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ASSESSMENT EXAM-CM

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following urine preservatives can cause false-positive protein results?

a)

Boric acid

b)

Toluene

c)

Formalin

d)

Thymol

2.

A freshly voided urine sample appears red and clear. Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

c)

Hemoglobinuria

d)

Urobilinogen

3.

Which ketone body is not detected by the reagent strip method?

a)

Acetoacetate

b)

Acetone

c)

β-Hydroxybutyrate

d)

Diacetic acid

4.

Which reagent strip test is based on the Greiss reaction?

a)

Protein

b)

Nitrite

c)

Ketone

d)

Bilirubin

5.

A urine sample with specific gravity >1.035 suggests:

a)

Normal kidney function

b)

Dehydration

c)

Contamination with radiographic dye

d)

Acute tubular necrosis

6.

Oval fat bodies in urine are most commonly associated with:

a)

Glomerulonephritis

b)

Acute pyelonephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Cystitis

7.

The presence of glitter cells in urine is strongly indicative of:

a)

Renal tubular necrosis

b)

Bacterial cystitis

c)

WBC degeneration in hypotonic urine

d)

Hematuria

8.

Which urinary crystal is considered abnormal at any pH?

a)

Amorphous urates

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Triple phosphate

9.

Which cast is considered most diagnostic of glomerular damage?

a)

Granular

b)

Waxy

c)

RBC

d)

Hyaline

10.

Broad casts are best associated with:

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Chronic renal failure

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Acute cystitis

11.

A positive leukocyte esterase test with a negative nitrite suggests:

a)

Gram-negative UTI

b)

Contamination

c)

Gram-positive UTI

d)

False positive

12.

Clue cells in urine sediment indicate:

a)

Renal tubular necrosis

b)

Candida infection

c)

Gardnerella vaginalis infection

d)

Trichomoniasis

13.

Rhabdomyolysis is best detected in urine by:

a)

Blood +, Microscopy no RBC

b)

Positive protein and bilirubin

c)

Myoglobin in sediment

d)

Positive ketones

14.

A maltese cross pattern under polarized light in urine indicates:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Oval fat bodies

d)

Triple phosphate

15.

Bence Jones protein is best detected by:

a)

Protein reagent strip

b)

Heat precipitation test

c)

Sulfosalicylic acid test

d)

Microscopy

16.

The viability of sperm is best assessed using:

a)

Eosin-nigrosin stain

b)

Papanicolaou stain

c)

Sperm count

d)

Morphology grading

17.

Normal sperm motility must be evaluated within:

a)

15 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

2 hours

18.

A synovial fluid with a string test of 0.5 indicates:

a)

Transudate

b)

Exudate

c)

Hemorrhagic effusion

d)

Lymphatic blockage

19.

The classic xanthochromia in CSF is due to:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Oxyhemoglobin

d)

All of the above

20.

A web-like clot in CSF is suggestive of:

a)

Traumatic tap

b)

TB meningitis

c)

Viral meningitis

d)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

21.

Which CSF tube is used for microbiologic testing?

a)

Tube 1

b)

Tube 2

c)

Tube 3

d)

Tube 4

22.

Normal CSF glucose is approximately:

a)

20% of serum glucose

b)

60% of serum glucose

c)

80% of serum glucose

d)

Equal to serum glucose

23.

Neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF is most consistent with:

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Fungal meningitis

c)

Bacterial meningitis

d)

TB meningitis

24.

The gold standard for fat malabsorption diagnosis is:

a)

Sudan stain

b)

Occult blood test

c)

72-hour fecal fat test

d)

Clinitest

25.

Fecal occult blood tests detect:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Bilirubin

26.

Increased eosinophils in nasal secretions are diagnostic of:

a)

Bacterial rhinitis

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Viral infection

d)

TB

27.

Which of the following is a QC measure for microscopy?

a)

Reagent blank

b)

Parallel testing

c)

Control slides

d)

Lot-to-lot verification

28.

What is the most critical preanalytical error in urine testing?

a)

Specimen not refrigerated

b)

Improper label

c)

Incomplete volume

d)

Dirty container

29.

Which formed element is suspicious for renal papillary necrosis?

a)

Broad casts

b)

Epithelial cell casts

c)

Fatty casts

d)

Hyaline casts

30.

A urine pH of 7.5–8.0 in a fresh specimen most likely indicates:

a)

UTI with urease-producing bacteria

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Ingestion of vitamin C

d)

Dehydration

31.

Which crystal morphology under polarized light suggests cystinuria?

a)

Hexagonal plates

b)

Coffin-lid

c)

Envelope shapes

d)

Chevron

32.

A parallel line ribosomal RNA hybridization probe is used for:

a)

Identifying yeast in CSF

b)

Confirming Mycobacterium in sputum

c)

Detecting bacteria in urine sediment

d)

Speciating malaria

33.

Which body fluid normally shows >300 cells/µL?

a)

CSF

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Pleural fluid

d)

Peritoneal fluid

34.

In CSF, a protein of 200 mg/dL suggests:

a)

Normal

b)

Mild elevation

c)

Moderate elevation

d)

Severe elevation

35.

A traumatic tap in CSF sample is suggested by:

a)

Higher RBCs in tube 4 than tube 1

b)

Same RBC count in all tubes

c)

Xanthochromia

d)

Neutrophil predominance

36.

What differentiates chylous effusion from pseudochylous in pleural fluid?

a)

Milky appearance

b)

Triglyceride level >110 mg/dL

c)

Presence of cholesterol crystals

d)

Cell count

37.

“Lipid principle” in microscopy refers to:

a)

Quantifying lipids chemically

b)

Using polarized light to highlight lipids

c)

Staining lipids with Sudan III

d)

Filtering lipids from urine

38.

Which stain is best for confirming fungal elements in urine?

a)

Hansel’s stain

b)

Wright-Giemsa

c)

Calcofluor white

d)

Papanicolaou

39.

A “clock-face” sperm head appearance indicates:

a)

Normal morphology

b)

Acrosome defect

c)

Nuclear chromosome arrangement

d)

Teratozoospermia

40.

In semen analysis, an agglutination score of ≥2+ suggests:

a)

Normal fertility

b)

Anti-sperm antibody presence

c)

Low motility

d)

High viscosity

41.

What is the primary interference of vitamin C in urine reagent strips?

a)

False-positive glucose

b)

False-negative blood

c)

False-negative nitrite & glucose

d)

False-positive ketones

42.

Which substance causes red urine but does NOT pass the dipstick blood test?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Porphyrins

c)

Beet pigment

d)

Hemoglobin

43.

An ideal volume of CSF for lab testing is:

a)

0.5 mL

b)

2 mL

c)

5 mL

d)

10 mL

44.

Eosinophils in urine (>1%) suggest:

a)

Acute tubular necrosis

b)

Allergic interstitial nephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis

45.

Which test confirms Bence Jones proteinuria?

a)

Sulfosalicylic acid

b)

Reagent strip

c)

Immunofixation electrophoresis

d)

Heat test

46.

A positive Clinitest result with a negative glucose dipstick indicates:

a)

Renal glucosuria

b)

Presence of reducing sugar other than glucose

c)

False-positive dipstick

d)

Ketone interference

47.

Which centrifugation speed is recommended for routine urine sediment prep?

a)

400 × g for 5 min

b)

1000 × g for 5 min

c)

1500 × g for 3 min

d)

2000 × g for 10 min

48.

Which is NOT a quality control check for reagent strips?

a)

Regular calibration

b)

Reagent expiration check

c)

Temperature monitoring

d)

Running controls with known positives/negatives

49.

  1. Which centrifugation speed is recommended for routine urine sediment prep?

a)

  • A. 400 × g for 5 min

b)

  • B. 1000 × g for 5 min

c)

  • C. 1500 × g for 3 min

d)

  • D. 2000 × g for 10 min

50.

  • Which is NOT a quality control check for reagent strips?

a)

  • A. Regular calibration

b)

  • B. Reagent expiration check

c)

  • C. Temperature monitoring

d)

  • D. Running controls with known positives/negatives

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