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Genetics Quiz

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 8hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The genes for the α and α-like chains are clustered tandemly on chromosome 11.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Nerve cells differ from muscle cells mainly because they are specialized for transmitting signals.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Is lac I a structural gene of the lac operon?

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The inducer for the lac operon is alloactose.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

A group of linked genes whose expression is coordinately regulated is an operon.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A transcription factor is a protein that affects the ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe a gene

a)

True

b)

False

7.

All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Is the following an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?

a)

True

b)

False

9.

All of the following are true for miRNA except

a)

True

b)

False

10.

RNA-induced gene silencing is the example of

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Mark the correct sentence regarding alternative splicing

a)

True

b)

False

12.

neurofibrillary tangles are found within AD neurons.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The retinoblastoma protein controls

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Cdc6 complex (cdc6 cdt1) binds to the origin recognition complex (ORC) during S phase.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

APC/C can trigger sister chromatid separation at anaphase

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Retinoblastoma (rb) maintains G1 phase activity until

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Plaques (senile plaques) are beta-amyloid protein aggregates that form clusters of misfolded protein outside the cell bodies.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

neurofibrillary tangles creates because of

a)

True

b)

False

19.

which of the listed proteins play a role in the pathogenesis of AD (Alzheimer Disease)?

a)

True

b)

False

20.

All prion diseases in humans are formally known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Protein A will fold into its native state only when protein B is also present in the solution. However protein B can fold itself into native confirmation without the presence of protein A. Is it true that protein A requires protein B to fold, while protein B does not require protein A?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Chaperone proteins have a function in assisting the folding of other proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

A chart used to determine the offspring of a genetic cross is called a Punnet square.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

An individual with blood type A marries an individual with blood type B. Their offspring could exhibit blood types A, B, AB, or O.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

A man is homozygous recessive for seven(7) of these ten genes, and he is heterozygous for the other three(3). Therefore, he can produce genotypically different types of sperm.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Albinism in humans is inherited as a simple recessive trait. Two normal parents can have an albino child.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

based of Medelian inheritance If crossed two heterozygous plants, how many of the offspring will also be heterozygous?

a)

True

b)

False

28.

In each case where Mendel crossed true breeding plants as parents, the offspring displayed only one of the two traits seen in the parents. This observation supports which principle of genetics?

a)

True

b)

False

29.

for some alleles allelic expression is parent-of-origin specific. This phenomenon is known as genomic imprinting.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A gene interaction in which a pair of recessive genes at one locus prevents expression of a dominant allele at another locus is called

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Intragenic interactions are interactions that occur.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

penetrance and expressivity are influenced by

a)

True

b)

False

33.

A region of DNA is imprinted through:

a)

True

b)

False

34.

MN blood group in humans illustrates Co-dominance pattern of inheritance.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Roughly what percentage of our genome is made up of protein coding sequence? True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

36.

One of the signs for Kuru was uncontrolled laughing, leading to the nickname "laughing disease."

a)

True

b)

False

37.

the center of AD pathogenesis overproduction

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Is 'A and B' a component of the 'quality control' (QC) system?

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Misfolding is influenced by

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Phenotype refers to an organism's physical appearance

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Pseudogenes are DNA sequences, that closely resemble the known genes but are nonfunctional

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Is telocentric chromosome type not found in human beings?

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Is the banding pattern of a chromosome useful?

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Information is needed to construct a karyogram.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

XX male and XY female are rare genetic disorders in humans. They are due to

a)

True

b)

False

46.

X inactivation occurs randomly at about 16th day post fertilization, when the female embryo consists of about 200-400 cells

a)

True

b)

False

47.

the telomere regions gradually shorten with cell division and this correlates with the induction of cellular senescence

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following best describes X chromosome inactivation in females?

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Chromosomes are classified into seven groups.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Mark the correct statement

a)

True

b)

False

51.

X chromosome inactivation normally take place in both male and female

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52.

which type of chromosomes is not seen in human cell

(a)  

53.

Chromosomes are classified as (a)   when the centromere is very close to the center

54.

mark the correct statement about the pseudogenes:

(a)  

55.

Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?

(a)  

56.

the risk of having a baby with Down syndrome is greater among mothers age 35 and older.

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57.

Turner syndrome is caused by a missing or incomplete X chromosome.

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58.

Name of the Trisomy 18 is:

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59.

Match the incorrect statement

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60.

Autosomal trisomies is associated with following characteristic except of

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61.

stocky build, arms that turn out slightly at the elbow, a short webbed neck, and a low hairline at the back of the neck---Common physical symptoms of

(a)  

62.

in male sex chromosome aneuploidy can be due to abnormal numbers of

(a)  

63.

Phenylketonuria PKU is an autosomal dominant disorder

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64.

Presence of a 'cherry-red' spot in the retina characteristic symptom of Tay-Sachs disease

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65.

PKU is caused by a mutation in a

(a)  

66.

A baby girl presents with bilateral inguinal masses that are thought to be hernias but are found to be testes in the inguinal canals. What is her disorder?

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67.

Which disease is treated by a low-phenylalanine diet

(a)  

68.

Tay-Sachs disease shows autosomal recessive inheritance. Parents of a newly diagnosed affected child are referred for genetic counseling. It would be correct to tell them that:

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69.

A genetically diseased father marries with a normal female and gives birth to 3 carrier girls and 5 normal sons. It may be which type of genetic disease?

a)

sex-linked recessive

b)

autosomal dominant

c)

autosomal recessive

d)

mitochondrial

e)

none of the above

70.

Haemophilic man marries a normal(homozygous) woman. Their off springs will be

a)

all normal

b)

all haemophilic

c)

some normal and some haemophilic

d)

none of the above

71.

The most noticeable abnormalities- bowed legs or knock knees characteristic for

a)

hypophosphatemic rickets

b)

osteogenesis imperfecta

c)

rickets

d)

scurvy

e)

none of the above

72.

What gender is most affected by this Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

a)

Girls

b)

Boys

c)

Both

d)

None

73.

Red blood cells only become sickled-shaped when they lose their oxygen

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Sickle cell anemia is:

a)

always caused by the same point mutation in the beta-globin gene.

b)

caused by multiple mutations

c)

not genetic

d)

none of the above

75.

All of the following are examples of mutations which have been observed on a b-thalassemia allele except:

a)

A missense mutation in codon 6 of the b-globin gene, substituting valine for glutamic acid.

b)

A nonsense mutation

c)

A frameshift mutation

d)

None of the above

76.

The major abnormal form of hemoglobin that accumulates in a fetus with the severe form of a-thalassemia (hydrops fetalis) is composed of:

a)

A tetramer of 4 γ -subunits ( γ4)

b)

A tetramer of 4 α -subunits ( α4)

c)

A mixture of α and β subunits

d)

None of the above

77.

α-Thalassemia most commonly results from which of the following genetic lesions?

a)

Gene deletion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

78.

In case of are missing one over the four alpha chain genes, clinical phenotype call

a)

Silent Carrier

b)

Alpha-thalassemia trait

c)

Hemoglobin H disease

d)

Hydrops fetalis

79.

One mitochondria contains dozens of copies of its mitochondrial genome

a)

True

b)

False

80.

mutation rate in nuclear genome much more high then in Mitochondrial genome

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Mark the incorrect statement regarding mitochondria genome

a)

Mitochondria DNA is single stranded.

b)

Mitochondria DNA is circular.

c)

Mitochondria DNA is inherited maternally.

d)

None of the above

82.

which of the following sentence correct about mitochondria genome

a)

All correct

b)

None of the above

c)

Only some are correct

d)

Only one is correct

83.

allolactose ia an co-repressor for lac operon

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84.

Tryptophan, the end-product of the enzymes encoded by the trp operon, therefore acts as a

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85.

In prokaryotes the regulation of gene expression mostly takes place at the level of

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86.

Enhancers have the ability to greatly increase the expression of genes in their vicinity.

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87.

Gene regulation in eukaryotes may be influenced by

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88.

Appropriate cyclin are synthesized at the start of each phase of the cell cycle and destroyed before the cell proceeds to the next phase:

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89.

Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

a)

Both B and C are true.

b)

Only A is true.

c)

None are true.

d)

All are true.

90.

In order to enter the cell cycle a cell must be stimulated from outside. What type of molecule provides this stimulation

a)

mitogens and growth factors

b)

hormones

c)

nutrients

d)

none of the above

91.

Which of the following true bout Cdks

a)

They activate protein by phosphorylating them

b)

They inhibit protein by phosphorylating them

c)

They have no effect on proteins

d)

None of the above

92.

The cell is not allowed to pass the cell cycle restriction point if DNA damage is detected. Which of the following proteins are involved in detection of DNA damage and inhibition of the cycle at the restriction point?

a)

P53

b)

BRCA1

c)

ATM

d)

All of the above

93.

The abnormal conformational transition from alpha helix to beta sheet exposes hydrophobic amino acid residues and promotes protein aggregation.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Which of the following is a possible role of ubiquitin?

a)

Directs degradation

b)

Inhibits degradation

c)

Promotes transcription

d)

None of the above

95.

The different forms of a gene are known as alleles

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96.

If Mr. and Mrs. Fecundity, both having blood type B, have 12 children, 3/4 of whom are type B and 1/4 of whom are O, what are the genotypes of the parents?

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97.

A family of six includes four children, each of whom has a different blood type: A, B, AB and O. What are the genotypes of parents for this trait?

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98.

A man with blood type B, with one parent of blood type O, marries a woman with blood type AB. What will be the theoretical percentage of their children with blood type B?

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99.

Phenotypic ratios of 3:1 in the offsprings explain the principle of _____.

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100.

Rh+ was found to be dominant over the absence of the blood factor (Rh). Under normal Mendelian inheritance, which of the following statements is FALSE?

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101.

Pleiotrophy is- when one gene influences multiple phenotypic traits

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102.

Which of the following is an example of non-Mendelian inheritance?

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103.

The inheritance of an ABO blood group illustrates:

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104.

Phenotypic ratios of 1:2:1 in the offsprings explain the principle of _____.

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105.

A man and his wife both have normal color vision, but a daughter has red-green color blindness, a sex-linked recessive trait. The man sues his wife for divorce on grounds of infidelity. Can genetics provide evidence supporting his case? (does infidelity happen?)

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106.

D and G group of chromosomes bear an 's' (satellite) encodings r RNA gene

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107.

The X is a large submetacentric chromosome

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108.

females with a 46,XY karyotype have lost

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109.

Centromeres - primary constriction site in the chromosomes.

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110.

The type of Polymorphism, that consists of stretches of DNA composed of units of two, three or four nucleotides repeated between one and few dozen time at a particular site is:

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111.

For DNA fingerprinting largely used

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112.

The human genome contains approximately

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113.

which of the following correct regurding Telomeres

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114.

Patients with Kleinfelter Syndrome are typically female

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115.

which of the listed pregnant women has high risk having a Down syndrome fetus.

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116.

Which syndrome is a syndrome caused by the deletion of a small piece of chromosome 22?

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117.

Which of the following is the cause of complete monosomy?

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118.

Which of the following is not a symptom of Turner's syndrome?

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119.

Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female is

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120.

Rett syndrome X-Linked Dominant Disorders with equal Male and fimale Lethality

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121.

Myotonic dystrophy -DM1 is caused by the expansion of the trinucleotide repeat CTG in the 3.-untranslated region - 3′ UTR- of the DMPK gene.

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122.

Rett syndrome and some variant forms of the condition are caused by mutations in the

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123.

causes of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a deficiency of 21-hydroxylase which is produced in

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124.

mutations in an X-linked gene, MECP2 cause of

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125.

Which of the following diseases is NOT inherited as an autosomal recessive?

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126.

The TYR gene provides instructions for making an enzyme called tyrosinase. Mutation in this gene reason for:

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127.

If the hemophiliac male mates with a normal female, all the sons will effected

4 lines
128.

in hydrops fetalis with Hb Bart's 2 α globin loci are deleted

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129.

HbF (α2γ2) - In adults the normal range of Hb F is about 1%.

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130.

The mitochondrial genome is linear and enveloped

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131.

The mitochondrial genome contains 13 proteins coding genes

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132.

The humans gemone express approximately ------TFs(transcription factors)

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133.

Mendel's Law of Dominance states that alleles are separated during meiosis?

a)

True

b)

False

134.

Diseases of multifactorial inheritacne result from a complex interaction of the effects of multiple different genes with environmental factors.

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135.

Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds with a black-furred rabbit and all of their offspring have a phenotype of gray fur. What does the gene for fur color in rabbits appear to be an example of?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Codominance

136.

If two genes experience independent assortment, which assumption is most likely true?

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137.

Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation often a bell-shaped curve.

a)

Polygenic

b)

Monogenic

c)

Epistatic

138.

During the meiosis X and Y chromosome exchange

a)

PAR region

b)

Non-PAR region

139.

The Bombay Phenotype is the example of

a)

Recessive epistasis

b)

Dominant epistasis

140.

The genes that Mendel worked with were

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141.

Obesity, excessive and indiscriminate eating habits, small hands and feet, short stature, hypogonadism, mental retardation characteristic symptoms of

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142.

Which of the following is true

a)

All correct

b)

None correct

143.

Mark correct statement regarding X inactivation

a)

All correct

b)

None correct

144.

Hayflick limit defines the number of possible cell divisions and depends on the length of chromosomal telomeres, which decreases in standard cells with every cell division

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145.

Short stature, intellectual disability, 'elfin like' facial features, a stellate pattern to the iris, characteristic for

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146.

During the meiosis X and Y chromosome exchange

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147.

In case of pseudoachondroplasia(a type of dwarfism) phenotype, genotype is

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148.

Histone modifications includes:

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149.

Which of the following is characteristic to autosomal recessive disease?

a)

It affects both sexes equally.

b)

It affects only males.

150.

Mark incorrect option. Marfan syndrome features may include

a)

Bowed legs or knock knees

b)

Tall stature

151.

Hemophilia is a classic X-linked recessive disorder in which the blood fails to clot normally.

4 lines
152.

Sex-linked recessive traits can be seen only in men, because they result from genes located on the X chromosome.

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153.

What physical features would you see in a person with fragile X syndrome?

a)

Enlarged ears, long face, and prominent chin

b)

Short stature

154.

Match incorrect statement regarding Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA)

a)

All correct

b)

None correct

155.

Which type of alpha thalassemia is not survivable?

a)

Hydrops Fetalis

b)

Alpha thalassemia trait

156.

HbF structure is

a)

α2γ2

b)

α2β2

157.

Which of the listed below show a distinctive pattern of mitochondria genome inheritance?

a)

All of the listed

b)

None of the listed

158.

Which of the listed correct about replicative segregation.

a)

All correct

b)

None correct

159.

Polar substances are ________; nonpolar substances are_________.

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160.

Meiosis II during oogenesis promptly resumes when fertilization occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Hydrophilic amino acids will always move to the-------- of a protein.

(a)  

162.

DNA analysis in Duchenne or Becker muscular dystrophy demonstrates a deletion or duplication in the dystrophin gene.

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163.

Disorder results from mutations in the fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene on chromosome 15 is

a)

Marfan syndrome

b)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

164.

Match the correct statement about X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

a)

All correct

b)

None correct

165.

The β-globin mutations have no prenatal consequences, because γ-globin is the major β-like globin before birth.

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166.

In sickle cell syndrome HBS illustrated as

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167.

Characteristic of sickle cell syndromes

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168.

One mitochondria contains dozens of copies of its mitochondrial genome.

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169.

Mark the incorrect statement regarding mitochondria genome.

a)

Mitochondria DNA is single stranded.

b)

Mitochondria DNA is double stranded.

170.

Operon is a group of genes regulated and expressed together as a unit, operator is the place near to promoter, to which a repressor protein binds.

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171.

Regarding to the X-linked genes males are?

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172.

Which of the following are the properties of enzyme telomerase?

a)

All of the above

b)

None of the above

173.

If the poly-A tail is shortened to less than about 30 nucleotides, the mRNA becomes unstable.

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174.

In normal cells, the p53 protein level is low.

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175.

Genotype refer to the genetic make-up of an organism.

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176.

Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds with a black-furred rabbit and all of their offspring have a phenotype of gray fur. What does the gene for fur color in rabbits appear to be an example of?

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177.

Smallest chromosome in the human karyotype is

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178.

Here is normal human karyotype A = 6, B = 4, C = 16, D = 6, E = 6, F = 4, G = 4 To whom it belongs:

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179.

Homozygotous condition means, identical alleles of the same gene.

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180.

Following characteristic except of

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181.

Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the

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182.

The reason why haemophilia is more commonly observed in human males than in females is due to

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183.

Why are genetic disorders such as haemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy more prevalent in males than females?

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184.

A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when

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185.

Tetramer is called Hb H in case

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186.

The gene that code for the beta subunit of the hemoglobin protein allocated:

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187.

Sickle cell anemia is:

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188.

All of the following are examples of mutations which have been observed on a b-thalassemia allele except:

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189.

Minisatellite polymorphism is largely used for DNA fingerprinting.

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190.

The α chain of the hemoglobin has --- amino acids residues:

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191.

The genes for the β and β-like chains are clustered tandemly on

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192.

How do Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome differ?

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193.

Which of them is not X-linked condition:

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194.

Protein complexes that break down proteins are called proteasomes.

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195.

p53 proteins, have three major functions: growth arrest, DNA repair and apoptosis.

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196.

In case of ABO blood group A alleles is dominant over B alleles.

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197.

Single nucleotide polymorphism are common and are observed on average once every 1000 base pair in genome.

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198.

Which symptom in an infant or young child might mean CF?

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199.

Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of which enzyme?

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200.

Which of the following is the example triplet repeat disorders?

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201.

Acetyl groups can be added to both arginine and lysine residues in histones H3 and this change has been correlated with gene activity.

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202.

Characteristics controlled by more than one gene, each of which may have two or more alleles, is known as codominance.

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203.

What if the cell is found in the environment, that is rich in lactose and glucose?

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204.

Gene regulatory elements are specific cis-acting DNA sequences that are recognized by trans-acting transcription factors.

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205.

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle

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