

Static pressure enters a capsule and pitot pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

c)

Static pressure enters the instrument casing and a capsule expands or contracts as the pressure changes

d)

Static pressure enters a capsule and slowly leaks into the instrument casing

30.

What is the basic principle of the altimeter?

a)

Pitot pressure enters a capsule and static pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

b)

Static pressure enters a capsule and slowly leaks into the instrument casing

c)

Static pressure enters a capsule and pitot pressure surrounds it in the instrument casing

d)

Static pressure enters the instrument casing and a capsule expands or contracts as the pressure changes

31.

What does Vs1 mean?

a)

Max speed in landing configuration

b)

Stall speed in landing configuration

c)

Stall speed in clean configuration

d)

Max flap extension speed

32.

What is the upper limit on the green range of the ASI?

a)

Vfe

b)

Vso

c)

Vne

d)

Vno

33.

What is the lower limit on the yellow range of the ASI?

a)

Vfe

b)

Vso

c)

Vne

d)

Vno

34.

What is the upper limit on the white range of the ASI?

a)

Vfe

b)

Vso

c)

Vne

d)

Vno

35.

What is the difference between IAS and EAS? Choose all that apply

a)

pressure error

b)

intermediate error

c)

compressibility error

d)

deviation error

e)

density error

36.

What does QNE mean or read?

a)

sea level temperature

b)

altitude

c)

pressure from a datum

d)

pressure altitude

37.

Flying from 999hPa to 1031hPa will cause ______

a)

The aircraft's true altitude to be lower than indicated

b)

A danger with terrain clearance

c)

The aircraft's true altitude to be higher than indicated

d)

Nothing - only temperature causes an error in the altimeter

38.

If there is a static vent blockage, what will happen to the altimeter reading in a climb?

a)

instrument will over read altitude

b)

instrument will read zero feet

c)

instrument will under read altitude

d)

instrument will not be affected as ALT uses pitot

39.

If there is a pitot tube blockage, what will happen to the ASI reading in a climb?

a)

instrument will under read speed

b)

instrument will over read speed

c)

instrument will read zero knots

d)

instrument will not be affected as ASI uses static only

40.

If there is a pitot tube blockage, what will happen to the ALT reading in a climb?

a)

instrument will under read altitude

b)

instrument will over read altitude

c)

instrument will read zero feet

d)

instrument will not be affected as ALT uses static only

41.

What is being described:

A radiator type-cooler which cools the compressed intake air to increase its density for more power per rpm

a)

turbocharger

b)

intercooler

c)

centrifugal coolant compressor

d)

dodge charger cooler

42.

What is the purpose of a turbocharger?

a)

to compress intake air and is run off the engine

b)

to compress intake air through stages of discs found in a turbine engine

c)

to compress exhaust gases to be reused as intake air

d)

to compress intake air and is run off exhaust gases

43.

AVTUR is a type of ____

a)

AVGAS

b)

Kerosene

c)

Diesel

d)

MOGAS

44.

What would happen without oil for lubrication?

a)

Extremely high temperatures from friction forces

b)

Fuel pressure would reduce to a minimum

c)

The valves wouldn't have enough pressure to open and close

d)

Power settings would have to be set lower than normal

45.

An oil that flows slowly is said to have what type of viscosity?

a)

high

b)

low

46.

An SAE of 50 would give a commercial aviation grade of ____

a)

10

b)

25

c)

60

d)

100

47.

Which statement is incorrect?

a)

Dry sump is better than wet sump for aerobatic aircraft

b)

The pressure relief valve is located on the engine side of the oil pump

c)

A wet sump has a seperate reservoir tank

d)

An oil-filter bypass valve will operate if filter becomes blocked

48.

Oil below the minimum level could cause:

Select all that apply

a)

a low oil temperature

b)

a high oil temperature

c)

a high oil pressure

d)

a low oil pressure

49.

When is the engine most likely to overheat?

a)

When the fuel pump is switched off

b)

When in a high power dive

c)

When in a high power climb

d)

When in a low power descent with carb heat on

50.

What action would you NOT take in the event of a engine fire during start?

a)

fuel pump OFF

b)

mixture RICH

c)

fuel selector OFF

d)

magnetos CRANK STARTER

51.

Why is a fuel vent required in the tanks?

Select all that apply

a)

to allow for excess pressure to be vented

b)

to drain for contaminants

c)

to prevent tank collapsing during fuel consumption

d)

to allow water to be removed from the surface of the fuel

52.

Where is 'unusable fuel' taken from?

a)

fuel drain

b)

expansion space

c)

fuel vent

d)

sump

53.

Why should you not run a tank dry before swapping tanks?

a)

vapour locking could occur

b)

fuel pressure might exceed higher limits

c)

oil pressure may drop too low

d)

mixture may become too lean

54.

What fuel is straw colouored or clear?

a)

MOGAS

b)

AVGAS

c)

AVTUR

55.

How is AVGAS displayed?

a)

black letters on white background

b)

white letters on black background

c)

red letters on white background

d)

white letters on red background

56.

If a fuel cap is accidentally left off fuel may be siphoned out of the tank due to the ____ pressure above the wings.

a)

high

b)

low

57.

A modern light aircraft has a ____ electrical system.

a)

B.B.C

b)

D.C

c)

B.B.S

d)

A.C

58.

A battery with an ampere hour rating of 800 will last how long when running 10 amps an hour?

a)

10 hours

b)

18 hours

c)

80 hours

d)

180 hours

59.

A Nicad battery is smaller, lighter and more efficient than a lead-acid battery.

a)

true

b)

false

60.

What is the alternator run off?

a)

The battery

b)

The camshaft

c)

The engine

d)

The magnetos

61.

What does an inverter do?

a)

changes A.C to D.C

b)

changes D.C to A.C

c)

steps A.C at one voltage up or down to another voltage

d)

steps D.C at one voltage up or down to another voltage

62.

A generator is produced with a commutator to automatically produce ____

a)

DC

b)

AC

63.

What is the purpose of the bus bar?

a)

to stop the alternator overcharging the battery in flight

b)

to aid with starting aircraft if battery is flat or capacity is too low

c)

to conduct and distribute power around the electrical units

d)

to measure the current flowing in the circuit

64.

What does a left-zero ammeter measure?

a)

the charge into and out of the battery

b)

the output of the battery

c)

the output of the alternator

d)

the charge into and out of the alternator

65.

After starting the engine the centre zero ammeter will move .....

a)

left of centre

b)

right of centre

c)

stay on centre zero

d)

stay on left zero

66.

How many times can you reset a circuit breaker?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

67.

What should you do if you notice insufficient charge to the battery?

a)

pop the circuit breakers for all unnecessary equipment

b)

turn on all lights to ensure you are visible to other aircraft

c)

turn off unnecessary equipment to conserve the battery

d)

turn the battery off then on again

68.

Power is _____ x______ / _______

a)

force x mass / time

b)

mass x velocity / force

c)

velocity x time / distance

d)

distance x force / time

69.

work is measured in ...

a)

watts

b)

joules

c)

kilograms

d)

newtons

70.

What is the force that pulls towards the centre of the curve?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

forward component of weight

c)

centripetal force

d)

total reaction

71.

What is the rate of doing work?

a)

power

b)

force

c)

kinetic energy

d)

potential energy

72.

What is a moment?

a)

a turning force about a pivot or turning point

b)

two equal and opposite parallel forces

c)

a force produced when mass is attracted to Earths surface

d)

force required to accelerate 1kg at 1m/sec/sec

73.

What provides the aerofoil shape of the wings?

a)

longerons

b)

stringers

c)

spars

d)

ribs

74.

What is work, power and moment measured in?

a)

W, J, Nm

b)

J, W, Nm

c)

N, W, J

d)

Nm, J, W

75.

What is the following:

"for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction"

a)

newtons 1st law

b)

newtons 2nd law

c)

newtons 3rd law

d)

bernoullis theorem

76.

Two equal and opposite forces are known as ________

a)

torque

b)

moment

c)

couple

d)

centripetal force

77.

What is the purpose of the venturi in the carburettor?

a)

to cool down the fuel/air mixture for evaporation

b)

to heat up the fuel/air mixture for evaporation

c)

to draw out the fuel from the nozzle

d)

to accelerate air so the throttle butterfly doesnt flutter

78.

What system ensures there's sufficient fuel for engine operation when the throttle control is closed?

a)

accelerating system

b)

enrichment system

c)

idling system

d)

idle cut-off system

79.

In 'standard' sea level conditions, mixture should be set to...

a)

FULL RICH

b)

FULL LEAN

c)

IDLE CUT OFF

d)

50% LEAN

80.

What will an over-lean mixture most likely create?

a)

detonation due to too much fuel

b)

pre-ignition due to too much fuel

c)

detonation due to not enough fuel

d)

pre-ignition due to not enough fuel

81.

A knocking sound accompanied by an excessively high CHT reading would indicate _______

a)

pre ignition

b)

detonation

c)

flooded engine

d)

low oil pressure

82.

_____ may occur in the one cylinder whereas _____ normally occurs in all cylinders

a)

pre-ignition, detonation

b)

detonation, pre-ignition

83.

What ice forms immediately downstream of the main metering jet on the venturi?

a)

refrigeration ice

b)

throttle ice

c)

intake ice

d)

impact ice

84.

Refrigeration ice can occur with temperatures as high as ____ when RH exceeds _____

a)

15 degrees, 15%

b)

25 degrees, 10%

c)

10 degrees, 50%

d)

25 degrees, 50%

85.

How do you get rid of impact icing?

a)

carb heat

b)

climb into warm sector

c)

descend into warmer air

d)

increasing throttle setting

86.

Direct injection is more complex, heavier and more expensive than indirect fuel injection

a)

true

b)

false

87.

Fill in the blanks for a fuel injected aircraft:

A _____ senses mass of air entering and throttle and mixture positions. The metered fuel passes through the _____ and then to the ____ in the required cylinder.

a)

fuel injection nozzle, fuel control unit, flow divider

b)

fuel injection nozzle, flow divider, fuel control unit

c)

fuel control unit, fuel injection nozzle, flow divider

d)

fuel control unit, flow divider, fuel injection nozzle

88.

in the exit of a venturi:

a)

dynamic pressure reduces and static pressure reduces

b)

dynamic pressure increases and static pressure reduces

c)

static pressure increases and dynamic pressure increases

d)

static pressure increases and dynamic pressure reduces

89.

Where is the minimum drag and you best lift to drag ratio found?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C