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WorksheetsFinal Exam - Digital Business Fundamental
Total questions: 74
Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is Human Resource Management?
a)
The process of planning and managing a company's marketing strategy
b)
The process involving the selection of employees for specific positions
c)
The process of attracting, developing, and retaining a talented workforce
d)
The process of managing a company's finances and budget
e)
The process of managing the distribution of a company's goods and services
2.
What is meant by ‘Person-job fit’?
a)
The suitability between individual skills and characteristics with the work being done.
b)
Assessment of how individuals adapt to the organizational culture.
c)
Assessing individual competencies in future work.
d)
The suitability between individuals and the values that exist in the company.
e)
The suitability between individual skills and expected social values.
3.
What is the basis of HR planning?
a)
Performance appraisal
b)
Job analysis
c)
Company profit measurement
d)
Daily productivity monitoring
e)
Annual budget preparation
4.
An interview that asks how a candidate would act in a particular situation is known as:
a)
Open interviews
b)
Technical interviews
c)
Behavioral interviews
d)
Situational interviews
e)
Informal interviews
5.
What is meant by ‘merit pay’?
a)
Rewards in the form of bonuses based on individual performance assessments
b)
Periodic salary increases without considering performance
c)
Payment based on sales results
d)
Payment based on working hours
e)
Annual payment based on company profits
6.
Which of the following is the primary objective of performance management systems?
a)
Determining the company's operational costs
b)
Arranging basic salaries based on work experience
c)
Assessing and improving individual achievements and performance
d)
Identifying financial resources for expansion
e)
Increasing the number of employee working hours
7.
In performance appraisal, what is meant by ‘Leniency error’?
a)
Tendency to give very negative ratings
b)
Tendency to give very positive ratings in order to avoid giving negative feedback
c)
Judging only based on employee financial achievements
d)
Making ratings only based on recent performance
e)
Making ratings without looking at employee achievements
8.
What is ‘360 degree feedback’?
a)
A process that only involves superiors in performance appraisals
b)
A process that involves self-assessment by employees
c)
A process that involves assessments from superiors, co-workers, subordinates, and even customers
d)
An assessment process conducted by HR without involving direct managers
e)
An assessment process based on individual sales data
9.
What is the purpose of ‘Job Rotation’?
a)
Keeping employees in the same position throughout their career
b)
Giving employees the opportunity to work in different positions to improve their skills
c)
Improving work-life balance
d)
Providing a fixed salary without changes
e)
Selecting the best candidates for career development
10.
What is meant by ‘affirmative action’?
a)
Actions to give preference to underrepresented groups in employment
b)
Actions to reduce working hours in companies
c)
Actions to increase wages for female workers
d)
Training programs for career development of managers
e)
Programs to minimize discrimination in interviews
11.
In performance management, what is ‘Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales’ (BARS)?
a)
Assessments based on individual attitudes towards work
b)
Behavior-based assessments that describe the level of work performance in a particular job
c)
Assessments that involve only quantitative measurements of achievement
d)
Assessments that are conducted anonymously by co-workers
e)
Time-based assessments that are used to see work efficiency
12.
Accounting functions emphasize more on accrual basis
a)
True
b)
False
13.
The company's goal from a financial management perspective is to maximize profit
a)
True
b)
False
14.
Maximizing the company's value can be seen from maximizing the company's stock price
a)
True
b)
False
15.
The following are alternative equity funding that can be used by a business, except…
a)
Issuance of bonds
b)
Issuance of common stock
c)
Retained earnings
d)
Issuance of preferred stock
16.
Common stock and preferred stock differ in the following ways, except…
a)
Dividends
b)
Due date
c)
Voting rights
d)
Claims on profits and assets
17.
The following are included in the company's current assets…
a)
Accounts payable
b)
Accounts receivable
c)
Long-term debt
d)
Retained earnings
18.
The company's decision to determine what assets to purchase for its operational activities is called a decision…
a)
Funding
b)
Profit sharing
c)
Investment
d)
Mergers and acquisitions
19.
The market where securities are traded and transacted between investors is called…
a)
Secondary market
b)
Primary market
c)
Over the counter market
d)
Virtual market
20.
The process of a company first issuing securities to be traded to the public is called…
a)
Seasoned public offering
b)
Secondary public offering
c)
Initial public offering
d)
Right issue
21.
Management accounting focuses more on presenting accounting data and information for external purposes.
a)
True
b)
False
22.
Financial accounting presents accounting data and information for the following external parties, except…
a)
Investor
b)
Government
c)
Company management
d)
Creditors
23.
The cost of capital from debt is relatively cheaper compared to the cost of capital from equity.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
Shareholders bear lower risks compared to bondholders.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
The following are the main decisions that must be taken by a financial manager in a business, except…
a)
Investment Decisions
b)
Financing Decisions
c)
Restructuring Decisions
d)
Profit Sharing Decisions
26.
The financial perspective views that investors tend to be “risk-averse” which means that if asked to bear a higher risk they will not ask for additional returns.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
The order of funding sources from the cheapest to the most expensive is…
a)
Debt, Preferred Stock, Common Stock
b)
Preferred Stock, Common Stock, Debt
c)
Debt, Common Stock, Preferred Stock
d)
Common Stock, Debt, Preferred Stock
28.
Assets that take more than a year to be converted into cash are called…
a)
Current Asset
b)
Fixed Asset
c)
Intangible Asset
d)
Tangible Asset
29.
Financial managers in a company play a greater role as controllers while accountants play a greater role as treasurers.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
The financial market that trades financial assets that have a maturity of less than a year is called…
a)
Capital Market
b)
Financial Market
c)
Stock Exchange
d)
Money Market
31.
Money today is less valuable than money in the future.
a)
True
b)
False
32.
The following are characteristics of bonds except…
a)
Does not have a maturity period
b)
Pays coupons
c)
Has a par value
d)
Is a debt instrument
33.
The following are non-bank financial institutions, except…
a)
Insurance Company
b)
Custodian
c)
Venture
d)
Capital Fintech
34.
The following is not a weakness of debt financing is…
a)
Increased financial risk
b)
Tax deductible
c)
Has a maturity period
d)
Interest on debt is a legal obligation
35.
Preferred shares are shares that usually distribute dividends in a fixed amount, have voting rights, and have less priority than common stockholders in the event of liquidation
a)
True
b)
False
36.
If the company records a profit and the profit is not divided into dividends, it will reduce the company's equity.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
The financial ratio that shows the company's ability to pay short-term obligations that have matured is called…
a)
Solvency ratio
b)
Liquidity ratio
c)
Profitability ratio
d)
Market ratio
38.
The ratio of profits distributed as dividends is called…
a)
Dividend per share
b)
Earning per share
c)
Dividend payout ratio
d)
Price earning ratio
39.
A funding instrument that is a long-term debt instrument where the issuer is required to pay coupons periodically until maturity and repay the nominal value at maturity is called…
a)
Stock
b)
Warrant
c)
Bond
d)
Derivative
40.
A non-bank financial institution is an institution that carries out business activities in the financial sector, but does not provide services such as Savings or Giro.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
The following are the parties involved in an IPO, except…
a)
Investment bank
b)
Underwriter
c)
Securities custodian
d)
Pegadaian
42.
PT Sehat Abadi sells organic drinks. Their income statement shows Rp 500 million in revenue, Rp 320 million in cost of goods sold, and Rp 100 million business expenses. What is their gross profit?
a)
Rp 80 million
b)
Rp 180 million
c)
Rp 320 million
d)
Rp 500 million
43.
Current assets can include inventory and accounts receivable.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Warung Maju uses manual bookkeeping. Their accountant misplaces a large number of receipts. What’s the first step in correcting this?
a)
Post to the ledger
b)
Restart the accounting cycle
c)
Examine source documents
d)
Adjust income tax
45.
A company’s liabilities increased by Rp 150 million, and its equity remained unchanged. Which must also be true?
a)
Assets decreased
b)
Revenues increased
c)
Assets increased
d)
Costs increased
46.
Warung Serba Ada wants to open a second location. The expected cost is Rp 250 million. The owner estimates increased revenue of Rp 30 million/month and extra expenses of Rp 10 million/month.
How many months are needed to recover the initial investment?
a)
12.5 months
b)
25 months
c)
18 months
d)
10 months
47.
Warung Serba Ada wants to open a second location. The expected cost is Rp 250 million. The owner estimates increased revenue of Rp 30 million/month and extra expenses of Rp 10 million/month.
What financial risk should the owner consider before expanding?
a)
Price of the building
b)
Whether employees take breaks
c)
Consistency of projected cash inflows
d)
Age of current store
48.
What is the primary goal of marketing
a)
Selling at maximum price
b)
Telling stories that entertain
c)
Delivering value to customers at a profit
d)
Increasing shareholder wealth
49.
Customer relationship management (CRM) is focused solely on the transactional relationship with customers.
a)
True
b)
False
50.
Which of the following is not part of the original 4Ps in the marketing mix?
a)
Product
b)
Price
c)
People
d)
Promotion
51.
In STP, what does "P" stand for?
a)
Product
b)
Positioning
c)
Pricing
d)
Planning
52.
Which marketing orientation focuses on understanding and satisfying customer needs?
a)
Production orientation
b)
Sales orientation
c)
Market orientation
d)
Product orientation
53.
What is a key characteristic of consumer-driven marketing?
a)
Focus on pushing products to market
b)
Targeting managers rather than consumers
c)
Understanding customer needs and tailoring solutions
d)
Ignoring market research
54.
Which segmentation strategy targets multiple segments with different marketing efforts?
a)
Total market approach
b)
Concentration approach
c)
Multisegment approach
d)
Geographic approach
55.
Marketing research is only done once when you want to develop a product.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
Positioning refers to how a brand is perceived relative to competitors.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
A health drink brand wants to target fitness-conscious millennials in Jakarta. They offer organic ingredients, stylish packaging, and partner with local gyms.
→ What kind of positioning is being used?
a)
Price-based
b)
Product characteristics
c)
Competition-based
d)
Use/application-based
58.
A new smartphone company offers a single model with different marketing campaigns—one aimed at gamers, another at professionals.
→ Which target market strategy is being used?
a)
Total market
b)
Multisegment
c)
Concentration
d)
Niche
59.
A shoe company advertises its products as more durable and lightweight than Nike or Adidas.
→ Which type of positioning is this?
a)
Geographic
b)
Pricing
c)
Competition-based
d)
Cultural
60.
A local food delivery app noticed a sudden drop in users. They decide to send a survey and analyze complaints.
→ What stage of marketing research is this?
a)
Developing the plan
b)
Analyzing data
c)
Presenting results
d)
Defining the problem
61.
Segmentation is the process of dividing a market into distinct groups with different needs and characteristics.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
In which stage of the product life cycle would the company likely experience the highest marketing expenses to build awareness?
a)
Introduction
b)
Growth
c)
Maturity
d)
Decline
63.
Which of the following refers to "Consumer Driven Marketing"?
a)
Listening to consumers to create products
b)
Focusing only on increasing revenue
c)
Ignoring customer feedback
d)
Reducing prices to attract more customers
64.
Customer Relationship Management (CRM) systems are used only for managing customer complaints.
a)
True
b)
False
65.
Nike offers shoes that combine advanced technology and stylish design to appeal to athletes and casual wearers.
→ What marketing strategy does Nike use here?
a)
Price competition
b)
Product differentiation
c)
Cost leadership
d)
Mass marketing
66.
McDonald’s adapts its menu to local tastes and preferences in international markets.
→ Which marketing strategy is McDonald's using?
a)
Product localization
b)
Market segmentation
c)
Brand positioning
d)
Mass marketing
67.
Red Bull markets itself as the drink that provides energy for extreme sports enthusiasts.
→ Which marketing approach is Red Bull using?
a)
Product use positioning
b)
Price-based positioning
c)
Market segmentation
d)
Quality-based positioning
68.
Which of the following is a key advantage of online marketing over traditional marketing?
a)
It offers a broad reach at a lower cost
b)
It requires no specialized tools or knowledge
c)
It is guaranteed to bring in more sales
d)
It is less competitive
69.
Which of the following is an example of “affiliate marketing”?
a)
Offering discounts for referring friends to a service
b)
Buying paid advertisements on Google Search
c)
Using content to attract organic search traffic
d)
Paying a commission to partners who drive sales via their links
70.
Which of these strategies is commonly used in retargeting?
a)
Targeting users based on their previous search history
b)
Serving ads to users who have previously visited your site but did not make a purchase
c)
Offering discounts to new customers only
d)
Targeting audiences based on their location
71.
Which of the following is an example of influencer marketing?
a)
Running a sale on products through email campaigns
b)
Using a celebrity or popular social media figure to promote a product
c)
Offering discounts through a customer loyalty program
d)
Purchasing keywords on search engines
72.
Amazon organizes Prime Day, offering significant discounts to Prime members. They also launch exclusive deals for customers who use Amazon’s mobile app.
→ Which marketing strategy is Amazon implementing?
a)
Customer retention
b)
Promotion
c)
Product development
d)
Market segmentation
73.
Spotify offers two plans: Free and Premium. Free members get ads, while Premium members get ad-free music and additional features.
→ What marketing strategy is Spotify using to differentiate between the two plans?
a)
Market segmentation
b)
Product development
c)
Price-based positioning
d)
Promotion
74.
A company prefer to choose capital from bond with cost of capital of 6.45% than capital from retained earnings with cost of capital of 9.76%
a)
True
b)
False
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