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Practice exam for NHA

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 8hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For purposes of accreditation, clinical laboratories may be inspected by which of the following?

a)

College of American Pathologists (CAP)

b)

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

2.

The agency that provides proficiency testing for the laboratory is the

a)

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

b)

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

c)

College of American Pathologists (CAP)

d)

Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG)

3.

Which of the following should a blood collector NOT be tested for after an accidental needlestick?

a)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

b)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

c)

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

d)

Rubella

4.

Which of the following types of consent is most common in blood collection?

a)

expressed

b)

informed

c)

consent for minors

d)

implied

5.

Collecting a large evacuated tube using a 23-gauge needle

a)

May cause a hemolyzed specimen

b)

Is recommended for geriatric pt

c)

Is required for certain automated tests

d)

May cause a loss of vacuum in the tube

6.

Which of the following is the most acceptable order of tube draw?

a)

Light blue, green, and lavender

b)

Lavender, green, and light blue

c)

Green, light blue, and lavender

d)

Green, lavender, and light blue

7.

Which of the following needles has the largest diameter?

a)

16 gauge

b)

18 gauge

c)

20 gauge

d)

22 gauge

8.

The needle holder can be used as a needle safety device. True/ False

(a)  

9.

Which of the following is performed first when the last tube is collected?

a)

Gauze is placed over the needle.

b)

The filled tube is removed from the holder

c)

The needle is removed

d)

Pressure is applied to the site

10.

If a patient refuses to have blood drawn, the blood collector should

a)

Send another blood collector to collect the specimen.

b)

Report the situation to the supervisor.

c)

 

Return the requisition form to the laboratory.

d)

 

Ask someone to hold the patient and collect the specimen.

11.

Tubes are angled downward during blood collection to

a)

Ensure they fill completely

b)

Prevent patient discomfort

c)

Prevent blood refluxing into the needle

d)

Ensure mixing of blood and anticoagulant

12.

When using a syringe to fill blood collection tubes


a)

Fill all the evacuated tubes with the same needle used for collection.

b)

Allow the evacuated tubes to fill according to the vacuum in the tube; do not force the plunger.

c)

Activate the needle safety device after filling all the evacuated tubes with the blood transfer device.

d)

Use the blood transfer device only for potentially combative patients.

13.

Which of the following is not a preexamination variable?

a)

Patient age

b)

 

Patient height

c)

Posture

d)

Time of day

14.

Which of the following may require a surgical procedure to relieve pressure?

a)

nerve injury

b)

hematoma

c)

compartment syndrome

d)

iatrogenic anemia

15.

Patients are most likely to be in a basal state at

a)

6am

b)

10am

c)

2pm

d)

6pm

16.

The best reason why the majority of patient specimens are drawn in the early morning hours is because

a)

The patient will not be in the basal state early in the morning because this state requires several hours of normal physical activity by the patient.

b)

Patients should have consumed a meal no less than 3 hours prior to the time of collection.

c)

The patient will be in the basal state, having restrained from strenuous exercise and having fasted for approximately 12 hours.

d)

Patients are generally more agreeable with collection times scheduled early in the morning.

17.

When blood is inoculated into blood culture bottles using a winged blood collection set

a)

The anaerobic bottle is inoculated first.

b)

The safety device is activated first.

c)

The aerobic bottle is inoculated first.

d)

The volume of blood inoculated is increased.

18.

The most important consideration when collecting a blood culture is

a)

aseptic technique

b)

the puncture site

c)

minimizing the number of sticks

d)

the amount of blood collected

19.

To ensure patient safety and medication effectiveness, the blood levels of many therapeutic drugs are monitored. The specimens that are typically drawn to do this are

a)

A trough level drawn before the next scheduled dose is given and a peak level drawn after the dose is given

b)

A trough level drawn as a fasting specimen at 6:00 a.m. and a peak level drawn 2 hours later

c)

A peak level drawn before the next scheduled dose is given and a trough level drawn after the dose is given

d)

A peak level drawn as a fasting specimen at 6:00 a.m. and a trough level drawn 2 hours later

20.

Which of the following decreases plasma volume and can make locating veins difficult?

a)

muscle weakness

b)

pt with alzheimer's disease

c)

malnutrition

d)

arthritic pt

21.

Which of the following is not a microcollection container?

a)

heparin capillary tubes

b)

microtainer tubes

c)

micropipettes

d)

5mL syringe

22.

Labels can be wrapped around microcollection tubes or groups of microhematocrit tubes.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Scraping a microcollection tube across the puncture site is acceptable if the first drop of blood has been wiped away

a)

true

b)

false

24.

Puncture devices should be firmly placed on the skin before activation.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

It is acceptable to use povidone-iodine instead of alcohol for dermal punctures.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

To obtain the best flow of blood from a dermal puncture, the blood collector should

a)

Alternately apply and release pressure to the site

b)

Tightly squeeze the area above the site

c)

Frequently wipe the site with alcohol

d)

Firmly massage the area around the puncture site

27.

Using a lancet that produces a puncture deeper than recommended may cause

a)

Septicemia

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Specimen contamination

28.

Alternating between venipuncture and dermal puncture collection techniques is not recommended when comparing test results for

a)

bilirubin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

reticulocytes

d)

glucose

29.

Which is the right way to handle specimens for filter paper newborn screening tests?

a)

Stack specimens after drying

b)

Dry specimens in sunlight

c)

Suspend specimens horizontally to air dry.

d)

Stack specimens while they are drying

30.

A healthcare provider questions the low bilirubin result on a jaundiced baby. This discrepancy may be due to

a)

Puncturing too deeply into the heel

b)

Exposing the specimen to the bili light

c)

Collecting blood in an amber container

d)

Collecting too much blood

31.

Point-of-care testing (POCT) is not routinely performed in which of the following areas?

a)

Physician's office

b)

Intensive care unit

c)

Operating room

d)

Comprehensive laboratory

32.

A method used to monitor the accuracy of procedures is

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality management

c)

Proficiency testing

d)

Competency testing

33.

Prevention of common point-of-care testing (POCT) errors include all of the following except

a)

Correct patient identification

b)

Documentation of results

c)

Patient misconception

d)

Result interpretation

34.

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) requires documentation of competency assessment for personnel performing point-of-care testing (POCT).

a)

true

b)

false

35.

All of the following types of specimens can be analyzed with the HemoCue Glucose 201 Analyzer except

a)

capillary blood

b)

arterial blood

c)

venous blood

d)

urine

36.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of point-of-care testing (POCT)?

a)

Operators have few opportunities to maintain their skill level

b)

Ease of use

c)

Decreased specimen volume

d)

Compliance with the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)

37.

According to Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), a test that can be purchased over the counter for home use is called

a)

waived

b)

moderate complexity

c)

inaccurate

d)

high complexity

38.

A procedure manual differs from a package insert by containing

a)

Reagent storage requirements

b)

Sources of error

c)

Test procedure steps

d)

Instructions for recording results

39.

When are test results are available using the HbA1c analyzer?

a)

30 sec

b)

1 min

c)

2 min

d)

3 min

40.

Which of the following professionals cannot perform provider-performed microscopy procedures (PPMPs)?

a)

physicians

b)

phlebotomists

c)

nurse practitioners

d)

dentists

41.

Implanted ports are used only for administration of chemotherapy and cannot be used for blood collection.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

The most common all-purpose peripheral IV catheter is

a)

14 gauge

b)

16 gauge

c)

20 gauge

d)

24 gauge

43.

Blood can be routinely collected from a midline peripheral catheter.

a)

true

b)

false

44.

Why is it necessary to flush peripheral IVs and central venous catheters (CVCs)

a)

To maintain patency of the catheter

b)

To make sure medications are mixed

c)

To prevent hemolysis of specimen

d)

 

To ensure the catheter tip is clean

45.

Flushing peripheral IVs and central venous catheters (CVCs) is performed to maintain patency of the catheter.

a)

true

b)

false

46.

Central venous catheters (CVCs) are inserted into the

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Basilic vein

c)

radial artery

d)

Brachial artery

47.

Blood cannot be drawn from a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line that is infusing total parenteral nutrition (TPN).

a)

True

b)

False

48.

When drawing blood from a central venous catheter (CVC)

a)

A syringe larger than 20 mL must be used.

b)

Heparin is first injected into the catheter.

c)

The first 5 mL of blood is always discarded

d)

A double or triple lumen catheter must be present.

49.

20 mL of blood must be discarded or used for other tests before drawing blood for

a)

Blood cultures

b)

Coagulations tests

c)

Chemistry tests

d)

Hematology tests

50.

Peripheral access devices include peripheral IV lines and midline peripheral catheters.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What does the term venipuncture refer to in phlebotomy

a)

Drawing blood from a vein

b)

Inserting a needle into an artery

c)

Collecting blood from a capillary

d)

Administering medications through an IV line

52.

Which of the following terms refers to the liquid portion of blood after it has clotted and the clot has been removed?

a)

Plasma

b)

Serum

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Leukocytes

53.

What is the medical term for a bruise that occurs when the blood leaks out of a vein and into the surrounding tissue?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Petechiae

d)

Ecchymosis

54.

Which of the following terms describe the process of stopping bleeding

a)

Hemostasis

b)

Anticoagulation

c)

Coagulation

d)

Hemolysis

55.

What does the term anticoagulant refer to in phlebotomy

a)

A substance that prevents blood clotting

b)

A substance that promotes blood clotting

c)

A type of blood cell

d)

A method of collecting blood samples

56.

Which term describes the process of disinfecting the skin before performing venipuncture

a)

Sterilization

b)

Antiseptic

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Hemostasis

57.

What is the medical term for the liquid portion of blood that remains after clotting and contains clotting factors?

a)

Plasma

b)

Serum

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Leukocytes

58.

What does the term phlebotomist refer to

a)

A healthcare professional trained to draw blood

b)

A type of blood cell

c)

An instruments used to collect blood samples

d)

A medication used to prevent blood clotting

59.

Which is the term for the process of removing RBC from a blood sample to obtain a plasma sample?

a)

hemolysis

b)

centrifugation

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Coagulation

60.

What does the term hematoma refer to in phlebotomy

a)

Collecting of blood outside of blood vessels

b)

Clotting of blood within a blood vessel

c)

Abnormally low number of RBCs

d)

Increased number of WBCs in the blood

61.

What is the primary purpose of phlebotomy

a)

To administer medications

b)

To collect blood for testing

c)

To provide IV fluids

d)

To sterilize instruments

62.

Which vein is most commonly used for venipuncture

a)

Brachial vein

b)

femoral vein

c)

cephalic vein

d)

median cubital vein

63.

what is the proper angle for needle insertion during a venipuncture

a)

10-15 degrees

b)

15-30 degrees

c)

30-45 degrees

d)

45-60 degrees

64.

How should a phlebotomist identify a conscious pt before collecting blood

a)

Ask the nurse to verify

b)

Check the room number

c)

Ask the pt to state their name and DOB

d)

Use the pt clothing tag

65.

What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection

a)

wearing gloves

b)

using hand sanitizer

c)

washing hands with soap and water

d)

wearing a face shield

66.

what PPE is required when performing a blood draw

a)

gloves only

b)

gloves, lab coat, and googles

c)

gloves and lab coat

d)

gloves and face mask

67.

where should used needles be disposed of

a)

regular trash bin

b)

red biohazard bag

c)

sharps container

d)

sink disposal

68.

What should a phlebotomist do if they experience a needle stick injury

a)

Keep working and repot it later

b)

Wash the area, report to supervisor, and follow protocol

c)

finish the draw and go home

d)

ignore it unless symptoms appear

69.

which agency is responsible for enforcing workplace safety

a)

FDA

b)

OSHA

c)

CDC

d)

CMS

70.

what does CLIA regulate

a)

waste disposable

b)

medical billing

c)

laboratory testing quality

d)

health insurance claims

71.

The blood borne pathogens standard is issued by

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

OSHA

d)

NIH

72.

what is required before performing a venipuncture on a pt

a)

written consent from a physician

b)

implied or informed consent from a pt

c)

verbal order from a nurse

d)

approval from family

73.

which of the following could be considered negligence

a)

Documenting all steps of the procedure

b)

performing a blood draw without gloves

c)

explaining the procedure to the pt

d)

using hand sanitizer after removing gloves

74.

what is HIPAA designed to protect

a)

pt test results

b)

lab equipment

c)

phlebotomist licensing

d)

sample collecting order

75.

a pt refused a blood draw. what should the phlebotomist do

a)

restrain the pt

b)

notify the provider and document the refusal

c)

proceed with collection carefully

d)

leave and discard the supplies

76.

what is the first step when preparing to draw blood from a pt

a)

apply the tourniquet

b)

introduce yourself and verify patient identification

c)

select the correct needle size

d)

cleanse the site with alcohol

77.

which of the following is the proper order draw for venipuncture tubes

a)

blue, red, green, lavender

b)

red, green, blue, lavender

c)

blue, red, lavender, green

d)

lavender, blue, red, green

78.

what is the most common site for venipucture

a)

Basilic vein

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Median cubital vein

d)

Jugular vein

79.

what should you do if a pt has a history of fainting during blood draws

a)

ask them to lie down before the draw

b)

use a smaller needle

c)

have the pt drink extra fluids beforehand

d)

perform the draw quickly to minimize discomfort

80.

What is the purpose of applying a tourniquet

a)

to locate the vein

b)

to prevent blood from clotting

c)

to increase blood flow

d)

to cause the veins to dilate

81.

which of the following is the most important action to take before drawing blood from a pt

a)

ask the pt if they have any allergies

b)

verify the pt identity using at least 2 identifiers

c)

apply the tourniquet tightly to the arm

d)

sterilize the needle with alcohol

82.

what angle should the needle be inserted for a standard venipuncture

a)

15 to 30 degrees

b)

45 to 60 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

5 to 10 degrees

83.

what is the purpose of the antiseptic wipe used before drawing blood

a)

to increase blood flow

b)

to reduce the risk of infection

c)

to decrease pain

d)

to prevent the needle from bending

84.

what should you do if you accidentally puncture an artery instead of a vein

a)

remove the needle immediately and apply pressure

b)

continue to procedure as usual

c)

switch to the other arm

d)

use a larger needle

85.

what is the recommended way to dispose of a used needle

a)

throw it in the regular trash

b)

place it in a sharps container

c)

place it in a biohazard bag

d)

re cap the needle and dispose of it

86.

when should you release the tourniquet after the needle has been inserted

a)

after the blood flow starts

b)

immediately before inserting the needle

c)

when the needle is removed

d)

5 min after the blood has been drawn

87.

what is the term for the procedure of drawing blood from a vein

a)

phlebotomy

b)

venipuncture

c)

arterial puncture

d)

capillary collection

88.

what is the most appropriate action if a blood sample is collected but the pt start to feel faint

a)

ask the pt to sit up slowly

b)

remove the needle quickly and apply pressure

c)

ask the pt to take deep breaths

d)

immediately stop the procedure and call for help

89.

which of the following veins should be avoided for venipuncture

a)

median cubital vein

b)

cephalic vein

c)

basilic vein

d)

jugular vein

90.

what should you do if a hematoma develops during a blood draw

a)

remove the needle and apply pressure to the site

b)

leave the needle in place and apply ice

c)

continue with the procedure

d)

use a larger needle to draw blood

91.

what is the purpose of using a butterfly needle

a)

for smaller veins or when drawing blood from pediatric pt

b)

to speed up the blood draw process

c)

to minimize the pain for the pt

d)

for drawing arterial blood gases

92.

what should be done if blood flow is slow or stops during a venipuncture

a)

slightly adjust the angle of the needle

b)

withdraw the needle and try another site

c)

apply more pressure on the tourniquet

d)

ask the other to squeeze their fist

93.

what is the recommended method for ensuring for ensuring pt comfort during blood collection

a)

speak to the pt in a calm reassuring voice

b)

perform the blood draw quickly as possible

c)

ask the pt to relax after the needle insertion

d)

apply an ice pack before the procedure

94.

what is the correct procedure for collecting blood from a pediatric pt

a)

use a larger needle for faster collection

b)

perform the procedure with the child sitting up

c)

use a butterfly needle and avoid veins in the hand

d)

ask the child to lie down during the procedure

95.

what should you do if a blood collection tube breaks during a draw

a)

leave the area and notify a supervisor immediately

b)

continue the blood draw using another tube

c)

dispose of the broken tube and use a new one

d)

try to collect blood with another tube from the same site

96.

which of the following is a pre analytical variable that can affect lab results

a)

analyzer calibration

b)

specimen hemolysis

c)

physician interpretation

d)

data entry error

97.

which of the following pt condition can affect lab test results and should be documented

a)

pt marital status

b)

recent exercise

c)

favorite food

d)

religious beliefs

98.

what is the most likely cause of a hematoma during venipuncture

a)

using a butterfly needle

b)

excessive tourniquet time

c)

failure to apply adequate pressure after needle removal

d)

choosing a large vein

99.

which factor may cause hemoconcentration during venipuncture

a)

drawing blood without a tourniquet

b)

leaving the tourniquet on for more than 1 min

c)

collecting blood from a fasting pt

d)

using a 23 gauge needle

100.

A lipemia specimen appears

a)

clear and colorless

b)

dark red with clots

c)

cloudy or milky

d)

yellow and transparent

101.

which complication is most likely to occur if a pt is not properly identified before a blood draw

a)

vasovagal response

b)

hemolysis

c)

misdiagnosis due to incorrect results

d)

hematoma

102.

what should you do if a patient reports feeling faint during a blood draw

a)

continue the procedure quickly

b)

ignore the pt

c)

stop the procedure and lower their head

d)

draw blood while the pt is standing

103.

which is NOT a preexamination variable

a)

posture

b)

patients gender

c)

time of specimen collection

d)

tube inversion after collection

104.

A tourniquet should be left on for at least 3 min to ensure good blood flow

a)

true

b)

false

105.

Hemolysis can result from using a small need or shaking the tube too vigorously

a)

true

b)

false

106.

Drawing blood from a site with an IV may lead to inaccurate test results

a)

True

b)

False

107.

A fasting blood test requires the pt to avoid food for at least 8 hours

a)

True

b)

False

108.

syncope is a common complications during venipuncture

a)

true

b)

false

109.

preanalytical errors are responsible for the majority of laboratory mistakes

a)

True

b)

False

110.

which of the following is the preferred site for a dermal puncture in adults

a)

earlobe

b)

heel

c)

fingertip(middle or ring finger)

d)

thumb

111.

when collecting a blood culture which of the following steps must be completed first

a)

apply the tourniquet

b)

clean site with alcohol

c)

clean site with chlorhexidine

d)

insert the needle

112.

which of the following additives is typically used in blood culture bottles

a)

EDTA

b)

sodium citrate

c)

SPS (sodium polyanethol sulfonate)

d)

heparin

113.

what is the maximum acceptable depth for a heel stick in an infant

a)

2.4 mm

b)

1.0 mm

c)

2.0 mm

d)

1.5 mm

114.

which of the following tests requires a chain of custody

a)

glucose tolerance test

b)

blood culture

c)

blood alcohol level

d)

coagulation profile

115.

which blood specimen is most affected by hemolysis from squeezing during capillary collection

a)

hemoglobin

b)

bilirubin

c)

glucose

d)

potassium

116.

which tube should be filled first during a dermal puncture collection

a)

lavender top

b)

green top

c)

red top

d)

light blue top

117.

what is the purpose of performing a modified Allen test before arterial puncture

a)

to identify veins

b)

to ensure ulnar circulation is adequate

c)

to test oxygen saturation

d)

to check for infection

118.

how long should the site be cleaned with chlorhexidine for blood cultures

a)

15 sec

b)

30 sec

c)

1 min

d)

5 sec

119.

which of the following must be done when collecting blood for glucose tolerance testing

a)

use a butterfly needle

b)

collect in red top tubes

c)

record the exact time of collection

d)

store the specimen at room temp only

120.

what its the most common complication of arterial puncture

a)

infection

b)

nerve damage

c)

hematoma

d)

hemoconcentration

121.

which specimen must be protected form light

a)

blood cultures

b)

bilirubin

c)

electrolytes

d)

complete blood count

122.

what is the proper angle for arterial puncture in the radial artery

a)

15-20 degrees

b)

30-45 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

10-15 degrees

123.

when performing a capillary puncture on an infant where should it be done

a)

central heel

b)

posterior curvature of the heel

c)

lateral or medial plantar surface

d)

big toe

124.

which of the following conditions may require special handling of the blood specimen

a)

iron studies

b)

lipid panel

c)

cold agglutination test

d)

glucose test

125.

which vein is most commonly used for routine venipuncture

a)

basilic

b)

cephalic

c)

median cubital

d)

dorsal metacarpal

126.

before performing venipuncture the phlebotomist must always

a)

sanitize the gloves

b)

palpate the vein with the same hand used for the draw

c)

verify the pt identity using two identifiers

d)

ask the pt to confirm the test ordered

127.

what angle should the needle be inserted during a venipuncture in the antecubital area

a)

10-15 degrees

b)

15-30 degrees

c)

45-60 degrees

d)

60-90 degrees

128.

which action should be taken if a hematoma begins to form during venipuncture

a)

apply heat

b)

continue the draw

c)

remove needle and apply pressure

d)

ask the other to elevate arm

129.

what is the correct order of draw using an evacuated tubes

a)

red, blue, green, lavender, yellow

b)

blue, red, green, lavender, gray

c)

yellow, blue, red, green, lavender, grey

d)

red, yellow, blue, lavender, green

130.

why is the basilica vein used less frequently

a)

its harder to locate

b)

it rolls more easily

c)

its closer to major arteries and nerves

d)

its more superficial

131.

which of the following is NOT an acceptable reason to re-anchor the vein before needle insertion

a)

to prevent rolling

b)

to increase blood flow

c)

to improve visibility

d)

to stabilize the vein

132.

A tourniquet should not be left on for longer than

a)

30 sec

b)

1 min

c)

3 min

d)

5 min

133.

which action ensures site antisepsis before venipuncture

a)

wiping with gauze

b)

scrubbing with an alcohol pad in circular motion

c)

washing with soap and water

d)

using betaine for all pt

134.

what gauge needle is most commonly used for routine venipuncture

a)

14-16 gauge

b)

18 gauge

c)

21-22 gauge

d)

25-27 gauge

135.

which vein is typically used if the median cubital is not available

a)

subclavian

b)

basilic

c)

radial

d)

temporal

136.

what is the most important step before inserting the needle

a)

checking expiration date on tubes

b)

positioning the arm at a right angle

c)

releasing the tourniquet

d)

anchoring the vein

137.

during venipuncture what should be done if the pt reports a sharp sudden pain

a)

redirect the needle

b)

remove tourniquet and withdraw the needle immediately

c)

continue and finish quickly

d)

loosen the tourniquet only

138.

which of the following is a complication of improper needle angle

a)

polycythemia

b)

hemoconcentration

c)

nerve damage

d)

thrombocytopenia

139.

which technique reduces the risk of hemolysis

a)

vigorously shaking tubes

b)

using a smaller gauge needle

c)

allowing alcohol to dry

d)

drawing blood slowly through a syringe

140.

the purpose of inverting collection tubes is to

a)

mix anticoagulant with blood

b)

prevent tube contamination

c)

enhance clotting

d)

remove air bubbles

141.

which position is best for a pt prone to fainting

a)

sitting upright in a high chair

b)

standine

c)

supine

d)

leaning forwards

142.

what should be done immediately after needle removal

a)

apply tourniquet

b)

label the tube

c)

invert the tube

d)

apply gauze and pressure

143.

what does a collapsed vein indicate during venupincture

a)

the vein is thromboses

b)

the needle is too shallow

c)

the vacuum pressure was too strong

d)

the tourniquet was applied incorrectly

144.

which of the following is true about butterfly needle sets

a)

they are only used for arterial draws

b)

they are used for large antecubital veins

c)

they reduce trauma in small or fragile veins

d)

they cannot be used with vacuum tubes

145.

which of the following is a common point of care test used to monitor blood glucose levels

a)

PT/ INR

b)

HbA1c

c)

glucometer reading

d)

ESR

146.

which if the following specimens should be protected from light during point of care testing

a)

Ammonia

b)

bilirubin

c)

lactic acid

d)

glucose

147.

before performing a point of care test the phlebotomy tech must FIRST

a)

clean the site with provide iodine

b)

calibrate the machine

c)

perform hand hygiene and don gloves

d)

shake the reagent bottle

148.

the primary purpose of quality control testing on a POCT device is to

a)

prevent test duplicates

b)

sure accuracy and reliability of test results

c)

speed up the test process

d)

eliminate the need for venipuncture

149.

which of the following is a CLIA waived test that a phlebotomy tech may perform

a)

blood culture

b)

manual differential

c)

rapid strep test

d)

blood typing

150.

when collecting blood from a central venous catheter (CVC) the phlebotomy tech should

a)

use a butterfly needle directly into the port

b)

flush the Line with 10ML of sterile water first

c)

Discard the first 5mL of blood drawn

d)

Use the red top tube first

151.

what should be done after collecting a blood specimen from a vascular access device

a)

apply a tourniquet

b)

immediately disconnect the catheter

c)

flush the catheter with saline or heparin per protocol

d)

have the pt raise their arm

152.

when preparing to collect a blood sample from a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) the phlebotomy tech must

a)

use a lancet

b)

wear a sterile gown and mask

c)

clean the port with an alcohol pad for at least 15 sec

d)

skip the discard tube

153.

A POCT INR test is used to evaluate which of the following

a)

blood sugar

b)

WBCs count

c)

platelet function

d)

Coagulation status

154.

which of the following describes the discard tube when using a VAD

a)

it contains a clot activator

b)

it is always drawn last

c)

it prevent contamination of additive tubes

d)

it removes heparin or saline from the line

155.

a phlebotomy tech is performing POCT for cholesterol. which of the following actions is appropriate

a)

use the first drop of blood

b)

collect blood into an EDTA tube

c)

Ensure the pt has fasted for 12 hours

d)

Use a heparinized capillary tube

156.

which of the following is a potential complication when drawing blood from a central line

a)

hemoconcentration

b)

hemolysis

c)

hematoma

d)

air embolism

157.

the manufacturers instructions for a POCT reagent strip state it should be stored at room temp. which action violates the instructions

a)

storing tips In a closed container

b)

storing stips at 77 F

c)

storing strips in a refrigerator

d)

storing strips in a cabinet away from light

158.

which of the following is an appropriate action after performing a POCT with a glucometer

a)

reuse the lancet if its not visibly soiled

b)

record results in the pt chart

c)

dispose of test strips in the red biohazard bag

d)

store used lancets in a regular trash bin

159.

when using a VAD for blood draws which of the following is necessary to maintain line latency and prevent infections

a)

heparin lock the line after every draw

b)

replace the line with every blood draw

c)

use alcohol to clean for 5 sec

d)

avoid using gloves unless the other is immunocompromised

160.

which of the following POCT test requires the use of a capillary sample

a)

troponin

b)

urinalysis

c)

glucose

d)

blood culture

161.

which infection control step is critical before accessing a central line for blood collection

a)

wearing a face shield

b)

performing surgical scrub

c)

using chlorhexidine to disinfect the hub

d)

using sterile gauze to hold the line

162.

A POCT hemoglobin test is primarily used to assess

a)

WBCs

b)

Clotting time

c)

Anemia

d)

dehydration

163.

a phlebotomy tech should verify which of the following before using a POCT device

a)

whether the pt has eating

b)

that the POCT device has passed QC testing

c)

the physicians credentials

d)

the brand of lancet

164.

which steps should follow capillary puncture for POCT

a)

massage the site to increase blood flow

b)

wipe the site with a dry gauze

c)

allow alcohol to air dry before puncture

d)

use the second drop of blood for testing