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Worksheets[Examination 2] Physics for Engineers
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Angular momentum is the product of __________.
a)
moment of inertia and linear speed
b)
moment of area and angular speed
c)
moment of inertia and angular speed
d)
moment of area and linear speed
2.
"When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant". This statement is known as:
a)
Conservation of energy
b)
Conservation of impulse
c)
Conservation of linear momentum
d)
Conservation of angular momentum
3.
What particles will experience tangential acceleration?
a)
Those particles whose angular speed changes
b)
Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
c)
All particles
d)
Those particles whose angular speed is zero.
4.
The __________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about the axis.
a)
moment of mass
b)
moment of area
c)
moment of inertia
d)
torque
5.
The __________ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
a)
inertia
b)
mass moment
c)
torque
d)
moment
6.
When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in __________.
a)
unstable equilibrium
b)
stable equilibrium
c)
rotational equilibrium
d)
translational equilibrium
7.
Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?
a)
A cone balanced on its apex.
b)
A cone balanced on its base.
c)
A cone on its side.
d)
A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
8.
Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?
a)
A cone balanced on its apex.
b)
A cone balanced on its base.
c)
A cone on its side.
d)
A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
9.
A device that transmits force or torque is called __________.
a)
mechanical tool
b)
machine
c)
axle
d)
wedge
10.
If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?
a)
stable equilibrium
b)
neutral equilibrium
c)
unstable equilibrium
d)
translational equilibrium
11.
When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in __________.
a)
unstable equilibrium
b)
stable equilibrium
c)
rotational equilibrium
d)
translational equilibrium
12.
Which of the following in NOT a basic machine?
a)
lever
b)
incline plane
c)
hydraulic press
d)
wedge
13.
Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
a)
It is always inside the object.
b)
It is always outside the object.
c)
It is always at its geometric center.
d)
It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.
14.
What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
a)
Density
b)
Weight density
c)
Relative density
d)
Specific density
15.
What is defined as the weight per unit volume?
a)
Density
b)
Weight density
c)
Relative density
d)
Specific density
16.
All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
a)
1000 kg/m³
b)
62.4 lb/ft³
c)
10 g/cm³
d)
9.81 kN/m³
17.
The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?
a)
density
b)
weight density
c)
viscosity
d)
specific gravity
18.
What is another term for specific gravity?
a)
density
b)
weight density
c)
relative density
d)
viscosity
19.
What is the average pressure of the earth's atmosphere at sea level?
a)
1.042 bar
b)
1.021 bar
c)
1.013 bar
d)
1.037 bar
20.
"An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid". This statement is known as __________.
a)
Bernoulli's energy theorem
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes principle
d)
Torricelli's theorem
21.
The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
a)
Bernoulli's energy theorem
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes principle
d)
Reynold's theorem
22.
The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
a)
Bernoulli's energy theorem
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes principle
d)
Reynold's theorem
23.
The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.
a)
pressure of a liquid
b)
density of a liquid
c)
Reynold's number
d)
viscosity of a liquid
24.
The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.
a)
frequency
b)
oscillation
c)
period
d)
amplitude
25.
What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Period
d)
Oscillation
26.
The period of the simple harmonic motion is __________ its amplitude.
a)
directly proportional to
b)
inversely proportional to
c)
equal to
d)
independent of
27.
What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
a)
Damped harmonic motion
b)
Pendulum
c)
Simple harmonic motion
d)
Damped harmonic oscillation
28.
In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
a)
Force
b)
Period
c)
Frequency
d)
Friction
29.
The __________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a reaction force on its pivot.
a)
center of gravity
b)
center of oscillation
c)
axis of oscillation
d)
center of mass
30.
What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
a)
Sound
b)
Resonance
c)
Wave
d)
Beat
31.
What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?
a)
Beat
b)
Resonance
c)
Doppler effect
d)
Shock wave
32.
What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds that of sound?
a)
Shock wave
b)
Mach wave
c)
Beat wave
d)
Sonic wave
33.
What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source and an observer?
a)
Superposition principle
b)
Shock effect
c)
Doppler effect
d)
Wave motion
34.
What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the waves travel?
a)
Longitudinal waves
b)
Transverse waves
c)
Wave motions
d)
Shock waves
35.
Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below_______.
a)
20 Hz
b)
30 Hz
c)
40 Hz
d)
50 Hz
36.
Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above________.
a)
10,000 Hz
b)
20,000 Hz
c)
30,000 Hz
d)
40,000 Hz
37.
What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?
a)
Longitudinal waves
b)
Transverse waves
c)
Wave motions
d)
Shock waves
38.
"When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves. This statement is known as____________.
a)
Mach principle
b)
Doppler principle
c)
Principle of superposition
d)
Wave motion principle
39.
What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either of the original waves?
a)
Local interference
b)
Ordinary interference
c)
Constructive interference
d)
Destructive interference
40.
What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the original waves?
a)
Local interference
b)
Ordinary interference
c)
Constructive interference
d)
Destructive interference
41.
The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called_______.
a)
beats
b)
frequency
c)
gain
d)
intensity
42.
At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
a)
10 W/m²
b)
0.1 W/m²
c)
1 W/m²
d)
0.01 W/m²
43.
For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of W/m2?
a)
10^-10
b)
10^-11
c)
10^-12
d)
10^-13
44.
How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
0.1
d)
0.5
45.
The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the________.
a)
Wave factor
b)
Supersonic number
c)
Sonic number
d)
Mach number
46.
"The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant". This statement is known as_______.
a)
Principle of conservation of attraction
b)
Principle of conservation of charge
c)
Coulomb's law
d)
Principle of superconductivity
47.
"The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them". This statement is known as_______.
a)
Coulomb's law
b)
Kirchhoff's law
c)
Lenz's law
d)
Faraday's law
48.
What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would experience a force?
a)
Energy field
b)
Electric field
c)
magnetic field
d)
Force field
49.
The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume associated
a)
capacitance
b)
polar energy
c)
energy density
d)
dielectric distance
50.
What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential difference between the plates?
a)
Resistance
b)
Inductance
c)
Capacitance
d)
Potential difference
51.
What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric field set up across a sample of it?
a)
Electronegativity
b)
Potential difference
c)
Dielectric constant
d)
Energy density
52.
The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy when it is not connected to any external circuit is called its_______.
a)
electromechanical force
b)
electrostatic force
c)
electromotive force
d)
internal resistance
53.
. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?
a)
Luminous intensity
b)
Luminous efficiency
c)
Illumination
d)
Lumen
54.
What refers to the brightness of a light source?
a)
Luminous intensity
b)
Illumination
c)
Luminous flux
d)
Luminous efficiency
55.
What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?
a)
1 candela
b)
1 flux
c)
1 lumen
d)
All of these
56.
What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting point?
a)
Footcandle
b)
Candela
c)
Lux
d)
Lumen
57.
What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
a)
Luminous intensity
b)
Luminous flux
c)
Luminous efficiency
d)
Illumination
58.
Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in radius at whose center is a __________ light source that radiates equally well in all directions.
a)
0.1 candela
b)
1.0 candela
c)
10 candela
d)
100 candela
59.
What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?
a)
2π lm
b)
4π Ιm
c)
8π Im
d)
π Im
60.
What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?
a)
Luminous factor
b)
Luminous efficiency
c)
Luminous intensity
d)
Illumination
61.
What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
a)
Mercury
b)
Inert gas
c)
Phosphor
d)
Argon
62.
What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular medium?
a)
Index of refection
b)
Total internal reflection
c)
Index of dispersion
d)
Index of refraction
63.
"The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the speeds of light in the two media". This statement is known as_________.
a)
Huygen's principle
b)
Snell's law
c)
Maxwell's hypothesis
d)
Doppler's effect
64.
Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?
a)
Dispersion
b)
Reflection
c)
Refraction
d)
Incidence
65.
"Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time is the envelope of these wavelets" This statement is known as _______________.
a)
Huygen's principle
b)
Snell's law
c)
Maxwell's hypothesis
d)
Doppler's effect
66.
What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the same phase of oscillation?
a)
Gamma ray
b)
Wavefront
c)
Electromagnetic wave
d)
Microwave
67.
What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?
a)
Flux
b)
Refraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Dispersion
68.
What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?
a)
Spectrum
b)
Luminance
c)
Facet
d)
Reflection
69.
What is the index of refraction of air?
a)
1.3
b)
1.03
c)
1.003
d)
1.0003
70.
What is the index of refraction of water?
a)
1.33
b)
1.63
c)
1.43
d)
1.53
71.
What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual focal point?
a)
Magnifying lens
b)
Convergent lens
c)
Divergent lens
d)
Microscopic lens
72.
What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?
a)
Magnifying lens
b)
Convergent lens
c)
Divergent lens
d)
Microscopic lens
73.
Which one best describes the meniscus lens?
a)
It has only concave surfaces.
b)
It has only convex surfaces.
c)
It has no concave surface and no convex surface.
d)
It has one concave surface and one convex surface.
74.
What is the distance from lens to its focal point called?
a)
Focal index
b)
Focal factor
c)
Focal length
d)
All of these
75.
In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height?
a)
Linear magnification
b)
Object magnification
c)
Image magnification
d)
Height magnification
76.
If the linear magnification of an optical system is than one, it means that:
a)
the image and the object are of the same size
b)
the image is larger than the object
c)
the image is smaller than the object
d)
the image may be larger or smaller than the object
77.
A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive photographic film?
a)
Magnifying lens
b)
Convergent lens
c)
Divergent lens
d)
Microscopic lens
78.
One of the common defects of vision is ________ commonly known as nearsightedness.
a)
hyporopia
b)
hyperopia
c)
myopia
d)
minorpia
79.
One of the common defects of vision is ________ commonly known as farsightedness.
a)
hyporopia
b)
hyperopia
c)
myopia
d)
minorpia
80.
What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?
a)
Magnifying lens
b)
Convergent lens
c)
Divergent lens
d)
Microscopic lens
81.
What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?
a)
Magnifying lens
b)
Convergent lens
c)
Divergent lens
d)
Microscopic lens
82.
What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different planes?
a)
Astigmatism
b)
Myopia
c)
Hyperopia
d)
Presbyopia
83.
In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
a)
Magnifying power
b)
Linear magnification
c)
Angular magnification
d)
Object magnification
84.
What type of mirror that curves inward its center converges parallel light to a single real focal light?
a)
Convex mirror
b)
Concave mirror
c)
Spherical mirror
d)
Chromatic mirror
85.
What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center diverges parallel light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
a)
Convex mirror
b)
Concave mirror
c)
Spherical mirror
d)
Chromatic mirror
86.
What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a single plane of polarization?
a)
Quartz
b)
Fiber optic
c)
Polaroid
d)
Tounnaline
87.
In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects?
a)
Coherent power
b)
Brewster's power
c)
Polarization power
d)
Resolving power
88.
The resolving power of an equal system is ________ the objective lens of the optical system?
a)
directly proportional
b)
inversely proportional
c)
equal
d)
not related to
89.
What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths?
a)
Coherence
b)
Reflection
c)
Refraction
d)
Diffraction
90.
What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of light that is diffracted?
a)
Diffraction grating
b)
Polarization
c)
Coherent waves
d)
Reflection
91.
The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called ________.
a)
Absorption effect
b)
Spectrum emission
c)
Quantum effect
d)
Photoelectric effect
92.
What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on matter?
a)
Beta rays
b)
Alpha rays
c)
X-rays
d)
De Broglie waves
93.
What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving relative to an observer?
a)
Exclusive principle
b)
Quantum theory of mass
c)
State of mass
d)
Relativity of mass
94.
What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromic, coherent beam of light?
a)
Spectral device
b)
Prism
c)
Fiber optic
d)
Laser
95.
What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?
a)
Excited spectrum
b)
Light spectrum
c)
Absorption spectrum
d)
Emission spectrum
96.
What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is passed through it?
a)
Excited spectrum
b)
Light spectrum
c)
Absorption spectrum
d)
Emission spectrum
97.
Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its ________.
a)
spin
b)
shell
c)
state
d)
quantum number
98.
What is the distance on a lens to its focal point called?
a)
Focal index
b)
Focal factor
c)
Focal length
d)
All of these
99.
What does LASER stands for?
a)
Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation
b)
Light amplification by state emission of radiation
c)
Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
d)
Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation
100.
A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following?
a)
Weight of the body
b)
Air resistance and gravitational pull
c)
Gravitational pull
d)
Air resistance
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