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MLT 2212 Basic Immunology Exam 3 Review Ch 14-24

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

2.

Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in type I hypersensitivity?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

3.

Which of the following diseases is an example of type II hypersensitivity?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

d)

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

4.

Hypersensitivities to poison ivy and nickel are:

a)

mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.

b)

immunodeficiency diseases.

c)

IgE responses to a hapten.

d)

macrophage and T-cell responses to a hapten.

5.

Type I hypersensitivity involves:

a)

IgE binding to mast cells and basophils.

b)

phagocytic cell degranulation and proteolytic enzyme activity.

c)

a kidney membrane antigen and specific antibody.

d)

natural killer cell activation.

6.

An example of a condition that involves type III hypersensitivity is:

a)

myasthenia gravis.

b)

allergic rhinitis.

c)

contact sensitivity.

d)

rheumatoid arthritis.

7.

A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the presence of IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes:

a)

type III hypersensitivity.

b)

contact dermatitis.

c)

type II hypersensitivity.

d)

asthma.

8.

Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

a)

IgE builds up on the mother's cells.

b)

The Rh– mother is exposed to Rh+ baby cells.

c)

The Rh+ mother is exposed to Rh– baby cells.

d)

The baby must be Rh–.

9.

A direct antiglobulin test is ordered on a patient sample. This test detects:

a)

in vivo attachment of antibodies to red blood cells.

b)

allergic reaction.

c)

passive agglutination.

d)

naturally occurring antibodies.

10.

What is meant by “gating” in flow cytometry?

a)

The chromatic arrangement of cellular populations

b)

The process by which one cell population adheres to another population

c)

An electronic window separating subpopulations of cells

d)

An electronic device measuring all populations of cells

11.

As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:

a)

lymphocytes.

b)

granulocytes.

c)

monocytes.

d)

dendritic cells.

12.

In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does the amount of side scatter indicate?

a)

Size of the cell

b)

Granularity of the cell

c)

Surface markers

d)

Shape of the cell

13.

Identify the difference between batch and random-access analyzers.

a)

Batch analyzers are not automated.

b)

Random-access analyzers only analyze one sample at a time.

c)

Batch analyzers only do one type of analysis at a time.

d)

Random-access analyzers cannot be used for stat samples.

14.

The lowest measurable amount of an analyte is called:

a)

accuracy.

b)

precision.

c)

analytic sensitivity.

d)

analytic specificity.

15.

Which description best describes the reportable range?

a)

Span of test result values over which the laboratory can establish or verify the accuracy of an instrument or test system

b)

Range of test values found in a healthy population of people

c)

Variation observed in repeated measurements of the same sample

d)

Difference in concentration between the highest and lowest standards used in the standard curve

16.

In flow cytometry, forward scatter provides a measure of:

a)

cell size.

b)

cell granularity.

c)

membrane receptor expression.

d)

intracellular complexity.

17.

Flow cytometry is commonly used to:

a)

measure serum protein concentrations.

b)

identify microbes.

c)

determine the stage of leukocyte differentiation.

d)

measure complement activation.

18.

The ability to consistently reproduce the same result on repeated testing of the same sample is called:

a)

accuracy.

b)

precision.

c)

analytic sensitivity.

d)

analytic specificity.

19.

Random access analyzers were designed to do which of the following?

a)

examine multiple samples for one analyte

b)

measure numerous analytes for multiple samples

c)

examine one sample for multiple analytes

d)

measure one analyte on multiple samples

20.

A 10-year-old girl visits her physician's office because she has been complaining about being thirsty and having to go to the bathroom all the time. She has lost 15 pounds over the past 6 months and has been more irritable than usual, especially after meals. The girl's fasting blood glucose is 575 mg/dL (reference range, < 100 mg/dL), her HbA1c is 9.0% (reference range, less 6.5%), and she has autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase and insulin. On the basis of these findings, a likely diagnosis for this girl is:

a)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

b)

acute glomerulonephritis.

c)

type 1 diabetes.

d)

progressive systemic sclerosis.

21.

A 56-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of weight gain and joint problems. She is having increasing difficulty walking up stairs and manipulating her fingers. Her fingers in both hands as well as her knees on both legs are equally painful and stiff. The symptoms have been getting progressively worse over the past 6 months. Rheumatoid factor is elevated, and antinuclear antibodies are not detected. Complement levels in her joints are decreased.

a)

systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

granulomatosis with polyangiitis

c)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

22.

A 30-year-old clinical laboratory science student complains of being tired but is not able to sleep. The woman also states that her hair has been breaking off, and she has lost 20 pounds over the past 2 months without trying. The woman's pulse and blood pressure are elevated, and her eyes seem to be bulging. Her complete blood count (CBC) is normal, thyroid-stimulating hormone is decreased, and FT4 is increased. Antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies are each 1:400. This woman most likely has:

a)

Addison's disease.

b)

Graves disease.

c)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

d)

Type 1 diabetes.

23.

Which laboratory finding is associated with multiple sclerosis?

a)

Several bands on electrophoresis of cerebrospinal fluid

b)

Antibody to thyroglobulin

c)

Antibody to acetylcholine receptors

d)

Presence of antinuclear antibodies

24.

Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by:

a)

HLA-DR antigens expressed on thyroid epithelial cells.

b)

increase in cells lining the synovial membrane.

c)

absence of immune complexes.

d)

presence of dsDNA antibodies.

25.

A disease characterized by hypoactivity of the thyroid with weight gain and a sluggish metabolism as a result of destruction of thyroglobulin best describes:

a)

Graves disease.

b)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

c)

Myasthenia gravis.

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis.

26.

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia targets which cells or tissues?

a)

Liver

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Connective tissues

27.

In which of the following autoimmune diseases are antibodies to acetylcholine receptors produced, thereby blocking the signal to activate muscles?

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Goodpasture's disease

c)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

d)

Myasthenia gravis

28.

Antibodies to cyclic citrullinated proteins (anti-CCP) are specific diagnostic indicators for:

a)

type 1 diabetes mellitus.

b)

celiac disease.

c)

rheumatoid arthritis.

d)

primary biliary cholangitis.

29.

Central tolerance, in which lymphocytes learn to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens, takes place in the thymus and:

a)

spleen.

b)

lymph nodes.

c)

bone marrow.

d)

liver.

30.

A patient undergoes a skin graft from the back to cover a damaged area on the neck. This is an example of what type of transplant?

a)

Heterograft

b)

Xenograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Autograft

31.

In a patient who is exhibiting signs of graft-versus-host disease, which cell type is most likely responsible for the reaction?

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Eosinophils

32.

To determine a patient’s HLA type using the complement-dependent cytotoxicity test, which of the following must be used?

a)

Viable lymphocytes

b)

Purified T cells

c)

A single antiserum from a commercial source

d)

Complement from patient serum

33.

Which of the following is a class II MHC protein involved in transplant immunology?

a)

HLA-A

b)

HLA-C

c)

HLA-DR

d)

HLA-B

34.

An experimental procedure applying porcine skin to burn victims is an example of a(n):

a)

autograft

b)

xenograft

c)

allograft

d)

isograft

35.

To detect HLA antibodies in a patient:

a)

reagent lymphocytes are incubated with patient lymphocytes.

b)

reagent antibodies are incubated with patient lymphocytes.

c)

reagent lymphocytes are incubated with patient serum.

d)

reagent antibodies are incubated with patient serum.

36.

A tumor that is classified as malignant is described as:

a)

a disorganized mass that is not encapsulated and can invade nearby organs.

b)

a slow-growing, organized mass of encapsulated cells.

c)

usually confined to the skin.

d)

an area of swelling that shows no abnormal growth of cells.

37.

A tumor-specific antigen is:

a)

a. present in normal cells

b)

b. found in all types of tumors

c)

c. unique to tumor cells

d)

d. absent in the body

38.

Which of the following is a general marker for all known human tumors?

a)

a. a general marker for all known human tumors.

b)

b. a specific marker for leukemias.

c)

c. unique to the tumor of an individual patient or tumor type.

d)

d. nonspecific to all patient populations.

39.

Which of the following is a clinical application for tumor markers?

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Monitoring

d)

All of the above

40.

A woman who has a history of ovarian cancer in her family goes to her physician for a "cancer test." What is the test that is most likely to be positive if the woman has ovarian cancer?

a)

Carcinoembryonic antigen

b)

Alpha-fetoprotein

c)

Cancer antigen 125

d)

Human chorionic gonadotropin

41.

Which of the following tumor markers is used to test for hepatocellular carcinoma?

a)

HER-2

b)

Cancer antigen 19-9

c)

Alpha-fetoprotein

d)

Carcinoembryonic antigen

42.

Which is not a phase of immunoediting?

a)

Opsonization

b)

Elimination

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Escape

43.

The administration of cytokines is a form of _______ immunotherapy.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Adoptive

d)

Innate

44.

If a tumor marker is sensitive it means:

a)

it is easily detected in a majority of people with that particular cancer.

b)

it increases to clinically significant levels while the disease is still treatable.

c)

it is secreted into a bodily fluid.

d)

it is absent from people without the disease.

45.

If a tumor marker demonstrates that patients with higher levels tend to have worse outcomes, it can be used as a marker for:

a)

screening.

b)

diagnosis.

c)

monitoring.

d)

prognosis.

46.

Which of the following is an adaptive immune defense against tumor cells?

a)

NK cell activity.

b)

IL-2 action

c)

Cytotoxic T-cell activity

d)

Macrophage activity

47.

RPR stands for:

a)

reagin plasma reactive

b)

reactive phosphate reagent

c)

rapid plasma reagin

d)

random positive reagin

48.

Which of the following is a cause of a biological false positive in the nontreponemal assays for syphilis?

a)

Prozone

b)

Reagents too cold

c)

Sera dried on card

d)

Autoimmune disease

49.

A laboratory test that is used to confirm syphilis and detects specific treponemal antibodies is:

a)

VDRL

b)

TP-PA

c)

RPR

d)

monospot

50.

A patient presents with a painless genital ulcer. The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis. In what stage of syphilis is the patient?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Latent

d)

Tertiary

51.

A patient presents with personality changes, altered mental state, and delusions of grandeur. The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis. The patient is most likely in which stage of syphilis?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Latent

d)

Tertiary

52.

Lyme disease is caused by:

a)

T. pallidum

b)

Borrelia recurrentis

c)

Leptospira autumnalis

d)

B. burgdorferi

53.

Tests for specific treponemal antibody include which of the following?

a)

VDRL

b)

RPR

c)

FTA-ABS

d)

All of the above

54.

The vectors that transmit B. burgdorferi from natural reservoirs to humans are:

a)

deer

b)

mice

c)

ticks

d)

birds

55.

The clinical hallmark of early Lyme disease infection is:

a)

a. a chancre

b)

b. chronic fatigue

c)

c. chronic fatigue

d)

d. chronic fatigue

56.

Which antigen can be routinely detected in the blood of a person who has recently been infected with HIV?

a)

p14

b)

p19

c)

p23

d)

p24

57.

Which of the following is considered the best indicator of immune function in HIV-infected individuals?

a)

HIV-1 viral load

b)

Presence of HIV-2 antibodies

c)

CD4 T-cell count

d)

Absolute lymphocyte count

58.

Which of the following is not a major route of HIV transmission?

a)

Airborne droplets

b)

Intimate sexual contact

c)

Contact with blood

d)

Mother to infant

59.

What host antigen serves as the receptor for HIV?

a)

CD22

b)

CD4

c)

CD19

d)

CD8

60.

Based on current CDC recommendations, initial screening for HIV should be performed by:

a)

detection of antibody to HIV-1 p24 antigen.

b)

detection of antibody to HIV-2.

c)

combination detection of antibodies to HIV-1, HIV-2, and HIV-1 p24 antigen.

d)

nucleic acid testing (NAT).

61.

Which marker is elevated in the initial weeks after HIV infection?

a)

p24 antigen

b)

Anti-HIV-1

c)

Anti-HIV-2

d)

Anti-IgM

62.

When assessing HIV-infected patients for drug resistance, the testing methodology is:

a)

flow cytometry.

b)

serological testing.

c)

Western blot.

d)

genotype and phenotype assays.