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Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the generic name for Calan®?

a)

nifedipine

b)

verapamil

c)

diltiazem

d)

amlodipine

2.

Medications for ophthalmic administration are usually available in:

a)

sterile hypotonic drops or sterile ointment

b)

sterile hypertonic drops or sterile ointment

c)

hypotonic solution or hypotonic suspension

d)

sterile isotonic drops or sterile ointment

3.

Which medical abbreviation is most acceptable?

a)

qid

b)

qhs

c)

OD

d)

IN

4.

You receive a prescription for Mary Jones and note there are two patients with that name in your system. What should you do?

a)

Process for the one with more prescriptions

b)

Ask a colleague

c)

Verify the birthdate of the patient

d)

Choose the one with the fewest allergies

5.

A drug with an A rating in the Orange Book:

a)

Has no actual or potential bioequivalence problems

b)

Has unresolved bioequivalence problems

c)

Has specific dosage form problems

d)

Is not considered therapeutically equivalent

6.

Reference for therapeutic equivalence of brand/generic drugs:

a)

Red Book

b)

PDR

c)

Orange Book

d)

MEDMARX

7.

Ranitidine is commonly used for:

a)

seasonal allergies

b)

diarrhea

c)

dehydration

d)

stomach acid

8.

DEA form to order Schedule II drugs:

a)

DEA Form 121

b)

DEA Form 200

c)

DEA Form 222

d)

DEA Form 240

9.

PPIs for oral contraceptive refills must be provided:

a)

Only for new prescriptions

b)

If 30 days have passed since last PPI

c)

Every six months

d)

Once a year

10.

Tall Man lettering is used to:

a)

Flag high-alert meds

b)

Show “do not crush” meds

c)

Differentiate look-alike names

d)

Label neonatal medications

11.

Smallest capsule size for compounding:

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

000

12.

Carbamide peroxide is used to:

a)

Treat ear infections

b)

Lower blood pressure

c)

Treat arrhythmias

d)

Soften ear wax

13.

Hydrochlorothiazide is a:

a)

Analgesic

b)

Anti-inflammatory

c)

Sedative

d)

Diuretic

14.

Safe Water Drinking Act requires pharmacies to:

a)

Follow Drug Supply Chain Security Act

b)

Dispose of nonreturnable meds safely

c)

Use reverse distributors

d)

Use consignment stock

15.

How many grams of dextrose in 200 mL of 70% solution?

a)

700 g

b)

460 g

c)

140 g

d)

120 g

16.

Which abbreviation is on the TJC “Do Not Use” list?

a)

Q.O.D.

b)

Q.I.D.

c)

B.I.D.

d)

T.I.D.

17.

Who accredits many health institutions like hospitals?

a)

APhA

b)

ASHP

c)

HHS

d)

TJC

18.

Severe allergic reaction with respiratory and cardiovascular collapse:

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Teratogenicity

19.

High-alert medications:

a)

Can cause significant harm if an error is made

b)

Are expensive

c)

Only come in generic

d)

Are always multisource

20.

Which is true about medication guides?

a)

Part of FDA-approved labeling

b)

Provided for all FDA drugs

c)

Written by pharmacist

d)

Written by technician

21.

Which is a high-alert medication?

a)

digoxin

b)

nadolol

c)

bacitracin

d)

hydrocortisone

22.

Exact inventory must be kept for:

a)

phenobarbital

b)

alprazolam

c)

diazepam

d)

hydrocodone

23.

Safety Data Sheets (SDS):

a)

Fire hazard protocols

b)

OSHA safety codes

c)

Info about hazardous substances

d)

None of the above

24.

Avoid dairy, vitamins, antacids with:

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Amoxicillin

25.

Bedside Medication Verification (BMV) uses:

a)

Nurse’s badge, patient’s armband, and medication barcode

b)

Armband and med barcode

c)

Badge and med barcode

d)

Badge and armband

26.

4 mg/kg dose for 2 kg infant – safest expression?

a)

8 mg

b)

8.0 mg

c)

.008 g

d)

.0080 g

27.

Last set of NDC digits indicate:

a)

Manufacturer

b)

Product ID

c)

Package size

d)

None of the above

28.

Container size for 180 mL of liquid:

a)

2 oz

b)

4 oz

c)

6 oz

d)

8 oz

29.

A patient asks about taking meds together. What do you do?

a)

Say you see no problem

b)

Give drug insert

c)

Ask pharmacist to consult

d)

Sell Tylenol®

30.

What is the purpose of MedWatch?

a)

Enforces the labeling and packaging of drugs

b)

Maintains records of theft

c)

Reports adverse effects and product problems

d)

Ensures DEA compliance

31.

The abbreviation “DAW” on a prescription means:

a)

Drug always wanted

b)

Dispense as written

c)

Doctor approves wholesaler

d)

Deliver after work

32.

Which dosage form is designed to dissolve between the cheek and gum?

a)

Sublingual

b)

Buccal

c)

Enteric

d)

Troche

33.

Which reference would you consult for drug interactions?

a)

Orange Book

b)

Drug Facts and Comparisons

c)

Red Book

d)

Remington’s

34.

Which of the following is considered a Schedule I drug?

a)

Heroin

b)

Codeine

c)

Ketamine

d)

Methylphenidate

35.

What does the prefix “brady-” mean?

a)

Fast

b)

Slow

c)

Above

d)

Within

36.

The correct temperature range for storing refrigerated medications is:

a)

25–30°C

b)

2–8°C

c)

-20–0°C

d)

10–15°C

37.

Which abbreviation means "as needed"?

a)

qd

b)

prn

c)

bid

d)

tid

38.

The ISMP publishes a list of:

a)

Pharmacy school rankings

b)

Pharmacy law updates

c)

High-alert medications

d)

Pharmacy job openings

39.

A medication label says “Store at room temperature.” What range is that?

a)

35–40°F

b)

15–30°C (59–86°F)

c)

2–8°C

d)

-10–0°C

40.

What is the meaning of the root word “hepat”?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Stomach

d)

Lung

41.

Which of the following is a common side effect of opioids?

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Hypertension

d)

Cough

42.

Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

a)

B1

b)

B12

c)

D

d)

C

43.

A laminar flow hood should be turned on:

a)

Right before use

b)

30 minutes before use

c)

During cleaning only

d)

Once per day

44.

A prescription reads “ii gtts os bid.” What does this mean?

a)

Two drops in right eye twice a day

b)

Two drops in both eyes twice a day

c)

Two drops in left eye twice a day

d)

Two tablets twice a day

45.

Which organization sets standards for drug quality and purity?

a)

DEA

b)

FDA

c)

USP

d)

ASHP

46.

The generic name for Zoloft® is:

a)

sertraline

b)

fluoxetine

c)

citalopram

d)

paroxetine

47.

Which term refers to a solution with the same salt concentration as cells?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Hyperosmotic

48.

What is the function of a DAW code of “1”?

a)

Prescriber requests brand only

b)

Pharmacist chose generic

c)

Patient requested generic

d)

Insurance refused generic

49.

Which agency regulates over-the-counter medication labeling?

a)

FDA

b)

DEA

c)

OSHA

d)

ISMP

50.

How many refills are allowed for Schedule III–V drugs?

a)

None

b)

Up to 5 within 6 months

c)

Unlimited

d)

10 refills in 1 year

51.

The abbreviation “hs” on a prescription means:

a)

At noon

b)

At bedtime

c)

Every hour

d)

After meals

52.

The process of cleaning up a hazardous drug spill is called:

a)

Decontamination

b)

Displacement

c)

Decoding

d)

Defusing

53.

The brand name for omeprazole is:

a)

Zantac

b)

Prilosec

c)

Nexium

d)

Pepcid

54.

The Red Book is used to find:

a)

Therapeutic equivalents

b)

Drug interactions

c)

Drug pricing information

d)

Pharmacy law

55.

What class of drug is fluconazole?

a)

Antifungal

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antiviral

d)

Antidepressant

56.

A 1-liter bag of IV fluid runs at 125 mL/hr. How long will it last?

a)

6 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

10 hours

d)

12 hours

57.

The abbreviation “qs” means:

a)

Quantity taken at sunrise

b)

A sufficient quantity

c)

Quantity stock

d)

Quick swallow

58.

The generic name for Norvasc® is:

a)

enalapril

b)

atenolol

c)

amlodipine

d)

valsartan

59.

Who can legally prescribe medications?

a)

Physicians, dentists, nurse practitioners

b)

Pharmacy technicians

c)

Medical assistants

d)

Pharmacy cashiers

60.

A drug recall that could cause serious health problems or death is what class?

a)

Class III

b)

Class II

c)

Class I

d)

Class IV

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