Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PBN Review Quiz

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

PBN stands for:

a)

Personal Best Navigator

b)

Performance Based Next-generation

c)

Probability Based Navigation

d)

Performance Based Navigation

2.

PBN includes Navigation, Communication, Surveillance and Air Traffic Management.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

ICAO Doc. 9613 includes training that both pilots and Air Traffic Controllers should complete.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The 3 components of PBN are:

a)

Navigation Specification, Navigation Application, Navigation Infrastructure

b)

Navigation Sensors, Navigation Application, Navigation Infrastructure

c)

Navigation Specification, Navigation Application, Navigation Certification

d)

Navigation Specification, Navigation Accuracy, Navigation Infrastructure

5.

PBN performance requirements are defined in term of:

a)

Absolute Integrity, Continuity and, Availability

b)

Accuracy, Information, Course and, Availability

c)

Accuracy, Integrity, Availability and, Continuity

d)

Absolute Integrity, Continuity and, Analysis

6.

In PBN altimeters are still used for vertical guidance.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A single flight is required to use only one navigation specification for the entire flight.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

All GNSS systems use GPS

a)

True

b)

False

9.

WGS84 is the agreed upon standard insuring that:

a)

An Aircraft is certified to fly GPS

b)

Ground position and satellite based position calculations match

c)

Satellites fly a correct orbit

d)

Prove the earth is not flat

10.

An Operator who buys a GPS equipped aircraft is PBN approved.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

How many satellites are required for an aircraft to calculate its position?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

12.

During a flight, the Inertial Navigation System (INS) becomes more accurate over time.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What does GBAS stand for?

a)

Ground-Based Accuracy System

b)

Ground-Based Augmentation System

c)

Ground Broadcast And Surveillance

d)

Great Big Airplane Solution

14.

OPMA stands for:

a)

On-board Performance Measurement and Augmentation

b)

On-board Performance Monitoring and Alerting

c)

On-board Primary Measurement and Alerting

d)

None of the above

15.

RNAV aircraft and RNP aircraft use different GNSS signals.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

RAIM is the process that the GNSS receiver uses to assess the accuracy and integrity of the navigation signals being received.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Waypoints specify a geographic location, in term of:

a)

Altitude

b)

Latitude and Longitude

c)

Speed

d)

All of the above

18.

Which letter or letters must be used in Item 10 to indicate a flight is PBN approved.

a)

PBN/

b)

R

c)

N

d)

R/

19.

In a Closed-Path STAR, the distance to fly to the runway is unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Once ATC clears an A/C for a Closed-Path STAR, the A/C must be left on the procedure and cannot be vectored.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

RNAV approaches do not require OPMA.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

RNAV (RNP) RWY 23 is a basic GNSS approach.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The letter “Z” in the approach title indicates:

a)

The pilot must be given the correct zulu time prior to commencing the approach.

b)

The approach goes to multiple runways

c)

There is more than one RNAV approach to this runway

d)

None of the above

24.

ICAO Doc. 4444 lists exact detailed procedures to be followed for every single contingency situation you may encounter.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

In non-radar environment, two arriving aircraft on paralleled RNP 1 tracks can be separated by not less than:

a)

3 nm

b)

5 nm

c)

7 nm

d)

9 nm

26.

A navigation specification based on area navigation that does not include the requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting is:

a)

RNAV specification

b)

RNP specification

c)

PBN specification

d)

NAVAIDS specification

27.

A navigation specification based on area navigation that includes the requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting is:

a)

RNAV specification

b)

RNP specification

c)

PBN specification

d)

NAVAIDS specification

28.

A form of ABAS whereby a GNSS receiver processor determines the integrity of the GNSS navigation signals using only GPS signals or GPS signals augmented with altitude (baro-aiding).

a)

Receiver automatic integrity monitoring (RAIM)

b)

Receiver autonomous inertial monitoring (RAIM)

c)

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)

d)

Receiver autonomous integrity management (RAIM)

29.

A navigation system which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.

a)

RNAV

b)

RNAV route

c)

RNAV system

d)

RNP system

30.

An area navigation system which supports on-board performance monitoring and alerting.

a)

RNP system

b)

RNP

c)

RNP route

d)

RNAV system

31.

The application of a navigation specification and the supporting NAVAID infrastructure, to routes, procedures, and/or defined airspace volume, in accordance with the intended airspace concept

a)

Navigation function

b)

Navigation application

c)

Navigation specification

d)

NAVAID infrastructure

32.

The detailed capability of the navigation system (such as the execution of leg transitions, parallel offset capabilities, holding patterns, navigation databases) required to meet the airspace concept.

a)

Navigation function

b)

Navigation application

c)

Navigation specification

d)

NAVAID infrastructure

33.

A set of aircraft and aircrew requirements needed to support Performance-based Navigation operations within a defined airspace.

a)

NAVAID infrastructure

b)

Navigation function

c)

Navigation specification

d)

Navigation application

34.

Navigation aid infrastructure refers to space-based and or ground-based NAVAIDs available to meet the requirements in the navigation specification.

a)

Navigation application

b)

NAVAID infrastructure

c)

Navigation function

d)

Navigation application

35.

An ATS route established for the use of aircraft capable of employing area navigation.

a)

RNAV route

b)

PBN route

c)

RNP route

d)

ATS route

36.

A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space-based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of selfcontained aids, or a combination of these.

a)

PBN route

b)

RNAV

c)

PBN route

d)

RNAV route

37.

Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.

a)

RNAV system

b)

RNP system

c)

PBN

d)

CNS

38.

An augmentation system that augments and/or integrates the information obtained from the other GNSS elements with information available on board the aircraft.

a)

Aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS)

b)

Performance-based navigation (PBN)

c)

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)

d)

Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS)

39.

The main benefits that result from PBN implementation are:

a)

Reducing infrastructure, increasing operational efficiency

b)

Increasing airspace capacity

c)

Reducing enviormental impact, improving safety

d)

All of the above

40.

Navigation specification applied in Oceanic/Remote areas:

a)

RNAV 10

b)

RNP 4

c)

RNAV 1, RNP 1

d)

a and b

41.

Navigation specification applied in SIDs, STARs in Radar evironment:

a)

RNAV 1

b)

RNAV 5

c)

RNAV 2

d)

a and c

42.

The Performance-based Navigation (PBN) concept specifies that aircraft RNAV and RNP system performance requirements be defined in terms of:

a)
Accuracy, integrity, availability, and continuity of service.
b)
Flight path, communication protocols, navigation aids, and air traffic control procedures.
c)
Weather conditions, pilot experience, aircraft type, and maintenance status.
d)
Speed, altitude, fuel efficiency, and range.
43.

Under PBN, generic navigation requirements are delined based on:

a)
technical specifications
b)
aesthetic design choices
c)

Operational requirements.

d)
marketing strategies
44.

What advantage(s) does Performance-based Navigation provide?

a)
It reduces the need to maintain sensor-specific routes and procedures.
b)
It enhances the need for traditional navigation aids.
c)
It requires more frequent updates to sensor data.
d)
It increases the complexity of navigation procedures.
45.

What is the main difference between RNAV and RNP?

a)
RNAV requires onboard performance monitoring and alerting.
b)
RNP is a type of RNAV without any performance requirements.
c)
RNAV includes the requirement for ground-based performance monitoring.
d)
RNP includes the requirement for onboard performance monitoring and alerting.
46.

Both RNP and RNAV specifications have certain functional requirements, including which of the following?

a)
Flight plan generation function.
b)
Real-time weather data integration.
c)
Automatic altitude adjustment feature.
d)
Navigation data storage function.
47.

Does the PBN concept include vertical performance?

a)
No, the PBN concept does not include vertical performance.
b)
Yes, the PBN concept includes vertical performance.
c)
PBN specifications always require vertical guidance.
d)
Vertical performance is a key aspect of PBN.
48.

For oceanic, remote, en-route, and terminal operations, an RNP specification is designated as

a)
RNP 2
b)
RNP 4
c)
RNP 10
d)
RNP 1
49.

True or False? An aircraft approved for RNP 1 is automatically approved for RNP 4.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

In order to be eligible for RNP or RNAV operations, an aircraft must

a)
Have a statement of compliance in the aircraft maintenance manual.
b)
Have a valid airworthiness certificate for the aircraft.
c)
Have a minimum of two pilots on board for operations.
d)
Have a statement of compliance in the AFM, POH, or operating manual for their avionics.
51.

RNAV is a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired fight path within the coverage of station referenced navigation aids, self-contained aids, or a combination. To use RNAV, the specified RNAV accuracy must be met for how much of the flight time?

a)
95%
b)
100%
c)
85%
d)
90%
52.

When condueting an RNAV DP or STAR procedure, differences between the chart and navigation display are operationally acceptable as long as they do not exceed

a)
3 degrees
b)
10 degrees
c)
1 degree
d)
5 degrees
53.

During a STAR, a "descend via" clearance provides pilots the option to

a)
Descend to the lowest safe altitude immediately.
b)
Descend from a previously assigned altitude to the waypoint altitude at the pilot's discretion.
c)
Descend only when instructed by air traffic control.
d)
Maintain the current altitude until further notice.
54.

IF ATC issues a heading assignment that takes the aircraft off a procedure, do the specified route-accuracy requirements still apply?

a)

No

b)

Yes

55.

Pilots must verify that the current local altimeter at the airport of intended landing is set no later then when reaching the

a)
MDA (Minimum Descent Altitude)
b)
DA (Decision Altitude)
c)
TPA (Traffic Pattern Altitude)
d)
FAF (Final approach fix)
56.

If during an RNP AR approach the lateral deviation exceeds 1xRNP or the vertical deviation exceeds 75 feet, the pilot should

a)
Execute a missed approach, unless visual references are acquired.
b)
Circle around the airport until conditions improve
c)
Climb to a higher altitude and maintain course
d)
Continue the approach without any action
57.

When loading a P-RNAV procedure, which of the following waypoints may be used?

a)
Only waypoints from other procedures
b)
Any random waypoints
c)
Only existing waypoints
d)
Only future waypoints
58.

During B-RNAV operations if RAIM detection function is lost or experiences a loss of integrity, may you continue to use the GPS or WAAS equipment for navigation? Yes. If cross-checking other on-board navigation systems reveals there is still an acceptable level of IFR navigation performance.

a)
No, GPS and WAAS must not be used without RAIM.
b)
Only if the aircraft is above 10,000 feet.
c)

Yes. If cross-checking other on-board navigation systems reveals there is still an acceptable level of IFR navigation performance.

d)
Yes, but only for visual navigation.
59.

During operator approval, operators will normally have authorization to conduct RNP AR approaches using minima associated with RNP 0.3 for a period of 90 days until 100 AR approaches in each aircraft is accumulated. When an approach procedure has no line of minima associated with RNP 0.3 you must

a)
Use standard approach procedures without visual reference.
b)
Fly the procedure in visual meteorological conditions.
c)
Fly the procedure using RNP 0.3 minima.
d)
Conduct the approach in instrument meteorological conditions.
60.

RAIM predictions can be used for flight-planning up to how many hours in advance of the planned departure?

a)
24 hours
b)
48 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
72 hours
61.

A non-WAAS equipped flight must be delayed, canceled, re-routed, or re-planned using a type of navigation other than RNP, if there is a continuous predicted loss of RAIM for how long?

a)
3 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
10 minutes
d)
5 minutes
62.

What is the primary navigation system to support RNP APCH procedures?

a)
VOR
b)
ILS
c)
NDB
d)
GPS
63.

RNAV (GPS) approaches with an LNAV/VNAV line of minima are required to contain a low and high temperature limitation. Under what condition may you operate to the LNAV/VNAV DA when the actual temperature is above or below the limitations?

a)
When the aircraft is flying at a higher altitude than usual.
b)
When the temperature is within the normal operating range.
c)
When the aircraft baro-VNAV system has temperature compensation capability.
d)
When the aircraft is equipped with a standard VNAV system.
64.

In order to conduct RNP AR approaches, what of the following equipment must be operational?

a)
Class A Navigation System must be operational.
b)
Class C Terrain Awareness and Warning System must be operational.
c)
Class B Terrain Awareness and Warning System must be operational.
d)
Class A Terrain Awareness and Warning System must be operational.
65.

During en route RNP operations (RNP 2, 4, and 10) on flexible route structures, is manual entry of waypoints permitted?

a)
No, manual entry of waypoints is not allowed at all.
b)
Yes, but only for RNP 1 operations.
c)
Manual entry is allowed only for fixed route structures.
d)
Yes, manual entry of waypoints is permitted for flexible route structures.
66.

In order to conduct B-RNAV operations, the aircraft must be equipped with one or more navigation systems. If only one system is used, which of the following conditions must be met in the event of a failure?

a)
The system must rely solely on GPS for navigation.
b)
The system must be able to navigate without any external aids.
c)
The system must be able to continue navigation using ground-based aids.
d)
The system must switch to manual navigation only.
67.

During RNP APCH procedures, pilots must confirm that the system has initiated a transition from terminal mode to the approach mode at what distance prior to the FAF?

a)
2NM
b)
5NM
c)
3NM
d)
1NM
68.

During operations on the initial and intermediate segments and for the missed approach of an RNP APCH procedure, the lateral Total System Error (TSE) and along-track (ATRK) error must be within:

a)
±1.5 NM for at least 85% of the total flight time
b)
±1 NM for at least 95% of the total flight time
c)
±0.5 NM for at least 98% of the total flight time
d)
±2 NM for at least 90% of the total flight time
69.

At certain locations, the airspace or obstacle environment may require an RNP capability of less than 1.0 during a missed approach:

a)
True
b)
False
70.

Each published line of minima for an RNP AR IAP has an associated RNP value. All RNP AR approaches will have an RNP value of:

a)
0.1
b)
0.5 or more
c)
0.3 or less
d)
1.0
71.

If during an RF leg, you begin a missed approach prior to the decision altitude, what speed limitation must you maintain?

a)
Maintain the segment speed to the DA and then any further limitations for the MAS.
b)
Maintain a speed below the minimum safe speed until landing.
c)
Climb to the minimum altitude immediately without speed restrictions.
d)
Reduce speed to approach speed until reaching the ground.
72.

In order to be considered eligible for B-RNAV, aircraft equipment must meet a minimum track keeping accuracy equal to or better than

a)
+7 NM
b)
+3 NM
c)
+5 NM
d)
+10 NM
73.

During normal RNP AR operations, the vertical deviation during the Final Approach Segment (FAS) must be within:

a)
75 feet
b)
50 feet
c)
100 feet
d)
150 feet
74.

Which of the following is a minimum required system function for conducting B-RNAV/RNAV 5 operations?

a)
50 feet
b)
100 feet
c)
200 feet
d)
75 feet
75.

During B-RNAV operations if RAIM detection function is lost or experiences a loss of integrity, may you continue to use the GPS or WAAS equipment for navigation?

a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
76.

May you continue to use the GPS or WAAS equipment for navigation?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

77.

RNAV systems included several Failure Alerts including:

a)
Failure Alerts for engine malfunctions
b)
Failure Alerts for cabin pressure issues
c)
Failure Alerts for RNAV systems include alerts for on-board RNAV computer failures and unreliable RNAV Navigation Reference Sources.
d)
Alerts for fuel system failures
78.

Using RNAV as the Aircraft Navigation System can: Reduce flight time, Save on fuel costs due to less flight time, and Reduce pollution due to less flight time

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

79.

LNAV provides both lateral and vertical navigation

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

80.

A Waypoint is a LATITUDE-LONGITUDE position

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

VNAV approaches are used for both lateral and vertical approaches

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

82.

RNAV can use GPS, VOR/DME, INS, or LORAN for a Navigation Reference Source

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

83.

RNAV only provides IFR aircraft position information and can't provide time or distance to next waypoint

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

RNAV computer requires stored data that includes:

a)
Flight Altitude Data
b)
Weather Conditions Data
c)
Aircraft Maintenance Records
d)
Route of Flight Waypoint Data
85.

VOR Stations provide a North Orientation 360 degree Navigation Reference Source to allow the RNAV computer to orient to North

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

86.

In the PBN specifications, the number included in the specification name refers to ?

a)

The required accuracy, in NM, of the navigation system

b)
The author of the specification.
c)
The date of publication.
d)
The intended audience for the specification.
87.

Which of the following is not a basic function required in all PBN navigation specifications

a)
Facility to navigate using visual aids
b)
Facility to adjust flight altitude
c)
Facility to communicate with air traffic control
d)
Facility to operate offset parallel tracks
88.

Which of the navigation aids may be used in PBN

a)
MLS
b)
NDB
c)
ILS
d)

GNSS, VOR, DME and INS

89.

Which of the following statements regarding PBN model

a)
True
b)
Navigation system error is the primary concern in PBN model
c)
PBN model does not involve navigation systems
d)
Navigation system error is always significant
90.

A requirement of PBN is that the total system error is ...

a)

is equal or less than the required accuracy of the navigation specification for at least 95% of the time

b)
maximized
c)
constant
d)
randomized
91.

The navigation database ...

a)
You can operate without confirming the navigation database.
b)
The navigation database must be confirmed valid every week.
c)
The navigation database is valid for 30 days.
d)

Is valid for 28 days and must be confirmed valid prior to operating

92.

When completing a flight plan for a flight which is intended to include operations in PBN airspace

a)
Block 18 can have up to 10 entries.
b)
Block 18 is not relevant for PBN airspace.
c)
Block 18 contains information on fuel capacity.
d)
Block 18 is limited to 8 entries.
93.

When considering a notified RAIM outage that affects a planned Night...

a)

A RAIM outage of more than 5 minutes will require a re-routing or re-timing of the flight

b)
The flight can proceed as planned without changes.
c)
No action is needed for a RAIM outage.
d)
A RAIM outage of any duration does not affect the flight.
94.

When planning for an RNP APCH arrival at destination, it is necessary to ensure

a)
Only the destination must be prepared for a loss of RNP.
b)
Alternate airports are not required for RNP approaches.
c)
No specific preparations are needed for RNP arrivals.
d)
Sufficient means are available to permit either the destination or alternate in the event of a loss of the RNP.
95.

In order to operate on PBN routes and procedures


a)
PBN operations can be conducted without any specific training.
b)
Aircraft certification is not necessary for PBN operations.
c)
Aircraft certification and pilot approval are required for PBN operations.
d)
Only pilot approval is needed for PBN operations.
96.

When operating in PBN airspace, if a system failure results in loss of PBN capability

a)

AIC must be notified using the phrase, unable RNP due...

b)
unable RNP due to pilot error
c)
unable RNP due to weather conditions
d)
unable RNP due to equipment malfunction
97.

The radius to fix leg.......?

a)
RF leg radius is useable in terminal airspace by aircraft certified for RF legs.
b)
All aircraft can use RF legs regardless of certification.
c)
RF legs are not permitted in terminal airspace.
d)
RF leg radius is only for high-altitude flights.
98.

Why must a SID or STAR be selected by name from the database rather than be created manually by insertion of the waypoints?

a)
A SID or STAR can be created manually without any issues.
b)
The RNP value is not relevant for SID or STAR procedures.
c)
Manual insertion of waypoints is always preferred for accuracy.
d)

The database coding of the procedure includes additional information such as the RNP value for alerting

99.

The database coding of the procedure includes additional information such as the RNP value for alerting Direct to...

a)
RNP value for flight path optimization
b)
RNP value for alerting actions requested by ATC
c)
RNP value for fuel efficiency calculations
d)
RNP value for weather avoidance procedures
100.

Approach operations are classified either 2D or 3D. A 3D approach operation... __________, allowing for height loss after the commencement of a missed approach

a)
is performed to DA
b)
is performed without height loss
c)
is performed at a fixed altitude
d)
is performed to MDA
101.

Which statement is correct regarding approach operations to LNAV/VNAV minima?

a)
Only Baro-VNAV can be used for LNAV/VNAV approaches.
b)
SBAS is not applicable for LNAV/VNAV minima.
c)
Either Baro-VNAV or SBAS may be used to operate LNAV/VNAV approaches.
d)
Both Baro-VNAV and SBAS are prohibited for these approaches.
102.

Missed approaches based on PBN navigation specifications ....

a)
Missed approaches are only applicable to visual flight rules.
b)
Missed approaches cannot be used under any circumstances.
c)
Missed approaches are only allowed if PBN capability is lost.
d)
Missed approaches may be used if the reason was not the loss of PBN capability.
103.

Verification of the approach procedure prior to operation...

a)
Verification with a random chart
b)
Ignoring the chart completely
c)

Should be performed by comparison with the appropriate chart

d)
Using outdated charts for comparison
104.

For RNP APCH approaches using Baro-VNAV, the temperature published on the chart....

a)
is the maximum temperature at which the use of the procedure is authorized
b)
is the average temperature for the procedure
c)
is the temperature range for safe operation
d)

Is the minimum temperature at which the use of the procedure is authorized

105.

Vertical deviation is displayed to the pilot using a deviation scale. These scales .... Will be calibrated such that full scale deflection represents the maximum allowed deviation from the vertical path

a)

Will be calibrated such that full scale deflection represents the maximum allowed deviation from the vertical path

b)
The scales are fixed and do not represent any deviation.
c)
The scales are calibrated to show only the current deviation.
d)
The scales indicate the average deviation over time.
106.

RNAV Approach reporting requirement

a)
Every unsuccessful RNAV operation shall be reported.
b)
All RNAV operations must be reported regardless of success.
c)
Only successful RNAV operations shall be reported.
d)
Unsuccessful RNAV operations do not need to be reported.
107.

RTF phraseology to fly RNAV Approach

a)

TWR DOP601 REQUEST RNAV APPROACH VIA ADURA RWY 27

b)
DOP601 REQUEST RNAV DEPARTURE VIA ADURA RWY 27
c)
DOP601 REQUEST ILS APPROACH VIA ADURA RWY 27
d)
TWR DOP601 REQUEST RNAV APPROACH VIA ADURA RWY 09
108.

Can you accept vectors to the FAF/FAP of an RNAV approach?

a)

Yes

b)

No

109.

What must you take into account when planning flights to airfields with only PBN approaches?

a)
Only use visual flight rules for navigation.
b)
Ensure all flights are conducted at night.
c)
Select airfields based on runway length only.
d)

You can only plan an airfield as an IFR alternate with only

RNAV approaches it the destination airfield has published conventional approaches.

110.

RNP AR missed approaches will use the same RNP as the RNP AR approach. False.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

P-RNAV is defined as RNAV that meets a track keeping accuracy that is equal to or better than:

a)
+2 NM for 90% of the flight time
b)
+1 NM for 95% of the flight time
c)
+0.5 NM for 95% of the flight time
d)
+1.5 NM for 98% of the flight time