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Worksheets

Cardiology

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is:

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Ischemia

c)

Myocardial infarct

d)

Pericarditis

2.

Blood is carried to capillaries in the myocardium by way of:

a)

Coronary veins

b)

The coronary sinus

c)

The fossa ovalis

d)

Coronary arteries

3.

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change affecting the heart?

a)

Fibrosis of cardiac muscle

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Thinning of the valve flaps

d)

Decline in cardiac reserve

4.

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?

a)

Cold, clammy skin

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Rapidly falling blood pressure

d)

Rapid, thready pulse

5.

Secondary hypertension can be caused by:

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Obesity

c)

Stress

d)

Smoking

6.

Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the:

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Coronary circulation

d)

Pulmonary circulation

7.

Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?

a)

Takayasu arteritis

b)

Churg-Strauss syndrome

c)

Kawasaki disease

d)

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

e)

Temporal (giant cell) arteritis

8.

Stable angina, the most common form of angina pectoris, is caused by:

a)

Stenosis of coronary arteries

b)

Ruptured atheromas

c)

Thrombi overlying partially ruptured atheromas

d)

Lipid-rich atheromas

e)

No pathologic changes in the coronary arteries

9.

Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with a myocardial infarction?

a)

Creatine kinase

b)

Aspartate aminotransferase

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Creatine kinase M-B fraction

e)

Troponin T

10.

The most common cause of sudden cardiac death, defined as occurring within 1 hour after onset of the first symptoms, in 50-year-old men is:

a)

Atherosclerotic coronary heart disease

b)

Cardiomyopathy

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Aortic valve stenosis

e)

Hypertensive heart disease

11.

The most common cause of mitral stenosis in adults is:

a)

Mitral annular calcification

b)

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis

c)

Rheumatic endocarditis

d)

Floppy mitral valve

e)

Bacterial endocarditis

12.

Cardiac disease is found in 20% to 40% of patients with longstanding crippling rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most common cardiac disease encountered in patients who have rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Valvular endocarditis

b)

Mural endocarditis

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Valvular calcifications

e)

Myocarditis

13.

The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the:

a)

Supravalvular endocardium

b)

Coronary sinus

c)

Fossa ovalis

d)

Septum primum

e)

Sinus venosus

14.

When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?

a)

General vasodilation

b)

Decreased venous return

c)

Decreased peripheral resistance

d)

Increased heart rate

15.

A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:

a)

Heparin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

d)

Streptokinase

16.

The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:

a)

Total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis

b)

Temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery

c)

Cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body

d)

Irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries

17.

The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:

a)

A disruption of the heart conduction system

b)

An imbalance in calcium ions

c)

Atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus

d)

An infection of the heart muscle

18.

Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:

a)

Decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias

b)

Reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions

c)

Decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques

d)

Reducing the risk of blood clotting

19.

Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?

a)

The ventricles contract before the atria

b)

Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation

c)

Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium

d)

Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node

20.

The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?

a)

The cessation of all cardiac function

b)

Missing a ventricular contraction

c)

Condition where cardiac output is less than the demand

d)

A decreased circulating blood volume

21.

Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?

a)

Infarction in the right atrium

b)

Chronic pulmonary disease

c)

Incompetent tricuspid heart valve

d)

Uncontrolled essential hypertension

22.

The definition of congestive heart failure is:

a)

The demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply

b)

Cessation of all cardiac activity

c)

Insufficient circulating blood in the body

d)

Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

23.

Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include:

a)

Severe chest pain and tachycardia

b)

Frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum

c)

Edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly

d)

Orthopnea, fatigue, increased blood pressure

24.

Compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure include:

a)

Slow cardiac contractions

b)

Fatigue and cold intolerance

c)

Decreased erythropoietin secretion

d)

Increased renin and aldosterone secretions

25.

Effects that may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug include:

a)

Increased release of renin

b)

Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

c)

Increasing systemic vasoconstriction

d)

Blockage of an angiotensin receptor site

26.

A sign of aortic stenosis is:

a)

Congestion in the liver, spleen, and legs

b)

A heart murmur

c)

Increased cardiac output

d)

Flushed face and headache

27.

Cyanosis occurs in children with tetralogy of Fallot because:

a)

The circulation is sluggish (slow) throughout the system

b)

The pulmonary circulation is overloaded and congested

c)

A large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated

d)

More carbon dioxide is present in the circulating blood

28.

The initial effect on the heart in cases of rheumatic fever is:

a)

Acute inflammation in all layers of the heart due to abnormal immune response

b)

Infection in the heart by hemolytic streptococci

c)

Highly virulent microbes causing vegetations on the heart valves

d)

Septic emboli obstructing coronary arteries

29.

Pericarditis causes a reduction in cardiac output as a result of which of the following?

a)

Delays in the conduction system, interfering with cardiac rhythm

b)

Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity, which decreases ventricular filling

c)

Incompetent valves, which allow regurgitation of blood

d)

Weak myocardial contractions due to a friction rub

30.

A source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain could be the:

a)

Coronary artery

b)

Femoral vein

c)

Carotid artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

31.

Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the:

a)

Peripheral arteries in the legs

b)

Kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye

c)

Liver, spleen, and stomach

d)

Aorta and coronary arteries

32.

The term intermittent claudication refers to:

a)

Sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves

b)

Dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers

c)

Chest pain related to ischemia

d)

Ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise

33.

An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal:

a)

Movement of the heart valves

b)

Change in central venous pressure

c)

Activity in the conduction system

d)

Blood flow in coronary arteries

34.

The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is:

a)

Pressure on adjacent organs or structures

b)

Early diagnosis and repair

c)

Thrombus formation and pulmonary embolus

d)

Rupture and hemorrhage

35.

The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure is/are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) of right-sided failure is/are _______.

a)

Swelling of the ankles and abdomen; chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles

c)

Coughing up frothy sputum; hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

d)

Palpitations and periodic chest pain; shortness of breath on exertion