Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

A&P I Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the following basic terminology

a)

joint

1.

arthro

b)

cartilage

2.

chondro

c)

bone

3.

osteo

2.

Match the following basic terminology

a)

together

1.

syn

b)

through

2.

dia

c)

slight

3.

amphi

3.

The place of movement where 2 or more bones meet is known as a

a)

joint

b)

bone

c)

origin

d)

insertion

e)

muscle

4.

Almost all bones in the body (a)   with at least one other bone.

5.

Range of motion for a joint describes

a)

the full movement potential of a joint

b)

the morphological features of a joint

c)

the structural classification for a joint

d)

how stable a joint will be

6.

Stability and mobility of joints is inversely proportional.

a)

true

b)

false

7.

The structural classification of joints is based on

a)

type of tissue between the bones

b)

amount of movement

c)

type of muscle attaching the bones

d)

amount of stability

8.

The functional classification of joints is based on

a)

type of tissue between the bones

b)

amount of movement

c)

type of muscle attaching the bones

d)

amount of stability

9.

Match the following structural classification of joints with their description

a)

held by fibrous membranes; no cartilage or joint cavity; syn- or amphi-arthrotic

1.

fibrous

b)

held by fibrous CT; hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage; no joint cavity; syn- or amphi-arthrotic

2.

cartilaginous

c)

held together by fibrous connective tissue; hyaline or fibrocartilage; joint cavity present; diarthrotic

3.

synovial

10.

Which of the following is NOT a type of fibrous joint?

a)

suture

b)

synostosis

c)

gomphosis

d)

syndesmosis

e)

symphysis

11.

Which of the following are types of cartilaginous joint?

a)

synostosis

b)

synchondrosis

c)

syndesmosis

d)

symphysis

12.

Which of the following is NOT a type of synovial joint?

a)

suture

b)

plane

c)

saddle

d)

ball and socket

e)

hinge

13.

Match the following functional classifications of joints

a)

no movement permitted; high degree of stability; protection

1.

synarthrosis

b)

slight movement permitted; more ROM than synarthroses, and stronger than diarthroses

2.

amphiarthrosis

c)

freely moveable; wide ROM; typical of joints of appendages

3.

diarthrosis

14.

Match the following examples with their functional classification for joints

a)

cranial sutures; manubriosternal joint

1.

synarthrosis

b)

discs between vertebral bodies; pubic symphysis

2.

amphiarthrosis

c)

hip joint; elbow joint

3.

diarthrosis

15.

Match the following types of fibrous joints

a)

edges interlocked and bound by dense fibrous CT

1.

sutures

b)

bones fuse and boundary disappears

2.

synostosis

c)

"peg-in-socket" joint connected by periodontal ligament

3.

gomphosis

d)

bones connecte by interosseous ligament or membrane

4.

syndesmosis

16.

Match the following examples with the correct fibrous joint

a)

bones of the skull

1.

sutures

b)

fusion of cranial sutures; epiphyseal line

2.

synostosis

c)

maxilla and mandible where teeth are fixed in sockets

3.

gomphosis

d)

tibiofibular joint; middle radioulnar joint

4.

syndesmosis

17.

All of the types of fibrous joints are synarthrotic except for

a)

sutures

b)

synostosis

c)

gomphosis

d)

syndesmosis

18.

Which of the following cartilaginous joints unites bones with a bridge of hyaline cartilage and is synarthrotic?

a)

synchondrosis

b)

symphysis

c)

syndesmosis

d)

synostosis

19.

Which of the following cartilaginous joints separates bones by a wedge or pad of fibrocartilage and is amphiarthrotic?

a)

synchondrosis

b)

symphysis

c)

syndesmosis

d)

synostosis

20.

Which of the following are examples of synchondrosis joints?

a)

first costochondral joint

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

sacrum

d)

pubic symphysis

e)

intervertebral joints

21.

Which of the following are examples of symphysis joints?

a)

first costochondral joint

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

sacrum

d)

pubic symphysis

e)

intervertebral joints

22.

Which of the following is NOT a charateristic of synovial joints?

a)

separates articulated bones by a fluid-filled cavity

b)

all diarthrotic

c)

found only in the skull

d)

form joints of limbs

23.

Match the following functions of synovial fluid

a)

reduces friction between moving surfaces

1.

lubrication

b)

circulates continuously providing food or removing waste for chondrocytes

2.

nutrient distribution

c)

cushions places that are subject to compression

3.

shock absorption

24.

Match the following structures

a)

fibrous connective tissue attached to each bone just outside the bone's articulating surface

1.

articular capsule

b)

hyaline cartilage that covers the entire articulating surface of each bone

2.

articular cartilage

c)

dense irregular CT; continuous with periosteum

3.

fibrous capsule

d)

areolar CT coverred by a partial epithelial layer

4.

syovial membrane

e)

secreted by synovial membranes

5.

synovial fluid

25.

Synovial flood is derived from blood.

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Which of the following is a small packet filled with synovial fluid and lined with synovial membrane that often form where tendons or ligaments pass over tissues or bone?

a)

bursa

b)

fat pad

c)

meniscus

d)

ligament

27.

Which of the following is masses of adipose tissue covered by synovial membrane; superficial to the joint capsule?

a)

bursa

b)

fat pad

c)

meniscus

d)

ligament

28.

Which of the following is fibrocartilage pad/disc that cusions and protects articular surfaces/joints?

a)

bursa

b)

fat pad

c)

meniscus

d)

ligament

29.

Which of the following is made of dense regular connective tissue to support, stregthen, and reinforce joints?

a)

bursa

b)

fat pad

c)

meniscus

d)

ligaments

30.

Which of the following joints is a uniaxial joint and allows for rotational movement?

a)

pivot

b)

hinge

c)

condyloid

d)

saddle

e)

ball and socket

31.

Which of the following joints is a uniaxial joint and allows for flexion/extension movement?

a)

pivot

b)

hinge

c)

condyloid

d)

saddle

e)

ball and socket

32.

Which of the following joints is a biaxial joint and allows for flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and circumduction movement?

a)

plane

b)

hinge

c)

condyloid

d)

pivot

e)

ball and socket

33.

Which of the following joints is a biaxial joint and allows for flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and circumduction movement?

a)

plane

b)

hinge

c)

pivot

d)

saddle

e)

ball and socket

34.

Which of the following joints is multiaxial joint and allows for inversion/everion of the foot, flexion/extension, and lateral flexion of the vertebral column movement?

a)

condyloid

b)

hinge

c)

plane

d)

saddle

e)

ball and socket

35.

Which of the following joints is multiaxial joint and allows for flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, circumduction, and medial/lateral rotation movement?

a)

condyloid

b)

hinge

c)

plane

d)

saddle

e)

ball and socket

36.

Match the following examples with the correct type of joint

a)

atlantoaxial joint; proximal radioulnar joint

1.

pivot

b)

knee; elbow; ankle; interphalangeal joints of fingers and toes

2.

hinge

c)

metacarpophalangeal joints of fingers; radiocarpal joint of wrist; metatarsypalangeal joints for toes

3.

condyloid

37.

Match the following examples with the correct type of joint

a)

first carpometacarpal joint of the thumb; sternoclavicular joint

1.

saddle

b)

intertarsal joints of foot; superior-inferior articular process articulations between vertebraae

2.

plane

c)

shoulder and hip joints

3.

ball and socket

38.

Match the following synovial joint movements

a)

increases angle of limbs

1.

extension

b)

decreases angle of limbs

2.

flexion

c)

draws circles with limbs

3.

circumduction

d)

appendicular movement away from midline

4.

abduction

e)

appendicular movement towards midline

5.

adduction

39.

Match the following

a)

increase angle of the ankle

1.

plantar flexion

b)

past anatomical

2.

hyperextension

c)

excessive flex at joint

3.

hyperflexion

d)

decrease abgle with vertebral column

4.

lateral flexion

e)

decrease angle at ankle

5.

dorsiflexion

40.

Match the following rotation movements

a)

with the axial skeleton

1.

right/left rotation

b)

with appendicular skeleton toward midline

2.

medial rotation

c)

with appendicular skeleton away from midline

3.

lateral rotation

d)

when forearm is in anatomical position

4.

supination

e)

when forearm is opposite anatomical position

5.

pronation

41.

Match the following

a)

thumb to palmar surface

1.

opposition

b)

returning thumb to index finger

2.

reposition

c)

anterior movement of scapula and mandible

3.

protraction

d)

posterior movement of scapula and mandible

4.

retraction

42.

Match the following

a)

mandible moves left/right

1.

lateral excursion

b)

mandible reurns to resting

2.

medial excursion

c)

movement inferiorly of scapula/mandible

3.

depression

d)

movement superiorly of scapula/mandible

4.

elevation

43.

Match the following

a)

glenoid cavity moves upward

1.

superior rotation

b)

glenoid cavity moves downward

2.

inferior rotation

c)

turning sole inward

3.

inversion

d)

turning sole outward

4.

eversion

44.

Which joint is the strongest type of joint but allows for no movement?

a)

synathroses

b)

diarthroses

c)

amphiarthroses

45.

Which joint is the most mobile joint but also the weakest?

a)

synathroses

b)

diarthroses

c)

amphiarthroses

46.

Movement beyond the normal range of motion that can cause articulating surfaces to be forced out of position?

a)

luxation

b)

hyperextension

c)

flexion

d)

extension

e)

abduction

47.

Dislocations damage the joint structure, but the pain is from nerves monitoring from surrounding tissues because there are no pain receptors inside a joint.

a)

true

b)

false

48.

Match the following axis of motion

a)

linear movements; bones slide across one another

1.

non-axial movement

b)

allows movement in one plane

2.

uniaial joint

c)

allows for movement in two planes

3.

biaxial joint

d)

allows movement in three planes

4.

multiaxial joint

49.

Match the following examples with their axis of motion

a)

vertebrocostal joints, sacroiliac joint

1.

non-axial movement

b)

elbow

2.

uniaxial joint

c)

metacarpophalangeal joint

3.

biaxial joint

d)

shoulder joint, hip joint

4.

multiaxial joint

50.

Match the following joint injuries

a)

stretching or tearing of a ligament across a joint capsule

1.

sprain

b)

articulating surfaces forced out of position under extreme stress

2.

dislocation (luxation)

c)

inflammation of bursa

3.

bursitis

d)

inflammation of tendon

4.

tendonitis

e)

inflammation of synovial membrane

5.

synovitis

51.

Match the following

a)

inflammatory or degenerative disease of the joint causing pannus. Inflammation of one or more joints, causing pain and stiffness that worsens with age

1.

arthritis

b)

gedenerative joint disease; associated with aging and most common chronic condition of the joints; caused by cartilage or cushion breaks down

2.

osteoarthritis

c)

autoimmune disease affecting the joints and causing painful sweeling; more common in middle age and in women

3.

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

inflammatory arthritis due to high levels of uric acid in the blood; uric acid crystals deposit in joints especially the big toe; more common in men

4.

gouty arthritis

52.

Muscle contractions stretch to lengthen muscles.

a)

true

b)

false

53.

Muscles that help support and position the body are known as

a)

axial muscles

b)

appendicular muscles

54.

Muscles that help support, move, and brace limbs are known as

a)

axial muscles

b)

appendicular muscles

55.

Muscles must cross a joint to move the joint

a)

true

b)

false

56.

The end of muscle that is attached to fixed or stabilized bone; stationary attachment end; usually proximally located is known as the

a)

origin

b)

insertion

c)

fixator

d)

agonist

57.

The end of muscle that is to body part that moves with muscle contractions; mobile attachment end; usually distally located is known as

a)

origin

b)

insertion

c)

fixator

d)

agonist

58.

Match the following ways in which muscle cooperate

a)

prime mover; cheifly responsible for a movement

1.

agonist

b)

muscles that oppose or reverse the agonist

2.

antagonist

c)

muscles that cooperate with agonists adding extra force to the same movement; reducing undesirable or unnecessary movements

3.

synergists

d)

cooperates with agonists to stabilize a bone or body part attached to a moving part

4.

fixator

59.

Match the following examples

a)

shoulder flexion, pectoralis major

1.

agonist

b)

latissimus dorsi for shoulder flexion

2.

antagonist

c)

brachioradialis assits with flexing elbow

3.

synergist

d)

prevention of movement of scapula when biceps brachii moves radius

4.

fixator

60.

A bundle of muscle fibers that is surrounded by perimysium is known as

a)

fascicle

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofibrils

d)

myofilaments

61.

Arrangement of fascicles is correlated to the force and range of motion of a muscle.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

Match the fascicle arrangement with the examples in the image:

a)

multipennate

b)

convergent

c)

circular

d)

parallel

e)

fusiform

f)

unipennate

g)

bipennate

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
63.

Match the following fascicle arrangement descriptions

a)

contract and relax to decrease or increase the size of an opening; sphincters

1.

circular

b)

broad origin with fascicles converging toward a single insertion

2.

convergent

c)

fascicles arranged in the same direction as the lon axis of the msucle

3.

parallel

d)

parallel muscle with large, central belly that tapers at the origin and insertion

4.

fusiform

e)

short fascicles attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of the msucle

5.

pennate

64.

Match the following examples with their type of fascicle arrangement

a)

orbicularis oris, anal sphincter

1.

circular

b)

pectoralis major

2.

convergent

c)

sartorius

3.

parallel

d)

biceps brachii

4.

fusiform

e)

extensor digitorium, rectus femoris, deltoid

5.

pennate

65.

A ​ (a)   is a rigid bar that moves on a fixed point, or ​ (b)   , when a force is applied to it. The applied force, or ​ (c)   , is used to move a resistance, or ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
lever
fulcrum
effort
load
66.

A ​ (a)   is a rigid bar that moves on a fixed point, or ​ (b)   , when a force is applied to it. The applied force, or ​ (c)   , is used to move a resistance, or ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
bone
joint
muscle contraction
load
67.

When the load is close to the fulcrum and the effort is applied far from the fulcrum; requires minimal effort to move a large load this is known as a

a)

power lever

b)

speed lever

68.

When the load is far from the fulcrum and teh effort is applied near the fulcrum; requires the force to be greater than the load to be moved this is known as a

a)

power lever

b)

speed lever

69.

Match the following

a)

when the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load

1.

first-class lever

b)

when the load lies between the applied force and the fulcrum

2.

second-class lever

c)

applied force is located between the load and the fulcrum

3.

third-class lever

70.

Match the following examples with their type of lever

a)

scissors or the capitis muscles

1.

first-class lever

b)

wheelbarrow or the gastrocnemius

2.

second-class lever

c)

tweezers and biceps brachii

3.

third-class lever

71.

Which of the following is known as a power lever?

a)

first-class lever

b)

second-class lever

c)

third-class lever

72.

Which of the following is known as a speed lever?

a)

first-class lever

b)

second-class lever

c)

third-class lever

73.

Which of the following are ways that have been used to name muscles

a)

body region

b)

shape

c)

size

d)

action

74.

Which of the following are ways that have been used to name muscles

a)

direction of fascicles

b)

number of origins

c)

location of attachment

d)

color

75.

Match the following examples with how we name mucles

a)

brachii and femoris

1.

body region

b)

deltoid and trapezius

2.

shape

c)

maximus, minimus, longus

3.

size

76.

Match the following examples with how we name muscles

a)

flexor, extensor, supinator

1.

action

b)

rectus, oblique, transversus

2.

direction of fascicles

c)

biceps and triceps

3.

number of origins

d)

sternocleidomastoid

4.

location of attachment

77.

Muscle tissue is derived from the

a)

mesoderm

b)

endoderm

c)

ectoderm

d)

epiderm

78.

Which of the following is false concerning muscle tissue?

a)

highly vascularized

b)

spans joints and attaches to bones at origin and insertion

c)

derived from the mesoderm

d)

stimulated by hormones to control contrations

79.

When the epimysium of the muscle is fused to the periosteum of bone, perichondrium of cartilage, or connective tissue and dermis of skin it is known as a

a)

tendon

b)

aponeurosis

c)

ligament

d)

fascicle

80.

When the muscle fascia extends beyond the muscle tissue and anchors to bone or fascia of another muscle

a)

tendon

b)

aponeurosis

c)

ligament

d)

fascicle

81.

Match the following functions that are shared among all three types of muscle tissue:

a)

responds to stimulation by nerves and/or hormones and local stimuli

1.

excitability

b)

capacity of muscle to contract or shorten forcefully

2.

contractility

c)

can be stretched beyond normal resting length

3.

extensibility

d)

can recoil to original resting length, if stretched

4.

elasticity

82.

Which of the following types of muscle tissue respond to nervous and hormonal/local stimulation?

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

83.

Which of the following types of muscle tissue respond to nervous stimulation ONLY?

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

84.

Which of the following are functions of skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

produce skeletal movements, maintain posture, and body position

b)

support soft tissues

c)

guard body entrances and exits

d)

maintain body temperature

e)

provide nutrient reserves

85.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

voluntary

long, cylindrical, striated

attached to skeleton

controls swallowing, urination, defecation

multinucleate

short, spindled, uninucleate

non-striated

walls of hollow organs, vessels, and tracts

eyes

skin

short, striated, uninucleate

branched

pacemaker cells

intercalated discs

syncytium

EMPTY

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac
LEAVE EMPTY
86.

Specialized cells that control heart contraction are known as

a)

myocyte

b)

muscle fiber

c)

pacemaker cells

d)

intercalated discs

e)

syncytium

87.

__________ achors cells that control heart contraction.

a)

myocyte

b)

muscle fiber

c)

pacemaker cells

d)

intercalated discs

e)

syncytium

88.

Electric coupling alloes the heart to function as a functional unit of contraction known as

a)

myocyte

b)

muscle fiber

c)

pacemaker cells

d)

intercalated discs

e)

syncytium

89.

Reorder the following from largest to smallest

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

muscle fascicles

c)

muscle fibers

d)

myofibrils

e)

myofilaments

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
90.

Match the following connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle tissue:

a)

surrounds the entire muscle; maintains structural integrity and protects from friction

1.

epimysium

b)

middle layer that surrounds each fascicle

2.

perimysium

c)

innermost layer that surrounds each muscle fiber

3.

endomysium

91.

Muscle cells are supplied by blood vessels in the perimysium.

a)

true

b)

false

92.

Another name for muscle fiber is

a)

myocyte

b)

peacemaker cells

c)

chondrocytes

d)

fascicle

93.

Myocytes arise from

a)

myoblasts

b)

fibroblasts

c)

myocytic stem cells

d)

myogeniter cells

94.

Contractile threads composed of myofilaments that are the primary component of the myocyte are

a)

myofibrils

b)

fascicles

c)

myoblasts

d)

myofibers

95.

Myofilaments that are arranged in repeating subunits along the length of myfibrils is known as

a)

sarcomeres

b)

sarcoplasm

c)

sarcolemma

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

myofibrils

96.

Match the following structures

a)

functional unit of muscle fiber

1.

sarcomere

b)

plasma membrane

2.

sarcolemma

c)

cytoplasm

3.

sarcoplasm

d)

specialized smooth ER involved in storage, release, and retrieval of calcium; surrounds myofibrils

4.

sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

red protein that carries oxygen

5.

myoglobin

97.

Match the following parts of the sarcomere

a)

overlapping thin and thick filaments

1.

A bands

b)

actin only

2.

I bands

c)

myosin only

3.

H zone

d)

anchor point for myosin filaments

4.

M line

e)

anchor point for thin filaments

5.

Z-disc

98.

Label the regions of the sarcomere

a)

Z-disc

b)

A band

c)

I band

d)

M line

e)

H zone

1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
99.

Which part of thin filaments consists of molecules with active sites (monomer)?

a)

G-actin

b)

F-actin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

troponin

100.

Which part of thin filaments is linked to form double strands (polymer)?

a)

G-actin

b)

F-actin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

troponin

101.

Which part of thin filaments is the coiled-coil protein that covers the active sites?

a)

G-actin

b)

F-actin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

troponin

102.

Which part of thin filaments binds tropomyosin over the active sites?

a)

G-actin

b)

F-actin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

troponin

103.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning thick filaments?

a)

composed of numerous actin proteins

b)

ATP-dependent motor proteins

c)

twisted with tails toward M line and two globular heads

d)

heads interact with active sites on thin filaments

104.

When sarcolemma invaginates that transmit electrical signals deep into the sarcoplasm exciting the SR to release calcium causing a muscle contraction it is known as a

a)

transverse tubule

b)

terminal cisternae

c)

triad

d)

sarcolemma

e)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

105.

The longitudinal cross-channels of SR that occur in pairs adjacent to t-tubules is known a

a)

transverse tubule

b)

terminal cisternae

c)

triad

d)

sarcolemma

e)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

106.

terminal cisterna: t-tubule: terminal cisterna =

a)

transverse tubule

b)

terminal cisternae

c)

triad

d)

sarcolemma

e)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

107.

Which of the following is the sarcolemma?

A
B
C
D
E
F
108.

Which of the following synaptic cleft that separates axon from the sarcolemma?

A
B
C
D
E
F
109.

Which of the following is the molecules that are released at the axon terminal to bind to receptors leading to depolarization of the sarcolemma?

A
B
C
D
E
F
110.

Which of the following is the motor end plate?

A
B
C
D
E
F
111.

Which of the following is the t-tubule?

A
B
C
D
E
F
112.

Which of the following is the terminal cisternae?

A
B
C
D
E
F
113.

There are many NMJs per muscle fiber.

a)

true

b)

false

114.

Which of the following is an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that breaks down ACh after a contraction?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

acetylcholinesterase

c)

acetylcholinephosphorase

d)

acetylcholinekinase

115.

The plasma membrane at resting membrane potential is

a)

polarized

b)

neutral

c)

unpolarized

d)

positively charged

116.

The plasma membrane has what charge at resting membrane potential?

a)

-70

b)

0

c)

70

d)

30

e)

-30

117.

At resting membrane potential, the ​ (a)   is slightly negative compared to the ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
cytosol
ECF
118.

The unequal distribution of charges at the membrane is established through diffusion and maintained by?

a)

vesicular transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

sodium-potassium pumps

119.

At resting membrane potential, there is a high number of ​ (a)   ions and a low number of ​ (b)   ions in the ECF. In the cytosol, there is a ​ (c)   number of sodium ions, and a ​ (d)   number of potassium ions.

Choose from the below words
sodium
potassium
low
high
120.

Reorder the following steps starting with a muscle at rest

a)

resting membrane potential

b)

local depolarization

c)

propagation of action potential

d)

intracellular calcium is released triggering contraction

e)

repolarization

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
121.

Which of the following is FALSE concening action potentials?

a)

it is a change in voltage of a cell membrane in response to a stimulus that results in a transmission of an electrical signal

b)

unique to neurons and muscle fibers

c)

in muscle cells, the stimulus is local depolarization

d)

an electrical signal will always generate an action potential

122.

The voltage that must be reached to generate an action potential is known as the

a)

threshold

b)

stimulus

c)

refractory

d)

depolarization

e)

repolarization

123.

What steps that must be taken for a muscle to contract?

a)

muscle fiber must be stimulated by a nerve ending so that a change in membrane potentional occurs

b)

generation of an action potential that iss propagated along the sarcolemma

c)

a short-lived rise in intracellular calcium ions to trigger the contraction

d)

all of these are required for a muscle to contract

124.

When there is a local change in membrane voltage at the end plate potential it is known as

a)

depolarization

b)

repolarization

c)

resting membrane potential

d)

propagation of action potential

e)

intracellular calcium triggers contraction

125.

When there is a local change in membrane voltage spreads from the NMJ across the sarcolemma it is known as

a)

depolarization

b)

repolarization

c)

resting membrane potential

d)

propagation of action potential

e)

intracellular calcium triggers contraction

126.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning the propagation of action potential?

a)

voltage gated ion channels in adjacent sarcolemma opens in response to change in membrane voltage

b)

once the membrane reaches threshold, the action potential is initiated

c)

when the action potential is initiated it is spread as a wave of depolarization that travels across the sarcolemma

d)

local depolarization spreads from the t-tubules to the NMJ

127.

When the action potential is propagated along the sarcolemma, travels down the ttubules, and causes calcium channels in the terminal cisternae of the SR to open it is known as

a)

depolarization

b)

repolarization

c)

resting membrane potential

d)

propagation of action potential

e)

intracellular calcium triggers contraction

128.

When the transmission of action potential travels down ​ (a)   causing the ​ (b)   to open calcium channels leads to: calcium rushing into the ​ (c)   , calcium binds to ​ (d)   , and intiatiates muscle ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
t-tubules
terminal cisternae
cytosol
troponin
contraction
relaxation
tropomyosin
sarcoplasmic reticulum
myosin
129.

Reorder the following steps of excitation-contraction coupling

a)

AP at NMJ signals ACh release

b)

ACh opens sodium channels (depolarization)

c)

AP spreads through sarcolemma

d)

T-tubules spread AP into each sarcomere

e)

Calcium release signals muscle contraction

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
130.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning repolarization?

a)

ACh is removed from the synaptic cleft by diffusion or broken down by AchE

b)

sodium channels close and voltage gated potassium channels open

c)

potassium ions rapidly diffuse out and membrane potential returns to polarized state

d)

clacium ions move into the cell

131.

During repolarization, muscle fibers are in a refractory period.

a)

true

b)

false

132.

Myofilaments slide with a contraction/relaxation.

a)

true

b)

false

133.

What is the name for how the sarcomere regions change during a muscle contraction/relaxation?

a)

sliding filament model

b)

excitation-coupling contraction

c)

contraction coupling model

d)

sliding sarcomere model

134.

Which of the following is true of the changes in the sarcomere according to the sliding filament model when a sarcomere contracts?

a)

Z lines move closer together

b)

I band becomes smaller

c)

H zone becomes smaller

d)

A band stays the same

e)

A band becomes smaller

135.

Reorder the following steps of the sliding filament model

a)

calcium binds to troponin and exposes active sites

b)

cross-bridge is formed

c)

power stroke

d)

cross-bridge detaches

e)

myosin returns to cocked position

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
136.

Match the following steps of the sliding filament model

a)

calcium binds to troponin and exposes the active site on actin

1.

1

b)

myosin binds to actin forming the cross-bridge

2.

2

c)

phosphate and ADP are released from the myosin head and the head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere (power stroke)

3.

3

d)

a new molecule of ATP attaches to the myosin head causing the cross-bridge to detach

4.

4

e)

myosin head hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and P and myosin returns to the cocked position

5.

5

137.

Rigor mortis occurs because there is an abundance of ATP but it can no longer attach to myosin causing sustained cross-bridges and muscle stiffness.

a)

true

b)

false

138.

Which of the following is FALSE?

a)

muscle contractions continur as long as calcium and ATP are available

b)

calcium ions are quickly retrieved by calcium pumps in the sarcolemma

c)

calcium must be maintained at low levels in cytosol except during muscle contaction

d)

free calcium would bind with Pi released during the power stroke to form hydroxyapatite

139.

Which of the following is true concerning cardiac muscle?

a)

intercalated discs allow cardiac muscle cells to function as a syncytium

b)

cardiac cells have sustained periods of depolarization and calcium entry into cells

c)

shorter contractions are produced than those in skeletal muscles

d)

have autorhythmicity becuase they can depolarize and fire action potentials without neural stimulation

140.

Which of the following is not an instance of when ATP is used during muscle contractions?

a)

exocytosis of ACh from axon terminal

b)

calcium ion pump in the SR

c)

Na/K pump

d)

detaching and cocking of myosin head

e)

diffusion of ACh out of the synaptic cleft

141.

When neurons fire, all muscle fibers will contract to their maximum potential.

a)

true

b)

false

142.

A single contraction in the mucle fibers of a motor unit is known as a

a)

muscle contraction

b)

muscle twitch

c)

muscle relaxation

d)

latent muscle

143.

An instrument that measures the amount of muscle tension produced over time is known as

a)

echocardiogram

b)

myogram

c)

tensiogram

d)

contratogram

144.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of a muscle twitch?

a)

latent period

b)

contraction phase

c)

relaxation phase

d)

tetanus

145.

Match the following phases of a muscle twitch

a)

begins at stimulation and lasts ~2 msec; an action potential sweeps across the sarcolemma, and SR releases calcium

1.

latent period

b)

tension rises to a peak; calcium ions are binding to troponin, active sites on thin filaments are being exposed, and cross-bridge interactions are occurring

2.

contraction phase

c)

lasts about 25 msec; calcium levels are falling, active sites are being covered by tropomyosin, and the number of active cross-bridges is declining

3.

relaxation phase

146.

Which of the following is true concerning small motor units?

a)

1 neuron + a few specific muscle fibers

b)

used for fine, precise motor movements

c)

1 neuron + many non-specific muscle fibers

d)

used for gross motor movements

147.

Which of the following is true concerning large motor units?

a)

1 neuron + a few specific muscle fibers

b)

used for fine, precise motor movements

c)

1 neuron + many non-specific muscle fibers

d)

used for gross motor movements

148.

How do we vary the degree of contraction?

a)

change the number of muscle fibers stimulated

b)

recruit more active motor units to increase muscle tension

c)

change the force of the contraction

d)

decrease the number of active motor units to increase muscle tension

149.

The resting tension in a skeletal muscle is known as

a)

muscle tone

b)

contractile force

c)

muscle twitch

d)

rigor mortis

150.

All motor units are always active, although the whole muscle is not contracting. This keeps muscles tense and firm instead of limp.

a)

true

b)

false

151.

How does the frequency of motor neuron stimulation affect muscle tension?

a)

force of contraction is increased

b)

higher muscle tension

c)

lower muscle tension

d)

force of contraction is decreased due to refractory period

152.

Muscle fibers are stimulated immediately after relaxation which causes a gradual increase in the force of contraction. This is becuase the ​ (a)   does not have enough time to reabsorb all the ​ (b)   ions it released, so the ion concentration ​ (c)   in the ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium
increases
cytosol
sarcolemma
synaptic cleft
sodium
acetylcholine
decreases
potassium
153.

When the muscle does not relax completely before the arrival of a second stimulus causing the force os each twitch to build leading to greater force of contraction it is known as

a)

wave summation

b)

muscle twitch

c)

muscle tone

d)

treppe

154.

When there is NO relaxation between stimuli it is known as

a)

treppe

b)

tetanus

c)

tone

d)

twitch

155.

Tetanus is influenced by the availability of acetylcholine ions.

a)

true

b)

false

156.

Match the following types of muscle contraction

a)

the muscle length changes as a load is moved, but the muscle tension remains constant

1.

isotonic

b)

the muscle shortens to move a load

2.

concentric contraction

c)

the muscle lengthens and muscle tension decreases

3.

eccentric contraction

d)

muscle tension is produced without changing the angle of the skeletal joint

4.

isometric

157.

Match the following examples with the type of muscle contraction

a)

flexion of the elbow while lifting a dumbell

1.

concentric contraction

b)

extension of the elbow while lifting a dumbell

2.

eccentric contraction

c)

maintaing posture, bone, and joint stability

3.

isometric

158.

The muscles have numerous ways in obtaining ATP to meet its needs.

a)

true

b)

false

159.

Which of the following are anaerobic pathways used to obtain ATP when needed?

a)

creatine phosphate

b)

aerobic respiration

c)

anaerobic respiration

d)

stored glycogen

160.

When muscles are at rest, excess ATP is left in the cells. This excells will donate a ​ (a)   to ​ (b)   forming ​ (c)   . This is held in reserve for later use.

Choose from the below words
phosphate
creatine
creatine phosphate
161.

Creatine phosphate breakdown is catalyzed by _______________ to produce one ATP.

a)

creatine kinase

b)

creatine phosporase

c)

creatine cyclase

d)

ATP synthase

162.

When the muscle cells do not have enough oxygen they will undergo the ​ (a)   pathway to obtain 2 ​ (b)   molecules. Stored ​ (c)   in the sarcoplasm is broken down into glucose. Glucose becomes 2 ​ (d)   which are turned into ​ (e)   generating ATP.

Choose from the below words
anaerobic
ATP
glycogen
pyruvate
lactic acid
163.

The anaerobic pathway only lasts ~ 10-15 seconds.

a)

true

b)

false

164.

Which of the following are true for the anaerobic pathway?

a)

for quick powerful contractions

b)

muscles fatigue quickly

c)

useful for sprinters and body builders

d)

oxygen is required

165.

Most of the aerobic pathway takes place in the

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

sarcoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

e)

ribosomes

166.

________ is in the sarcoplasm storing oxygen.

a)

hemoglobin

b)

iron

c)

myoglobin

d)

myooxygen

167.

Glucose + Oxygen →\rightarrow Carbon Dioxide + Water + ATP + heat

a)

aerobic pathway

b)

anaerobic pathway

c)

glycolysis

d)

creatine phosphate

e)

lactic acid fermentation

168.

Which of the following is true to get enough oxygen to muscle cells?

a)

lots of myoglobin in muscle tissue

b)

lots of mitochondria

c)

increased blood flow to the muscles

d)

gives muscles its blue color

169.

In the aerobic pathway, glycogen becomes ​ (a)   and then becomes ​ (b)   . This enters the ​ (c)   and it produces ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
glucose
pyruvate
mitochondria
ATP
170.

Which of the following are true for the aerobic pathway?

a)

used for longer periods of contraction

b)

useful for long distance runners and swimmers

c)

used for quick powerful contractions

d)

useful for sprinters and body builders

171.

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are designed for sustained contractions and resistant to fatigue?

a)

slow-oxidative muscle fibers

b)

fast-glycolytic muscle fibers

172.

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are designed for rapid, powerful contractions?

a)

slow-oxidative muscle fibers

b)

fast-glycolytic muscle fibers

173.

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers fatigue rapidly?

a)

slow-oxidative muscle fibers

b)

fast-glycolytic muscle fibers

174.

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are highly vascularized, abundant in myoglobin and mitochondria, and generate ATP via aerobic metabolism?

a)

slow-oxidative muscle fibers

b)

fast-glycolytic muscle fibers

175.

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers have fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and rely on aerobic metabolism for ATP?

a)

slow-oxidative muscle fibers

b)

fast-glycolytic muscle fibers

176.

Match the following diseases and disorders

a)

commonly called a pulled muscle and is the result of excessive stretching and possible tearing of a muscle and or tendons

1.

strain

b)

when ATP is depleted from cells, actin and myosin become irreversibly cross-linked, producing stiffness; general muscle contraction following death

2.

rigor mortis

c)

muscle fibers enlarge due to an increased numebr of myofibrils

3.

hypertrophy

d)

smaller muscle cells due to loss of myofibrils due to lack of use, innervation, myofibrils

4.

atrophy

177.

Match the following

a)

virus affects motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain, causing muscle atrophy and paralysis

1.

polio

b)

the bacterium Clostridium tetani releases a toxin that suppresses the mechanism that inhibits motor neuron activity, leading to sustained powerful contractions

2.

tetanus

c)

ingestion of toxin from the bacterium Clostridium botulinum that paralyzes skeletal muscles by preventing ACh release at NMJ

3.

botulism

d)

autoimmune disease results in loss of ACh receptors at NMJ results in pregrssive muscular weakness

4.

myasthenia gravis

e)

lack of dystrophin which would streghten muscle fibers and protect them from injury during contraction/relaxation

5.

Duchene's muscular dystrophy

Similar Resources on Wayground

Honors Biology BM 2 Review: Enz, Cell cyc, Photo, Resp

181 questions

Honors Biology BM 2 Review: Enz, Cell cyc, Photo, Resp

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Test 3 Review

174 questions

Test 3 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Skeletal System

181 questions

Skeletal System

quiz

Worksheet

•

University