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OD 623- Midterm Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What mechanisms help maintain homeostasis?

a)

Receptors

b)

Control centers

c)

Effectors

d)

All of the above

2.

What two terms can "Q" stand for?

a)

Every

b)

Always

c)

Four

d)

Never

3.

"Hepato" is an example of what part of a medical term?

a)
Root
b)
Combining form
c)
Suffix
d)
Prefix
4.

Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in which of the following patients?

a)

Pt w/ recent eye surgery

b)

Pt w/ cerebral injury

c)

Bleeding pt

d)

Pt in shock

5.

The spleen is located in which body quadrant?

a)

Right Upper Quadrant

b)

Left Upper Quadrant

c)

Right Lower Quadrant

d)

Left Lower Quadrant

6.

Which organelle is responsible for making ribosome components?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Mitochondria

7.

What organelle in the endomembrane system produces cholesterol and phospholipids for use in membranes? What organelle produces other lipids?

a)

Smooth ER, Rough ER

b)

Golgi apparatus, Rough ER

c)

Rough ER, Smooth ER

d)

Rough ER, lysosomes

8.

What are the structural features of microfilaments in cellular cytoskeleton?

a)

Intracellular transport, mitosis, form cilia & flagella

b)

Cell shape maintenance, organelle anchoring, & mitosis

c)

Cell movement, intracellular transport, cell shape maintenance, and muscle contraction

d)

Cell movement, meiosis, cell shape maintenance

9.

What is the 60-40-20 rule relating to body fluid division in the body?

a)

60% of total body water (TBW) is ICF, 40% is ECF, and 20% is interstitial fluid

b)

60% of body weight is water/fluid. 40% of that is ICF, 20% is ECF

c)

60% of body weight is water/fluid. 20% of that is ICF, 40% is ECF

d)

60% of total body water (TBW) is ECF, 20% is plasma, and 40% is ICF

10.

What is the function of the ECF?

a)

-facilitates cellular metabolism

-allows for intracellular communication

-maintains cell volume/shape

b)

-facilitates swelling

-cushions cells

-helps in immune response

c)

-exchange medium for substances entering/exiting cells

-allows for fluid & electrolyte balance

-facilitates nutrient and waste transport

-allows for intercellular communication

d)

-decreases edema

-bypasses the lymphatic system

-decreases communication between cells

11.

What are the major cations in ICF?

a)

Na+, K+

b)

K+, Mg++

c)

Mg++, Na+

d)

Just Na+

12.

Which is NOT a basic component of cell membranes?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Cholesterols

c)

Membrane proteins (integral and peripheral)

d)

Carbohydrates

13.

Which solute transport mechanism(s) requires an input of energy?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Secondary diffusion

14.

If a cell is placed into a solution that has more particles than the cell, what type of solution is it in?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Osmotic

d)

Hypertonic

15.

What is an equilibrium potential?

a)

Concentration difference of an ion

b)

The diffusion potential that exactly balances the affinity for diffusion down a concentration gradient

c)

Electrochemical potential difference generated across a membrane by a charged solute diffusing down its concentration gradient

d)

Possibility that a channel is open

16.

What causes the repolarization of a skeletal muscle action potential?

a)

-Na+ inactivation gates close, stopping influx of Na+

-voltage-gated K+ channels open, allowing efflux of K+

b)

-Voltage-gated K+ channels close, stopping efflux of K+

c)

-Voltage-gated Na+ channels open, Na+ rushes in

d)

-Continued K+ efflux pushes cell toward K+ equilibrium potential

17.

What are the two main types of synapses and how do they work?

a)
  1. Chemical synapse: info transmitted from one cell to another via neurotransmitters

b)
  1. Chemical synapse: allows current flow via gap junctions

c)
  1. Electrical synapse: info transmitted from one cell to another via neurotransmitters

d)
  1. Electrical synapse: allows current flow via gap junctions

18.

How is the neurotransmitter (NT) released from a presynaptic neuron at a neuromuscular junction?

a)

Free-floating NT is released via exocytosis

b)

Ca++ influx causes NT-filled vesicles to fuse with plasma membrane & release their contents by endocytosis

c)

Free-floating NT is released through membrane protein channels

d)

Ca++ influx causes NT-filled vesicles to fuse with plasma membrane & release their contents by exocytosis

19.

What are the major neurotransmitter classes?

a)

Choline esters, biogenic amines, amino acids, neuropeptides

b)

Antibodies, cytokines, steroids, choline esters

c)

Vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, amino acids

d)

Biogenic amines, enzymes, lipids, proteins

20.

Which answer matches the correct sarcomere component to its properties?

a)

A-band:

Delineates ends of sarcomere.

b)

I-band:

Contains thin (actin) filaments, intermediate filamentous proteins, and Z disks.

c)

M-line:

Located in center of sarcomere. Contains thick (myosin) filaments. Thick/thin bands overlap to form cross-bridge formation sites.

d)

Z disk:

Associates with thick and thin filaments. Anchors myofibrils.

21.

What is the main ion responsible for excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle cells?

a)

Mg++

b)

Na+

c)

Ca++

d)

K+

22.

What molecule in smooth muscle is the equivalent of troponin in skeletal muscle?

a)

Myosin-light-chain-kinase

b)

Ca++

c)

Myosin light chains

d)

Calmodulin

23.

How do smooth muscles relax?

a)

Hyperpolarization closes voltage-gated channels

b)

Ligands (i.e. cAMP or GMP) inhibit ligand-gated channels

c)

IP3 production is inhibited

d)

SR stop releasing Ca++ ions

24.

What is the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Voluntary motor system that controls skeletal muscle movement

b)

A sensory network that transmits touch and pain to the brain

c)

Involuntary motor system that controls visceral organ function

d)

A system responsible for conscious thought and memory processing

25.

What neurotransmitter is not released from sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic varicosities?

a)

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

b)

Norepinephrine (NE)

c)

Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP)

d)

Neuropeptide Y

26.

Which sympathetic adrenergic receptor causes pupil dilation when activated?

a)

Alpha-1

b)

Alpha-2

c)

Beta-1

d)

Beta-2

27.

What neurotransmitter is released by parasympathetic PREganglionic neurons? What NT is released by POSTganglionic neurons?

a)

ACh, NE

b)

ACh, E

c)

ACh, ACh

d)

E, NE

28.

Which muscarinic receptors have an excitatory effect for the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

M4

e)

M5

29.

What ocular muscles are controlled by sympathetic innervation?

a)

Ciliary body & iris sphincter

b)

Iris sphincter & iris dilator

c)

Ciliary body & iris dilator

d)

Superior rectus & Mueller's muscle

30.

How does genetic inheritance work?

a)
Genetic inheritance works through the transmission of genes from parents to offspring, determining traits based on dominant and recessive alleles.
b)
Genetic inheritance is solely based on environmental factors.
c)
Traits are inherited only from the mother, not the father.
d)
Genes are randomly assigned without any influence from parents.
31.

What is Mendel's third hypothesis?

a)

For each inherited character, an organism inherits two alleles, one from each parent.

b)

If two alleles of an inherited pair differ, one determines the organism's appearance (dominant), and the other has no noticeable effect on an organism's appearance (recessive).

c)

There are alternative versions of genes that account for variations in inherited characteristics.

d)

A sperm or egg carries only one allele for each inherited character because the two alleles for a character segregate from each other during gamete production. (aka law of segregation)

32.

What is the primary source of genetic variation leading to evolution?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Mutation

c)

Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes

d)

Random fertilization

33.

What is the most common chromosome abnormality and what type of chromosomal disorder is it?

a)

XXY (Klinefelter Syndrome), Numerical

b)

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome), Numerical

c)

5p deletion (Cri du Chat Syndrome), Structural

d)

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome), Structural

34.

What is an example of an ocular autosomal dominant condition?

a)

Leber Congenital Amaurosis

b)

Best Disease

c)

Stargardt Disease

d)

Usher Syndrome

35.

Which mitochondrial disorder is caused by the mutation of mitochondrial DNA?

a)

Kearns-Sayre Syndrome

b)

Autosomal Dominant Optic Atrophy

c)

Leigh Syndrome

d)

Leber's Hereditary Optic Neuropathy

36.

What is nutrition?

a)

Terrible for you

b)

The intake and utilization of nutrients necessary for growth, maintenance, & overall health

c)

Unneccessary

d)

A diet fad

37.

What are the physiological functions of lipids?

a)

Energy storage, cushioning, insulation, steroid synthesis

b)

Primary source of dietary energy

c)

Used to build & repair tissues

d)

Detoxification and bone health

38.

What electron carrier (or carriers) take electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain?

a)

Only NAD+

b)

NAD+ and FAD

c)

Only FAD

d)

NADH and FADH

39.

What process converts fatty acids into acetyl-CoA?

a)
Glycolysis
b)
Beta-oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle
d)
Fatty Acid Synthesis
40.

What is the primary purpose of protein metabolism? What is the secondary purpose of protein metabolism?

a)
Primary: Store energy; Secondary: Hormone production.
b)
Primary: Build cell membranes; Secondary: DNA replication.
c)
Primary: Transport oxygen; Secondary: Immune response.
d)

Primary: Structure; Secondary: Energy

41.

What other heat-generating mechanism must be active in order for thyroid hormones to have their maximum effect?

a)

Shivering

b)

Sympathetic NS activation

c)

Decreased skin blood vessel sympathetic activity

d)

Increased activation of sweat gland sympathetic cholinergic fibers

42.

Where are the mechanisms for dissipating body heat coordinated in the body?

a)

Posterior hypothalamus

b)

Medulla

c)

Anterior hypothalamus

d)

Pons

43.

What nutritional factors are most linked with Type II Diabetes?

a)

Excessive sugar & refined carb consumption

b)

Diets high in fruits & veggies

c)

Diets low in soda intake

d)

Insufficient vitamin intake

44.

Which of the following are examples of malnutrition?

a)

Micronutrient deficiency

b)

Obesity

c)

Macronutrient deficiency

d)

Hypervitaminosis

45.

What vitamin deficiency affects the eyes?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

46.

Which is not an acceptable treatment for alcoholism?

a)

Counseling

b)

Medication to reduce desire to drink

c)

Mutual support groups

d)

Acupuncture

47.

What type of epithelial tissue junctions binds adjacent cells together?

a)

Tight junctions

b)

Gap junctions

c)

Hemidesmosomes

d)

Loose junctions

48.

What type of connective tissue protects internal organs from trauma?

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Dense elastic

c)

Dense collagenous

d)

Bone

49.

Which of the following is not a major organ system?

a)

Integumentary system

b)

Vestibular system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Nervous system

50.

What is the pathway of blood through the heart, lungs, and systemic circulation?

a)
Body -> Left Atrium -> Left Ventricle -> Lungs -> Right Atrium -> Right Ventricle -> Body
b)
Body -> Right Ventricle -> Lungs -> Left Ventricle -> Right Atrium -> Left Atrium -> Body
c)

Body -> Right Atrium -> Right Ventricle -> Lungs -> Left Atrium -> Left Ventricle -> Body.

d)
Body -> Left Ventricle -> Lungs -> Right Atrium -> Right Ventricle -> Body
51.

Which is not a function of blood?

a)

Transportation

b)

Regulation

c)

Metabolism

d)

Protection

52.

What type of blood transfusion would someone with Type A blood react to?

a)

Type B

b)

Type AB

c)

Type O+

d)

Type O-

53.

What type of blood vessel has the largest capacitance?

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Veins

d)

Capillaries

54.

How does blood vessel resistance affect blood pressure?

a)
Increased blood vessel resistance lowers blood pressure.
b)
Blood vessel resistance has no effect on blood pressure.
c)
Decreased blood vessel resistance raises blood pressure.
d)
Increased blood vessel resistance raises blood pressure.
55.

What is the major mechanism for changing cardiovascular blood flow?

a)
Fluid retention
b)

Modifying the resistance of blood vessels (especially arterioles)

c)
Blood pressure regulation
d)
Increased heart rate
56.

What causes the plateau of a cardiac action potential?

a)

No Ca++ ions in the cell

b)

Decrease in Na+ influx

c)

Inward current of Ca++ = outward current of K+

d)

Increase in K+ efflux

57.

Which ECG wave represents ventricular repolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

P wave

c)

QRS wave

d)

PR interval

58.

The magnitude of myocardial tension developed during cardiac cross-bridge cycling is proportional to what?

a)
Oxygen levels
b)

Intracellular Ca++ concentration

c)
Heart rate
d)
Blood pressure
59.

What is cardiac output dependent on?

a)
Heart rate and stroke volume.
b)
Respiratory rate and body temperature.
c)
Oxygen levels and blood volume.
d)
Blood pressure and heart rate.
60.

During which phase of cardiac cycle is S1 heard? (NOTE: THIS QUESTION IS ON THE MIDTERM)

a)
Diastole phase
b)
Systole phase
c)
Isovolumetric relaxation phase
d)
Isovolumetric contraction phase
61.

What does isovolumetric mean?

a)

No change in volume

b)

Increase in volume

c)

Decrease in volume

d)

No contraction or relaxation

62.

In steady state, what should be the relationship between cardiac output and venous return?

a)

CO < VR

b)

CO > VR

c)

CO = VR

d)

They don't affect each other at all

63.

Which of the following is NOT a brainstem center affected by the baroreceptor reflex?

a)

Cardiac Decelerator Center

b)

Cardiac Accelerator Center

c)

Vasoconstrictor (Vasomotor) Center

d)

Vasodilator Center

64.

Which RAAs component(s) is responsible for vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

a)

Renin

b)

Angiotensin I

c)

Angiotensin II

d)

Aldosterone

65.

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Return interstitial fluid and proteins to vascular compartments

b)
To regulate heart rate
c)
To filter toxins from the liver
d)
To produce red blood cells
66.

What is the primary mechanism used for matching blood flow to metabolic needs?

a)

Hormonal control

b)

Local control

c)
Neural control
d)
Hormonal regulation
67.

What is the primary compensatory cardiovascular response to decreased arterial pressure?

a)

RAAS

b)

Baroreceptor reflex

c)

Orthostatic hypertension

d)
Increased blood vessel diameter
68.

Which two buffers are prominent in the blood?

a)
Urea and lactate
b)

Bicarbonate and phosphate

c)
Glucose and cholesterol
d)
Albumin and creatinine
69.

Which metabolic disorder would you suspect after lots of bodily fluid was lost to vomiting? How about to diarrhea?

a)

Metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis, Milk-alkali syndrome

c)

Metabolic alkalosis, metabolic acidosis

d)

Chronic kidney disease, Lactic acidosis

70.

Dilation/relaxation of airways is the direct result of which of the following?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

71.

Which respiratory function is caused by the diaphragm returning to its resting state?

a)

Exhalation

b)
Lung inflation
c)

Respiration

d)
Inhalation
72.

What is the residual volume?

a)

Volume of air in alveoli + volume of air in airways

b)

Total lung capacity minus the tidal volume.

c)

Volume of gas remaining in lungs after maximal forced expiration

d)

Volume of gas expired in a maximal forced expiration