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AIRFIELD PROCEDURE

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The effort made to ensure that everything is done to prevent personal injury and damage to an aircraft is defined as:

a)

Flight Safety

b)

Flight Maintenance

c)

Foreign Object Damage (FOD)

2.

What is meant by the term 'Flight Safety'?

a)

Effort made to prevent aircraft damage during flight

b)

Effort made to prevent aircraft personal from injury during flight

c)

Effort made to prevent personal injury and damage to an aircraft

3.

How to create an awareness of what to do in the interest of flight safety?

a)

Safety briefing done weekly

b)

Weekly FOD parade at the workplace

c)

Displaying posters in workshop/hangar

4.

Posters are displayed normally showing the:

a)

Common sense

b)

Work efficiency

c)

Causes of accidents

5.

Safety precautions for all trades in RMAF are given in;

a)

AP 3207

b)

AP 3158 Vol. 2

c)

Aircraft AP Vol. 5

6.

Safety precautions for specific aircraft are detail in:

a)

Ground Handling Note

b)

Repair & Overhaul Manual

c)

Safety Precaution & Servicing Notes

7.

How does radio equipment containing radioactive materials identified?

a)

White coloured band or the word 'Radio Hazard'

b)

Coloured band or the word 'Radiation Hazard'

c)

Coloured band or the word 'Radio Active Hazard'

8.

Radio Active Valve use on aircraft is identified by:

a)

White coloured band or the word 'Radio Hazard'

b)

Coloured band or the word 'Radiation Hazard'

c)

Coloured band or the word 'Radio Active Hazard'

9.

During testing or operation of radar transmission on ground the danger zone is about:

a)

35 feet radius

b)

35 feet per square in.

c)

35 inch per square feet

10.

Why it is dangerous to leave tools and other loose articles in aircraft?

a)

It may foul flying control

b)

Rectification become difficulties

c)

Radiation hazard when contact with radioactive

11.

The following unsafe attitude may foul aircrafts' flying controls:

a)

leaving tools or loose articles inside the aircraft

b)

improper working dress or attire during aircraft servicing

c)

booked-out tool not properly marked during aircraft servicing

12.

Aircraft with ejection seats are indicated by:

a)

Triangle with the words 'DANGER' as the base

b)

Triangle with the line painted red and 'DANGER' in the centre

c)

Inverted triangle with the word 'DANGER' bordering the three sides

13.

Aircraft fitted with ejection seat are indicated by:

a)

an inverted triangle with word 'danger' bordering the three sided

b)

an inverted triangle with the word 'ejection seat' bordering the three sided

c)

an inverted triangle with the word 'don't touch' bordering the three sided

14.

To prevent inadvertent operation, all switches and push button;

a)

Shrouded or hooded

b)

Directly connected to battery

c)

Painted with different colour

15.

The following aircraft Emergency Control Devices are hooded and shrouded:

a)

Power Control Lever

b)

Flight Control Column

c)

Switches & Push Buttons

16.

Aircraft fire extinguisher switches are marked with:

a)

Red colour

b)

Yellow and black

c)

Red and yellow stripes

17.

What is the colour of the disc and streamer that is attached to ejection seat safety pin?

a)

RED

b)

YELLOW

c)

BLACK

18.

The actual position of the ejection seats safety pins can be readily seen by:

a)

the attachment of red stripes

b)

the attachment of red markings

c)

the attachment of red streamers

19.

What must the airman do if the ejection seat pins are not in the correct safety position during servicing work?

a)

Inform the armourer

b)

Put the pin in the correct position and inform the armourer

c)

Inform NCO i/c servicing teams

20.

The removal / fitment of the ejection seat safety pin are carried out by:

a)

The Engineering Officer before and after flight

b)

Any tradesmen under orders from NCO i/c servicing

c)

An armourer under orders from NCO i/c servicing

21.

Who is responsible to ensure that all the ejection seat pins are in correct position before entering the cockpit?

a)

Every tradesman

b)

Armourer tradesman

c)

Experience tradesman

22.

Where is the 'T' handle for F5 AIRCRAFT canopy jettison situated?

a)

PORT side pilot leg brace

b)

front PORT vertical control panel

c)

front STARBOARD vertical control panel

23.

How do you operate canopy jettison 'D' handle of F5 aircraft?

a)

by turning handle clockwise direction

b)

by pulling handle out to full length (6 feet)

c)

by turning handle anti clockwise direction

24.

What is the purpose of 'D' handle?

a)

to eject the seat

b)

for pilot seat adjustment

c)

to jettison canopy without the seat being armed

25.

When opening aircraft canopy on a crash landed aircraft with unconscious pilot:

a)

pull out T-handle

b)

pull out D-handle to full length

c)

try to open the canopy using canopy normal way

26.

The importance of cleaning and washing aircraft is:

a)

Increase visibility

b)

increase reliability

c)

Will extended long distance flight

27.

What is the importance of cleaning and washing aircraft?

a)

Decrease reliability

b)

Extended service life

c)

Increase maintenance cost

28.

What is the importance of cleaning and washing aircraft?

a)

Shorten service life

b)

Increase reliability

c)

Increase maintenance cost

29.

Personnel are NOT TO be employed continuously on petroleum solvent spraying for a period of greater than:

a)

1 month

b)

2 months

c)

3 months

30.

How to prevent accidental ingestion of solvents or degreasing agents?

a)

Not to be poured into drain

b)

Not to be placed in POL Store

c)

Not to be placed in consumer liquid container

31.

Which of the following should NOT BE used as a cleaning agent on an aircraft?

a)

Avtur

b)

Mild Soapy

c)

White Spirit

32.

Cleaning and washing of aircraft using UNAPPROVED cleaning material will eventually cause:

a)

Corrosion

b)

Good appearance

c)

Costly maintenance

33.

Polishing and waxing of an aircraft surface SHOULD NOT to be carried out unless:

a)

Aircraft is extremely dirty

b)

Approval has been granted

c)

Aircraft is going on a VVIP role

34.

The tendency of a liquid fuel to evaporate or change into a vapour to ignite is called:

a)

Volatility

b)

Flash Point

c)

Fuel Misting

35.

What is volatility?

a)

The tendency of a liquid fuel to evaporate

b)

The tendency of fuel changing from vapour state to solid state

c)

The tendency of fuel changing from liquid state to freezing state

36.

Volatility could be described as:

a)

the tendency of liquid fuel changing from liquid state evaporate to vapour state

b)

the tendency of fuel changing from liquid state to freezing state

c)

the tendency of fuel changing from vapour state to solid state

37.

Fuel misting means:

a)

CARBONISATION

b)

ATOMISATION

c)

IONISATION

38.

Which fuel accumulates greater static electricity?

a)

AVTUR

b)

AVGAS

c)

both are the same

39.

What contributes to hazards of spark during refuelling or defuelling?

a)

Aircraft towing vehicle

b)

Stray and static electricity

c)

Safety boot with metal protector

40.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

a)

bonding will equalized the potentials

b)

bonding material is a bad conductor

c)

grounding provide easy path for electricity to flow

41.

How to reduce the static or stray electricity on aircraft?

a)

Proper grounding and bonding

b)

Proper bonding and OFF aircraft power

c)

Proper grounding and OFF aircraft power

42.

The identification for AVTUR 50 with NATO code F34 on the refuelling vehicle is a circular plate identified by:

a)

White lettering on green background

b)

Two 4 inch white stripes on black letter

c)

Two 4 inch red stripes on green background

43.

What are 2 methods of aircraft refuelling?

a)

Open air and confined refuelling

b)

Pressure line and electrical refuelling

c)

Open line refuelling and pressure refuelling

44.

What is a refuelling precaution that should be observed before refueling operation commence?

a)

Fuel must be filtered through a chamois

b)

Disconnect all outside electrical source from the aircraft

c)

Fuel grade to be use must be appropriately identified

45.

Which section of BAT M 3053 will you check for correct grade and type of fuel to be used for an aircraft?

a)

Section 2, Installation Details

b)

Section 1, Leading Particulars

c)

Section 8, Replenishment Certificate

46.

What types of fire extinguishers should be present during refuelling operation?

a)

Foam and CO2

b)

CO2 and Water gas

c)

Water gas and Dry Powder

47.

During fuelling operation, no unnecessary electrical equipment, radio set or engine should be run within:

a)

50 feet

b)

70 feet

c)

90 feet

48.

of fuelling operation from an operating turboprop should not be done within:

a)

75 feet

b)

85 feet

c)

100 feet

49.

Aircraft Defuelling operation must be carried out;

a)

In the open air

b)

Inside the hangar

c)

In Confined area

50.

The primary objective of lubrication is:

a)

Decrease system reliability

b)

Reduce pressure of the component

c)

Reduce friction of the moving parts

51.

What will happen if failure of the lubrication system?

a)

Serious damage through over heating

b)

Cooling system will take place as back up

c)

Pipeline burst will cause high maintenance

52.

What is secondary purpose of the lubricants?

a)

Cooling

b)

Corrosion

c)

Reduce friction

53.

Lubricants are classified by:

a)

Colour

b)

Their origin

c)

Part number

54.

Which of the following is one of the semi-solid lubricants?

a)

Oils

b)

Graphite

c)

Grease

55.

Which type of lubrication is most widely used on gas turbine engines?

a)

Minerals

b)

Synthetics

c)

Vegetables

56.

Any used oil to be placed in a drum for subsequent disposal in the approved manner and the drum is to have an oil identification by:

a)

Clearly marked as "WASTE OIL"

b)

Clearly marked as "DEFUELLED OIL"

c)

Clearly marked as "CONTAMINATED OIL"

57.

Oil replenishment can be carried out by:

a)

Gravity feed only

b)

Pressure feed only

c)

All the above

58.

The type of grease used on universal joint and high speed bearing;

a)

Lime-Based Grease

b)

Soda-Based Grease

c)

Graphite-Based Grease

59.

Why the aircraft to be picketing?

a)

To ensure aircraft is ready for next flight

b)

To prevent aircraft against fore and aft movement

c)

To prevent severely damage to aircraft by strong surface wind

60.

Aircraft parked inside the hangar should be:

a)

Jack-up and off the parking brake

b)

Double-chocked at main and nose/tail wheel

c)

Set the parking brake on and double-chocked at main and nose/tail wheel

61.

An aircraft is double chocked at the main and nose/tail wheel, it is a basic procedure used when:

a)

Picket an aircraft

b)

Park an aircraft outside a hangar

c)

Park an aircraft inside a hangar

62.

What is the precaution taken before placing an aircraft equipped with explosive operated aircrew escape equipment in hangar?

a)

Explosive operated is to be made "SAFE"

b)

Removed to the Role Change Flight for safe custody

c)

Aircraft direction must be parallel with the wind direction

63.

One of the following is to be observed when the fighter aircraft is inside the hangar:

a)

All starter cartridges have been disarmed and received by the Armament Flight for safe custody.

b)

Ensure all starter cartridges, pyrotechnics, ammunition and rockets are to be removed to the Role Change Flight for safe custody

c)

Explosive operated aircrew escape equipment is to be made "SAFE" and safe custody in safety equipment section.

64.

Where would you find the correct information for parking and picketing of aircraft?

a)

Illustrated part catalogue

b)

Unit Servicing Order

c)

Appropriate Aircraft Volume One

65.

How should an aircraft be parked in an open area?

a)

Aircraft tail into wind

b)

Position the aircraft nose into wind

c)

Aircraft direction must be parallel with the wind direction

66.

When parking and picketing an aircraft, the parking brakes should be left:

a)

ON

b)

OFF

c)

Neutral

67.

Pad eye or ties down anchor at parking area are indicated by:

a)

Sign board

b)

Surrounding area with stone

c)

White or yellow paint marking

68.

Tie down anchor for small single-engine aircraft should provide a minimum holding power (strength) of approximately:

a)

3,000 kg each

b)

3,000 lbs each

c)

3,000 psi each

69.

Cable or chain tie down is usually preferred for tying down;

a)

Small Aircraft

b)

Large Aircraft

c)

Rotary Wing Aircraft

70.

The best protection against windstorm damage;

a)

The aircraft is tied down securely

b)

Secure the aircraft in a storm proof hangar

c)

Fly the aircraft out of the impending storm area

71.

Marshalling is a technique where standard signals are used to:

a)

to assist pilot to taxy and park aircraft safely

b)

assist pilot to tow the aircraft

c)

assist pilot by information for aircraft safety during ground running

72.

Who are remaining in charge during aircraft ground maneuvering for taxy and parking?

a)

The pilot

b)

The marshaller

c)

NCO I/C servicing

73.

The aim of Marshaller is to:

a)

Assist pilot to approach and park safely

b)

Instruct pilot to escape from disposal area

c)

Assist in maneuvering of aircraft on ground

74.

During day time marshalling, the signals are given by using:

a)

Marshalling bats only

b)

Marshalling wand

c)

Hands or marshalling bats

75.

What is used during night marshalling?

a)

Marshalling bats only

b)

Marshalling wands

c)

Hands or marshalling bats

76.

How does the marshaller identify themselves to the pilot?

a)

By raising their arm up with palm facing backward

b)

By raising one-arm up and the other pointing to the pilot

c)

By raising their arm up and waving in circular motion

77.

For a marshaller to be more distinctive or clearly seen, what type of garment is required to be worn?

a)

A BLACK waistcoat

b)

A YELLOW waistcoat

c)

A WHITE waistcoat

78.

Where is the position of marshaller for fixed wing aircraft?

a)

Anywhere in front of the aircraft within pilot's range of vision

b)

Forward of aircraft and in line with starboard wing tip within pilot's range of vision

c)

Forward of aircraft and in line with port wing tip within pilot's range of vision

79.

When marshalling aircraft in an area where obstruction is around:

a)

Show the aircraft position to be park.

b)

Wing tip safety men are to be used

c)

Slow down the aircraft to the parking area.

80.

What would you do during night marshalling with one light wand suddenly fails?

a)

Extinguish the other wand and proceed with Signal by hands

b)

Continue marshalling with one wands until serviceable wands is replaced

c)

Extinguish the other wand and the pilot will stop immediately until serviceable wands is replaced

81.

Continuous oxidation of a substance accompanied by emission of heat is defined as:

a)

Ignition

b)

Combustion

c)

Extinction

82.

What are the factors necessary for combustion?

a)

Oil and ignition

b)

Oxygen, oil and fuel

c)

Fuel, oxygen and heat

83.

Types of fires are:

a)

fuel, oxygen and heat

b)

solid, liquid and gas

c)

accident, carelessness and ignorance

84.

The burning of fuel is classified as:

a)

Solid Fire

b)

Electrical Fire

c)

Liquid Fire

85.

What are the factors which causes of fires?

a)

Lack of knowledge and experience

b)

Accident, Carelessness and Ignorance

c)

Working in the wrong procedure and tools

86.

Starvation is one of the factors necessary for fire extinction, this is done by:

a)

Application of water

b)

Cutting off the air supply

c)

Removal of the combustible substances

87.

How are RMAF buildings containing explosives recognized?

a)

The building is fence and restricted

b)

The signboard orange geometrical shape symbol in black square

c)

The signboard with black geometrical shape on a yellow square

88.

Buildings containing explosive have symbol consists of a black geometrical shape on a yellow square with number in the centre of square, the number indicates:

a)

Class of fire

b)

Type of explosives

c)

Number of explosives contained in the building

89.

Any rags impregnated with paint or wax are to be disposed;

a)

in metal container with lid

b)

in an open dustbin

c)

by open burning

90.

Why is it dangerous to use water against fires involving flammable liquid?

a)

Water is a bad conductor and reduce the area of fire

b)

Water difficult to handle during emergency and extend the area of fire

c)

The burning mass would float on the water and extend the area of fire

91.

The dry powder (extinguishant) use in the liquid fuel fire, fire extinguisher is:

a)

potassium sulphate

b)

carbonate of soda

c)

aluminium sulphate

92.

The only fire extinguisher, which is operated by turning upside down;

a)

Soda Acid

b)

Dry Powder

c)

Chemical Foam

93.

Why must telescopic applicator of CO2 extinguisher be insulated?

a)

Prevent cold burn

b)

Prevent electric shock

c)

Prevent slipping and shock burn

94.

Application of CO2 fire extinguisher is covered by insulated handle to prevent:

a)

cold burn

b)

electric shock

c)

slipping and shock burn

95.

recaution must be taken on high pressure system of the crashed aircraft?

a)

Pressure should be vented or reduce

b)

The high pressure components gently handle

c)

High pressure has no effect on the salvage operation

96.

The method of removal to be employed during aircraft salvage will be determined by:

a)

The cost involved to recover and the number of manpower involved

b)

The nature of crash landing, the weight and type of aircraft concerned

c)

The nature of crash landing and capability of salvage equipment used

97.

What condition to apply the 'Drag off Crash Removal' method?

a)

In less urgent case

b)

During emergency only

c)

When no other mean is available

98.

Use of crane during salvage is limited by:

a)

jib radius of the crane

b)

lifting angle of the weight

c)

lifting capacity at the jib radius

99.

What type of servicing to be subjected the OUT OF USE aircraft?

a)

Anti-Robbing Check

b)

Depot Level Servicing

c)

Anti-Deterioration Servicing

100.

When Anti-deterioration servicing is to be carried on aircraft?

a)

Not been subjected for any flown for previous 5 days

b)

Not been subjected for any flown for previous 7 days

c)

Not been subjected for any servicing previous 14 days

101.

Engine installed on OUT OF USE aircraft are to be turned:

a)

Daily

b)

Every 7 days

c)

Before next flight

102.

Engine installed on OUT OF USE aircraft are to be ground run:

a)

Daily

b)

Before next flight

c)

Once in every 7 days

103.

When undercarriage Retraction Test to be carried out which aircraft has NOT FLOWN for a period of one month?

a)

Daily

b)

Every 7 days

c)

Before next flight

104.

What is the purpose of aircraft servicing?

a)

To improve rapidly both appearance and general serviceability of aircraft

b)

To retard and avoid a heavy expenditure of man power and spares of aircraft

c)

To maintain the aircraft in serviceable condition by having routine, periodic, of servicing

105.

A technical work that is needed to enable the aircraft to perform safely and efficiently is termed:

a)

Flight Servicing

b)

Aircraft Servicing

c)

Standard Servicing

106.

The work which covers the replenishing of the aircraft tanks with required amount of fuel, oil, water, oxygen is carried-out at:

a)

Flight Line Servicing

b)

Components Bay Servicing

c)

Maintenance Servicing Flight

107.

Before any servicing is carried out all tradesman must read and understand the;

a)

Illustrated Parts Breakdown

b)

Overhauled Maintenance Manual

c)

Safety Precaution & Servicing Notes

108.

Check A, B, C, D and E are carried out at:

a)

Bay servicing

b)

Flight line servicing

c)

Third line servicing

109.

The work which covers the replenishing of the aircraft tanks, components' security check, role changing and minor adjustment is carried-out by:

a)

Components bay servicing

b)

Maintenance servicing flight

c)

Flight line servicing

110.

Servicing procedures for check A, B and C are contained in:

a)

A.P 3207

b)

Vol. 5 Part 2 Book 1

c)

Safety Precaution and Servicing Notes

111.

What is the Check 'A'?

a)

On Turn Round

b)

After Last Flight

c)

Before Flight Servicing

112.

When Check B servicing is carried out?

a)

On Turn Round

b)

Before Each Flight

c)

After Last Flight of the day

113.

How long does the check B servicing valid?

a)

8 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

72 hours

114.

The Turn Round Servicing is called:

a)

Check 'A'

b)

Check 'B'

c)

Check 'C'

115.

How long does the check C valid?

a)

8 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

72 hours

116.

What is "Check D" servicing?

a)

Standby Servicing

b)

Additional Servicing

c)

Components Bay Servicing

117.

Check E servicing is also known as:

a)

Aircraft Polishing

b)

Aircraft Cleaning

c)

Aircraft Deterioration

118.

The type of servicing that involved cleaning, washing, fumigation and corrosion prevention of aircraft:

a)

Check A

b)

Check C

c)

Check E

119.

Check E is carried out every:

a)

Everyday

b)

At least once a week

c)

At least once a month

120.

Check E servicing is carried out at a discretionary periodicity, which is laid down by:

a)

S.N.C.O

b)

S Eng O

c)

Supervisor (trade)

121.

Scheduled servicing is carried out periodically according to:

a)

Daily hours and monthly date

b)

Calendar dates or flying hours

c)

Weekly and monthly running time

122.

The servicing, repair and rectification of components and its accessories is done in:

a)

Bay Servicing

b)

Flight Line Servicing

c)

Schedule Servicing

123.

All bay servicing components are recorded in:

a)

BAT M 3025

b)

BAT M 3120

c)

BAT M 3053

124.

Who are allowed to start aircraft engine?

a)

Senior Engineering Officer

b)

Senior Non Commission Officer

c)

Qualified or authorized personnel

125.

Who certified or authorized Tradesman to start and run aero-engines?

a)

Senior Commanding Officer

b)

Senior Engineering Officer

c)

Senior Non Commission Officer

126.

Who maintain the record of qualified personnel to ground run the aircraft?

a)

Senior Commanding Officer

b)

Senior Engineering Officer

c)

Senior Non Commission Officer

127.

Who are qualified to run helicopters engine?

a)

Senior Engineering Officer

b)

Qualified helicopters pilots

c)

Senior Non Commission Officer

128.

The composition of an engine starting crew, and their duties and responsibilities can be found in:

a)

Unit Servicing Order

b)

Base Standing Order

c)

Engineering Order Book

129.

Aircraft document to be checked prior to engine ground running;

a)

BAT L 147

b)

BAT M 3053

c)

BAT M 3020

130.

How the aircraft is to be positioned prior to engine ground run?

a)

Tail into wind

b)

Nose into wind

c)

Nose wheel heading to taxiway

131.

Danger zone for single engine aircraft during engine ground run is:

a)

15ft radius ahead of intake and 350 feet behind jet pipe

b)

15ft radius ahead of intake and 300 feet behind jet pipe

c)

15ft radius ahead of intake and 600 feet behind jet pipe

132.

The turbojet engine intake and exhaust hazard areas are categorized as the:

a)

air blast zone

b)

danger zone areas

c)

hazardous zone areas

133.

What is meant by the term 'Ground handling of aircraft'?

a)

Movement of aircraft on ground by taxying

b)

Movement of aircraft on ground by towing or engine power

c)

Movement of aircraft on ground by means of other that its own power

134.

When an aircraft is moved by a ground handling party, who is a person of will be in charge of the party?

a)

At least rank of SNCO

b)

Anybody regardless rank

c)

At any rank of Engineering Officer

135.

Who will decide, if extra persons is needed to ensure safety of the aircraft during towing?

a)

SNCO in charge

b)

Any engine tradesman

c)

Senior Engineering Officer

136.

What is towing speed should be?

a)

Not exceeding 5 mph

b)

Not exceeding 7 mph

c)

Not exceeding 8 mph

137.

When towing an aircraft, the speed must NOT exceed;

a)

8 kph

b)

9 kph

c)

10 kph

138.

Before the aircraft is moved along any taxy track or other part of the airfield, permission for move must be obtained from:

a)

Duty Officer of the base

b)

Duty air traffic control

c)

Duty Fire Tender of the airport

139.

During an aircraft towing task, the angular pull is:

a)

not allowed at all

b)

30 degrees maximum

c)

any angle desired by tractor driver

140.

When the Bridle Method of aircraft towing to be apply?

a)

Emergency situation

b)

Soft or uneven ground

c)

Required for immediate movement

141.

On soft or uneven ground, aircraft can be towed backward by using:

a)

tow bar and steering arm

b)

tractor and towing bar

c)

towing bridle and steering arm

142.

The purpose of the safety device fitted to the tow bar is:

a)

to prevent damage to aircraft if excessive resistance occur

b)

to reduce the load if the towing speed is exceeded

c)

to prevent damage to towing bar during excessive turn