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Partnership Law Quiz

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a contract of sale, which party bears the risk of loss if the goods are destroyed without fault before the transfer of property?

a)

Seller

b)

Buyer

c)

Both

d)

None

2.

The document transferring property from the seller to the buyer is called:

a)

Bill of lading

b)

Delivery note

c)

Invoice

d)

Deed of sale

3.

The unpaid seller can resell the goods if:

a)

The buyer rejects the goods

b)

The buyer breaches the contract

c)

The goods are perishable

d)

Both b and c

4.

If goods perish after the contract but before delivery, the contract is:

a)

Valid

b)

Void

c)

Voidable

d)

Enforceable

5.

An agreement to sell becomes a sale when:

a)

The goods are delivered

b)

Ownership is transferred

c)

Payment is made

d)

All conditions are fulfilled

6.

Who is responsible for the delivery of goods in a contract of sale?

a)

Buyer

b)

Seller

c)

Auctioneer

d)

Carrier

7.

The right of stoppage in transit is available only to:

a)

A paid seller

b)

An unpaid seller

c)

A consignee

d)

The carrier

8.

The buyer's right to examine the goods before acceptance is under:

a)

Section 35

b)

Section 34

c)

Section 33

d)

Section 32

9.

In the event of a breach of contract, the buyer can claim:

a)

Specific performance

b)

Damages

c)

Both

d)

None

10.

Where delivery is to be made by the seller in installments, the buyer can:

a)

Refuse all deliveries if one installment is defective

b)

Accept defective goods

c)

Reject all future installments

d)

Sue for breach of contract

11.

Delivery of goods means:

a)

Transfer of ownership

b)

Transfer of possession

c)

Transfer of title

d)

Transfer of risk

12.

The sale of goods act covers:

a)

Movable property

b)

Immovable property

c)

Both

d)

Intangible property

13.

Goods which cannot be legally sold are:

a)

Legal goods

b)

Contingent goods

c)

Stolen goods

d)

Ascertained goods

14.

What is the primary purpose of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a)

To govern the formation of companies

b)

To regulate partnerships and their dissolution

c)

To control sole proprietorships

d)

To manage public companies

15.

What is the minimum number of partners required to form a partnership under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

7

16.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a partnership?

a)

Mutual agency

b)

Limited liability

c)

Sharing of profits

d)

Joint management

17.

A partnership is defined under which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a)

Section 4

b)

Section 5

c)

Section 7

d)

Section 9

18.

What does 'mutual agency' in a partnership imply?

a)

Each partner can act on behalf of the other partners

b)

Partners must act independently

c)

Only the managing partner can act for the firm

d)

Each partner is restricted to their own business dealings

19.

In a partnership firm, which of the following is NOT considered a partner?

a)

Sleeping partner

b)

Nominal partner

c)

Minor partner

d)

Silent partner

20.

According to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership. Which section deals with this?

a)

Section 6

b)

Section 7

c)

Section 10

d)

Section 11

21.

The 'Partnership Deed' is also known as?

a)

Partnership Agreement

b)

Partnership Act

c)

Partnership Document

d)

Partnership Order

22.

What is the primary method to dissolve a partnership firm?

a)

Court order

b)

Mutual agreement

c)

Death of a partner

d)

Government order

23.

Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, deals with the registration of a partnership firm?

a)

Section 58

b)

Section 60

c)

Section 62

d)

Section 64

24.

In the absence of an agreement, how are profits and losses shared among partners?

a)

Equally

b)

As per capital contribution

c)

As per seniority

d)

As per the decision of the managing partner

25.

Which of the following is not a type of partner?

a)

Active partner

b)

Silent partner

c)

Minor partner

d)

Limited partner

26.

The authority of a partner to act on behalf of the firm arises from:

a)

Partnership Deed

b)

The consent of all partners

c)

Mutual agreement

d)

The Indian Partnership Act, 1932

27.

In the case of dissolution by an order of the Court, which section is relevant?

a)

Section 39

b)

Section 42

c)

Section 43

d)

Section 45

28.

Which section addresses the dissolution of partnership by the happening of certain events?

a)

Section 40

b)

Section 41

c)

Section 42

d)

Section 43

29.

What is the legal position of a partner's liability in a partnership firm?

a)

Limited to their capital contribution

b)

Limited to a specific amount

c)

Unlimited and joint

d)

Limited to the extent of partnership assets

30.

Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a partner is entitled to:

a)

Salary for services rendered

b)

Reimbursement of expenses

c)

Profit share as agreed

d)

Interest on capital

31.

Which section deals with the rights of partners to participate in the business?

a)

Section 15

b)

Section 16

c)

Section 17

d)

Section 18

32.

Which of the following is a ground for the dissolution of a partnership under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a)

Change in the business address

b)

Transfer of partnership interest

c)

Insolvency of a partner

d)

Appointment of a new partner

33.

In a partnership, the sharing of losses is:

a)

Proportional to capital contribution

b)

As per the agreement

c)

Based on the seniority of partners

d)

Based on the profit-sharing ratio

34.

Which section deals with the provision of indemnity by partners for acts done in the ordinary course of business?

a)

Section 16

b)

Section 17

c)

Section 18

d)

Section 19

35.

A partner who does not take part in the day-to-day operations of the business but shares in the profits is known as a:

a)

Silent partner

b)

Nominal partner

c)

Dormant partner

d)

Limited partner

36.

The principle of 'partnership by estoppel' means:

a)

Partnership can be formed by verbal agreement

b)

A person can be treated as a partner if they have acted as one

c)

Partners cannot be held liable for acts done by others

d)

Partnership can exist without a written agreement

37.

Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, discusses the determination of the share of each partner in the case of dissolution?

a)

Section 37

b)

Section 38

c)

Section 39

d)

Section 40

38.

What is the effect of the death of a partner on the partnership firm?

a)

The firm automatically dissolves

b)

The surviving partners must continue the firm

c)

The firm continues until all partners agree to dissolve

d)

The partnership becomes a sole proprietorship

39.

Which section deals with the continuation of partnership after the death of a partner?

a)

Section 45

b)

Section 46

c)

Section 47

d)

Section 48

40.

Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a partner is entitled to which of the following in the absence of an agreement?

a)

A salary for their work

b)

Reimbursement of expenses

c)

A share in profits and losses

d)

Compensation for goodwill

41.

In case of a partnership firm, which of the following is correct regarding liabilities?

a)

Liabilities are shared equally among partners

b)

Liabilities are limited to the amount of capital contributed

c)

Each partner is jointly and severally liable for the firm's liabilities

d)

Liabilities are only covered by firm assets

42.

In the absence of a partnership deed, how are the profits of a partnership firm shared?

a)

According to the capital contribution

b)

As agreed by the partners

c)

Equally among the partners

d)

Based on seniority

43.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a limited partnership?

a)

Unlimited liability for all partners

b)

Limited liability for certain partners

c)

No formal registration required

d)

Mandatory public disclosure of partnership details

44.

Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, allows a partner to retire from the firm?

a)

Section 30

b)

Section 31

c)

Section 32

d)

Section 33

45.

What is the effect of a partner's retirement on the partnership firm?

a)

The firm is dissolved automatically

b)

The retiring partner's liability ceases immediately

c)

The firm continues if agreed by remaining partners

d)

The firm must be re-registered

46.

A partner who represents himself as a partner in a firm but is not actually a partner is known as:

a)

A nominal partner

b)

A dormant partner

c)

A partner by estoppel

d)

A silent partner

47.

Which section provides for the settling of accounts between partners upon dissolution?

a)

Section 40

b)

Section 41

c)

Section 42

d)

Section 43

48.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the dissolution of a partnership under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a)

Completion of the partnership's objective

b)

Court order due to partner misconduct

c)

Bankruptcy of the firm

d)

Transfer of partnership interest

49.

A partnership formed for a specific period is dissolved upon:

a)

The end of the period

b)

The death of a partner

c)

The retirement of a partner

d)

The bankruptcy of a partner

50.

Which of the following is true about a partnership firm's name?

a)

It must be unique and registered

b)

It can be the name of any partner

c)

It does not require registration

d)

It should reflect the nature of business

51.

A partner who has invested in the firm but does not actively participate in its management is known as:

a)

An active partner

b)

A nominal partner

c)

A sleeping partner

d)

A dormant partner

52.

In the event of dissolution, which of the following is considered first for settlement of debts?

a)

Creditors' claims

b)

Partner's loans

c)

Partner's capital

d)

Profit sharing ratio

53.

A partnership deed must be in:

a)

Written form

b)

Verbal form

c)

Electronic form

d)

Notarized form

54.

Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, pertains to the power of a partner to bind the firm?

a)

Section 18

b)

Section 19

c)

Section 20

d)

Section 21

55.

Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, what is the liability of a partner for acts done by another partner?

a)

Limited to the firm's assets

b)

Unlimited and joint

c)

Limited to the partner's share in the firm

d)

Limited to the extent agreed in the partnership deed

56.

Which section covers the provisions related to the transfer of a partner's interest?

a)

Section 25

b)

Section 26

c)

Section 27

d)

Section 28

57.

If a partnership firm is registered, it is entitled to:

a)

Sue and be sued

b)

Operate without restrictions

c)

Avoid paying taxes

d)

Transfer its interest without restrictions

58.

Which section discusses the dissolution of a partnership firm due to an agreement between partners?

a)

Section 40

b)

Section 41

c)

Section 42

d)

Section 43

59.

The 'Partnership Act' was enacted in which year?

a)

1930

b)

1932

c)

1935

d)

1940

60.

Which of the following is a ground for dissolution of partnership by the Court?

a)

Disagreement over profit-sharing

b)

Death of a partner

c)

Insolvency of a partner

d)

Partnership deed violation

61.

In the absence of a partnership deed, how is a partner's share of profits determined?

a)

Based on capital contribution

b)

According to mutual agreement

c)

Equally among all partners

d)

Based on business performance

62.

Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, provides for the settlement of accounts between partners on dissolution?

a)

Section 37

b)

Section 38

c)

Section 39

d)

Section 40

63.

In a partnership, what happens if a partner becomes insolvent?

a)

The partnership automatically dissolves

b)

The partner's share is sold to other partners

c)

The firm continues with the insolvent partner's assets being liquidated

d)

The partner is expelled and the firm continues

64.

A guarantees B's loan from a bank. B fails to repay. The bank sues A.

a)

A is not liable unless B refuses in writing

b)

A is liable only for half of the loan

c)

A is liable as a surety

d)

A can escape liability by denying knowledge of the loan

65.

A gives a guarantee for B's conduct as a cashier. B commits theft.

a)

A is liable as surety

b)

A is not liable as theft is not covered

c)

A is liable only if the bank reports immediately

d)

A can withdraw his guarantee retrospectively

66.

A contracts to indemnify B against legal consequences of a land dispute. B is sued and pays compensation.

a)

A is liable to pay nothing

b)

A is liable to reimburse B

c)

A can wait until B proves innocence

d)

A is not liable as there was no express contract

67.

X guarantees Y's conduct as manager. Y misappropriates funds.

a)

X is discharged if employer delays action

b)

X remains liable

c)

X is liable only if misappropriation is proved in court

d)

X can deny liability due to delay

68.

A promises to pay B's rent if B defaults. B fails to pay for 2 months.

a)

A is not liable

b)

A is liable only if tenancy is not terminated

c)

A is liable to pay the rent to the landlord

d)

A can recover the rent from the tenant directly

69.

X guarantees Y's debt up to ₹50,000. Y defaults on ₹80,000.

a)

X is liable for ₹80,000

b)

X is liable for ₹50,000

c)

X is not liable

d)

X is liable if Y becomes bankrupt

70.

In a contract of indemnity, the indemnifier is liable when:

a)

The indemnified faces a threatened loss

b)

Actual loss occurs

c)

The indemnified signs the contract

d)

The indemnified sells property

71.

P contracts to indemnify Q for legal consequences arising from P's actions. A suit is filed against Q.

a)

Q cannot claim indemnity until judgment is passed

b)

Q can claim as soon as the suit is filed

c)

Q must prove innocence

d)

Q cannot claim unless P joins the suit

72.

M guarantees N's conduct as warehouse keeper. N negligently allows goods to be stolen.

a)

M is not liable for negligence

b)

M is liable as a surety

c)

M is liable only if theft was proven

d)

M is not liable for non-criminal actions

73.

A gives continuing guarantee for B's purchases. A revokes guarantee. B buys goods the next day.

a)

A is liable for those goods

b)

A is not liable as guarantee was revoked

c)

A is liable only if notice was not received

d)

A is liable if contract specifies

74.

A buys goods from B. Goods are destroyed before delivery. Risk is with:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Insurer

d)

Transporter

75.

X buys a TV from Y. The set explodes due to a manufacturing defect.

a)

Y is not liable

b)

X can sue Y for breach of condition

c)

X must claim warranty only

d)

X can sue manufacturer only

76.

A sells a car to B. Ownership passes, but delivery is not done. Who bears risk of loss?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Delivery company

d)

Jointly

77.

B buys goods from C, believing them to be of a certain brand. Goods are not.

a)

There is a breach of warranty

b)

There is a breach of condition

c)

B cannot claim as he inspected

d)

B must return the goods to claim

78.

X contracts to sell 100 kg rice to Y. Before delivery, the warehouse burns down.

a)

Contract is voidable

b)

X must deliver from other stock

c)

Contract becomes void

d)

Y must wait for replacement

79.

A agrees to sell B 500 bags of cement by next week.

a)

This is a sale

b)

This is an agreement to sell

c)

This is a hire contract

d)

This is a consignment

80.

A sells a defective fridge to B. B uses it for 3 months.

a)

B can return it anytime

b)

B is deemed to have accepted it

c)

B can return only if warranty covers

d)

B can claim refund without return

81.

X agrees to sell a car that belongs to Y. X doesn't own it.

a)

Sale is valid

b)

Contract is illegal

c)

Contract is void

d)

B can sue for fraud

82.

In sale of goods, "caveat emptor" means:

a)

Seller must inspect

b)

Buyer must inspect

c)

No one is liable

d)

Warranty is automatic

83.

A sells goods to B, who sells them to C. Later A claims C must return goods.

a)

C is liable

b)

B is liable

c)

C has good title

d)

B must refund C

84.

A gives his watch to B for repairs. B is a bailee.

a)

B must return it in good condition

b)

B can keep it as security

c)

B can lend it to others

d)

B need not take care

85.

A pledges gold with a bank. The bank loses it.

a)

Bank is not liable

b)

A must bear the loss

c)

Bank is liable as bailee

d)

Bank can ask for insurance

86.

A gives goods to B to keep safely. B uses them without permission.

a)

B is liable for breach of duty

b)

A cannot recover

c)

B is not a bailee

d)

B must return it when asked

87.

A gives goods to B for transportation. B refuses to deliver unless paid extra.

a)

B is exercising lien

b)

B is breaching contract

c)

B is pledging the goods

d)

B is acting as seller

88.

X pledges stock with Y and later demands return.

a)

Y must return it only after loan is paid

b)

Y must return on demand

c)

Y must return if pledge was verbal

d)

X cannot demand return

89.

A leaves his cycle at a stand. It's stolen.

a)

Bailment exists

b)

Bailment doesn't exist

c)

Owner is liable

d)

Owner can claim damages

90.

In pledge, the pawnee has right to:

a)

Use the goods

b)

Sell the goods without notice

c)

Retain the goods till debt is paid

d)

Modify the goods

91.

A pledges goods to B. Later, B sells them without notice.

a)

Sale is valid

b)

Sale is invalid

c)

B can't sell unless authorized

d)

A must compensate

92.

A gives a ring for cleaning. It's damaged due to negligence.

a)

Bailor is liable

b)

Bailee is liable

c)

Bailee has no duty

d)

Bailor must repair

93.

Pledge is different from bailment as:

a)

Ownership is transferred

b)

It is for safekeeping

c)

It is always free

d)

It is for security

94.

A appoints B to buy goods. B buys in own name.

a)

A is not bound

b)

A is bound

c)

B is personally liable

d)

Contract is void

95.

Agent acts beyond authority but principal later approves.

a)

Act is void

b)

Act is illegal

c)

Act is ratified and binding

d)

Agent is sued

96.

A gives power to B to sell property. B sells below market rate.

a)

Sale is void

b)

Sale is valid

c)

B is liable for loss

d)

A must compensate buyer

97.

Agent appointed without consideration is:

a)

Not valid

b)

Valid

c)

Requires special contract

d)

Can't perform legal acts

98.

Agent is personally liable when:

a)

Principal is disclosed

b)

Acts within authority

c)

Principal is foreign

d)

Agent is minor

99.

X asks Y to sell goods as agent. Y sells to Z and vanishes with money.

a)

X asks Y to sell goods as agent. Y sells to Z and vanishes with money.

b)

X must bear loss

c)

X can sue Y

d)

Contract is void

100.

Termination of agency takes effect:

a)

Immediately

b)

When agent knows

c)

After a week

d)

When notified to third party

101.

When notified to third party

a)

Principal unaware of facts

b)

Unauthorized act

c)

Mutual consent

d)

Legal contract

102.

A partner acts beyond authority. The firm is liable if:

a)

Other partners knew

b)

It was done in usual course

c)

It was profitable

d)

It caused loss

103.

Partners share profit equally unless:

a)

Law provides otherwise

b)

Partnership deed states otherwise

c)

One partner demands more

d)

There is loss