Free Printable High-Risk Pregnancies and Fetal Diagnostics

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Worksheets

High-Risk Pregnancies and Fetal Diagnostics

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

Which of the following can relate to the causes of high-risk pregnancies?

a)

The pregnancy itself

b)

Medical conditions or injuries complicating the pregnancy

c)

Environmental hazards affecting the mother or fetus

d)

Maternal behaviors or lifestyles with negative effects

e)

None of the above

2.

Fill in the blank: High-risk pregnancies can occur because the woman has a ________ or injury that complicates the pregnancy.

a)

medical condition

b)

financial issue

c)

travel plan

d)

pet allergy

3.

Fill in the blank: High-risk pregnancies can result from ________ hazards that affect the mother or her fetus.

a)

environmental

b)

nutritional

c)

psychological

d)

genetic

4.

Fill in the blank: High-risk pregnancies can arise from maternal ________ or lifestyles that have a negative effect on the mother or fetus.

a)

behaviors

b)

height

c)

temperature

d)

hair color

5.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Colonoscopy

6.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Amniotic Fluid Volume

b)

Blood Glucose Level

c)

Liver Enzyme Test

d)

Electrocardiogram

7.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Estimation of Gestational Age

b)

Measurement of Blood Pressure

c)

Assessment of Maternal Weight

d)

Testing for Adult Diabetes

8.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

MRI

b)

X-ray

c)

Electrocardiogram

d)

Urinalysis

9.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Kick Count

b)

Blood Pressure Measurement

c)

Urine Sugar Test

d)

ECG

10.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Doppler Ultrasound blood flow assessment

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG) for the mother

c)

Spirometry for lung function

d)

Blood glucose monitoring

11.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

AFP testing

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Urinalysis

d)

Electrocardiogram

12.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Chorionic Villus sampling

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Urinalysis

13.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Cell-free DNA

b)

Blood glucose monitoring

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Spirometry

14.

What is one method of fetal diagnostics?

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Laparoscopy

d)

Colonoscopy

15.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

NST

b)

CBC

c)

ECG

d)

X-ray

16.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Vibroacoustic stimulation test

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c)

Eye examination

d)

Hearing test

17.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

CST

b)

CBC

c)

ECG

d)

X-ray

18.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

BPP

b)

CBC

c)

ECG

d)

X-ray

19.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Endoscopy

20.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Tests of fetal lung maturity

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Vision screening

d)

Hearing test

21.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio

b)

Blood urea nitrogen test

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Liver function test

22.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Shake Test

b)

Blood Pressure Test

c)

Eye Test

d)

Hearing Test

23.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Coombs Test

b)

Mantoux Test

c)

Rinne Test

d)

Snellen Test

24.

Name one prenatal test used during pregnancy.

a)

Glucose Tolerance Test

b)

Eye Exam

c)

Hearing Test

d)

Allergy Test

25.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Sudden gush of fluid from the vagina

b)

Mild headache after sleeping

c)

Slight increase in appetite

d)

Feeling thirsty after exercise

26.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Vaginal bleeding

b)

Mild headache

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Mild leg swelling

27.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Mild hunger

c)

Feeling energetic

d)

Normal urination

28.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Persistent vomiting

b)

Mild headache after sleep

c)

Slight increase in appetite

d)

Feeling thirsty after exercise

e)

Occasional leg cramps

29.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Epigastric pain

b)

Mild headache

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Mild leg cramps

30.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Edema of face and hands

b)

Mild headache

c)

Slight fatigue

d)

Increased appetite

31.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Severe, persistent headache

b)

Mild, occasional sneezing

c)

Slight increase in appetite

d)

Mild, occasional yawning

32.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Blurred vision or dizziness

b)

Mild hunger after meals

c)

Occasional yawning

d)

Slight increase in thirst

33.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Chills with fever over 38.0°C (100.4°F)

b)

Mild headache after sleeping

c)

Slight increase in appetite

d)

Occasional leg cramps

34.

Name one danger sign in pregnancy.

a)

Painful urination or reduced urine output

b)

Mild headache after sleeping well

c)

Slight increase in appetite

d)

Occasional leg cramps

35.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a pregnancy-related complication?

a)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Bleeding disorders & abortion

36.

Fill in the blank: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by excessive _________.

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

urination

c)

salivation

d)

sweating

37.

Which of the following is a manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Significant weight loss (more than 5% of prepregnant weight)

c)

High blood sugar

d)

Decreased urine output

38.

Dehydration in hyperemesis gravidarum can be evidenced by a dry tongue and mucous membranes, decreased turgor of the skin, scant and concentrated urine, and a high serum hematocrit level (CBC).

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which laboratory test is used to rule out other causes of hyperemesis gravidarum?

a)

Blood glucose test

b)

Thyroid test

c)

Liver function test

d)

Urinalysis

40.

Fill in the blank: Nursing care for hyperemesis gravidarum includes ________ & avoid triggers/I&O daily.

a)

identify

b)

increase

c)

ignore

d)

reduce

41.

Which of the following are psychological factors that may contribute to hyperemesis gravidarum?

a)

Anxiety and emotional stress

b)

High blood pressure and diabetes

c)

Iron deficiency and dehydration

d)

Physical trauma and infection

42.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum?

a)

Small frequent meals

b)

Large infrequent meals

c)

Small sips of liquids

d)

Sit upright after meals

43.

Which type of abortion is characterized by some vaginal bleeding and efforts made to maintain pregnancy to viability (bed rest)?

a)

Threatened

b)

Inevitable

c)

Incomplete

d)

Complete

44.

Which type of abortion involves increased bleeding, cervix dilation, and requires bed rest and awaiting evacuation?

a)

Threatened

b)

Inevitable

c)

Incomplete

d)

Missed

45.

Bleeding, dilation of cervix, passage of tissue, and D&E or vacuum extraction are features of which type of abortion?

a)

Complete

b)

Incomplete

c)

Missed

d)

Recurrent

46.

Passage of all products of conception, cervix closes, and monitoring the patient are features of which type of abortion?

a)

Complete

b)

Threatened

c)

Missed

d)

Inevitable

47.

In which type of abortion does the fetus die but is not expelled, and the uterus is evacuated by D&E?

a)

Missed

b)

Incomplete

c)

Recurrent

d)

Threatened

48.

Which type of abortion is defined by 2 or more consecutive spontaneous abortions and requires cerclage and monitoring the patient?

a)

Threatened

b)

Inevitable

c)

Recurrent

d)

Complete

49.

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Lower abdominal pain

b)

Light vaginal bleeding

c)

High fever

d)

Possible sudden severe lower abdominal pain if tube ruptures

50.

If the tube ruptures in ectopic pregnancy, which of the following symptoms may be observed?

a)

Vaginal bleeding

b)

Signs of hypovolemic shock

c)

Shoulder pain

d)

All of the above

51.

Fill in the blank: In ectopic pregnancy, ________ pain may also be felt if the tube ruptures.

a)

shoulder

b)

back

c)

leg

d)

chest

52.

Which of the following is a sign of hypovolemic shock?

a)

Fetal heart rate changes

b)

Increased urinary output

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Warm, dry skin

53.

Fill in the blank: A rising, weak pulse (tachycardia) is a sign of _____________.

a)

hypovolemic shock

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

bradycardia

54.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of hypovolemic shock?

a)

Shallow, irregular respirations

b)

Falling blood pressure

c)

Pale skin or mucous membranes

d)

Increased urinary output

55.

Fill in the blank: Decreased or absent urinary output (usually less than 30 mL/hr) is a sign of _____________.

a)

hypovolemic shock

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

asthma

56.

Cold, clammy skin is a symptom of hypovolemic shock.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following is a manifestation of hydatidiform mole molar pregnancy?

a)

Rapid uterine growth

b)

Decreased levels of hCG

c)

Late development of GH

d)

Normal fetal heart activity

58.

Fill in the blank: Failure to detect fetal heart activity is a sign of _____________.

a)

hydatidiform mole molar pregnancy

b)

ectopic pregnancy

c)

placenta previa

d)

gestational diabetes

59.

Which of the following is a treatment for hydatidiform mole molar pregnancy?

a)

Uterine evacuation

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Laparoscopic examination

d)

No action

60.

Fill in the blank: A distinct 'snowstorm' pattern on ultrasound with no evidence of a developing fetus is characteristic of _____________.

a)

hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy)

b)

ectopic pregnancy

c)

placenta previa

d)

threatened abortion

61.

Higher-than-expected levels of hCG are seen in hydatidiform mole molar pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following is a characteristic of placenta previa?

a)

A) Abnormal implantation of placenta

b)

B) Dark-red bleeding with pain

c)

C) Normal implantation of placenta

d)

D) Uterine rigidity

63.

Placenta previa is associated with which type of bleeding?

a)

Bright-red, painless bleeding

b)

Dark-red, painful bleeding

c)

No bleeding

d)

Bright-red, painful bleeding

64.

Fill in the blank: The three degrees of placenta previa are ________, partial, and total.

a)

Marginal

b)

Central

c)

Lateral

d)

Anterior

65.

Which of the following is NOT a degree of placenta previa?

a)

Marginal

b)

Partial

c)

Total

d)

Central

66.

Abruptio placentae is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Normal implantation of placenta

b)

Bright-red, painless bleeding

c)

Abnormal implantation of placenta

d)

No bleeding

67.

In abruptio placentae, the bleeding is typically:

a)

Bright-red and painless

b)

Dark-red with pain

c)

No bleeding

d)

Bright-red with pain

68.

Which of the following is an important step in the care of a pregnant woman with excessive bleeding?

a)

Document blood loss

b)

Ignore vital signs

c)

Avoid oxygen administration

d)

Delay newborn resuscitation

69.

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is triggered by:

a)

Clotting cascade

b)

Infection

c)

Surgery

d)

Oxygen administration

70.

Fill in the blank: In DIC, blood clot forms behind the placenta consuming ________ factors.

a)

clotting

b)

growth

c)

digestive

d)

hormonal

71.

What is not essential to the diagnosis of gestational hypertension, as many pregnant women experience it unrelated to blood pressure?

a)

Edema

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Elevated blood pressure

d)

Seizures

72.

HELLP syndrome is a variant of gestational hypertension that involves which of the following?

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Elevated liver enzymes

c)

Low platelets

d)

All of the above

73.

Unrelenting headache is a manifestation of gestational hypertension affecting which system?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Musculoskeletal system

74.

Visual disturbances in gestational hypertension are related to which organ?

a)

Eyes

b)

Liver

c)

Kidneys

d)

Heart

75.

Decreased blood flow to the kidneys in gestational hypertension reduces urine production, a condition known as _________.

a)

Oliguria

b)

Polyuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Proteinuria

76.

Pulmonary edema is a manifestation of gestational hypertension affecting which system?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Gastrointestinal system

c)

Urinary tract

d)

Central nervous system

77.

Which medication should be avoided when administering medications for hypertension in pregnant women?

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Nifedipine

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Hydralazine

78.

Rh-negative blood type is a(n) ________ trait.

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Sex-linked dominant

d)

Sex-linked recessive

79.

Rh incompatibility can only occur if the woman is ________ and the fetus is ________.

a)

Rh negative, Rh positive

b)

Rh positive, Rh negative

c)

Rh positive, Rh positive

d)

Rh negative, Rh negative

80.

The leaking of fetal Rh-positive blood into the Rh-negative mother's circulation causes her body to respond by making ________ to destroy the Rh-positive erythrocytes.

a)

Antibodies

b)

Enzymes

c)

Hormones

d)

Platelets

81.

What is required to be given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery to the mother to prevent Rh incompatibility?

a)

RhoGAM

b)

Insulin

c)

Magnesium sulfate

d)

Oxytocin

82.

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is classified as which of the following if it precedes pregnancy?

a)

Gestational DM

b)

Pregestational DM

c)

Type 2 DM

d)

None of the above

83.

Which type of diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and genetic predisposition?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Gestational DM

d)

None of the above

84.

Glucose intolerance with onset during pregnancy is known as ________.

a)

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

b)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Diabetes Insipidus

85.

In true GDM, glucose usually returns to normal by how many weeks postpartum?

a)

6 weeks

b)

2 weeks

c)

12 weeks

d)

24 weeks

86.

Which hormone is NOT mentioned as affecting glucose metabolism during pregnancy?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Insulinase

d)

Testosterone

87.

What is the major risk for congenital anomalies from maternal hyperglycemia during pregnancy?

a)

Increased resistance of cells to insulin

b)

Increased speed of insulin breakdown

c)

During the embryonic period of development

d)

None of the above

88.

Name one risk factor linked to gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).

a)

Maternal obesity (>90 kg or 198 lb)

b)

Low birth weight (<2.5 kg)

c)

Paternal age over 50 years

d)

Daily vitamin C supplementation

89.

What is the expected finding in a patient with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Leukopenia

d)

Hyponatremia

90.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom listed for hyperglycemia in the provided notes?

a)

A) Polyphagia

b)

B) Polydipsia

c)

C) Polyurea

d)

D) Hypoglycemia

91.

List two risks to the fetus associated with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) as mentioned in the notes.

a)

Macrosomia, Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypertension, Polycythemia

c)

Oligohydramnios, Microcephaly

d)

Congenital heart block, Thrombocytopenia

92.

According to the notes, what should be monitored to manage GDM?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Blood glucose ketones

c)

Heart rate

d)

Oxygen saturation

93.

Fill in the blank: The diet recommended for managing GDM is a _______ diet.

a)

Diabetic

b)

Keto

c)

Paleo

d)

High-fat

94.

Which medication is most commonly used for women in labor with GDM, as per the notes?

a)

Oral hypoglycemics

b)

Regular insulin

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antihypertensives

95.

Breastfeeding should be encouraged for women with GDM according to the notes.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

What are two possible conditions a neonate may have if the mother had GDM, as listed in the notes?

a)

Hypoglycemia, Respiratory distress

b)

Hypercalcemia, Polycythemia

c)

Jaundice, Hypotension

d)

Sepsis, Anemia

97.

During labor, what should be assessed hourly in women with GDM?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Fetal heart rate

d)

Oxygen saturation

98.

What are the manifestations of heart disease during pregnancy?

a)

Increased levels of clotting factors

b)

Increased risk of thrombosis

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

99.

If a woman's heart cannot handle increased workload during pregnancy, what condition results?

a)

Congestive heart failure (CHF)

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Placenta previa

100.

The fetus suffers from reduced placental blood flow if the mother has heart disease during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

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