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Microbiology Ch. 24/25

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology?

a)

Haemophilus

b)

Mycobacterium

c)

Can't tell

d)

Corynebacterium

e)

Bordetella

2.

Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology?

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Mycobacterium

c)

Pneumocystis

d)

Coccidioides

e)

Blastomyces

3.

A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Bordetella

c)

Corynebacterium

d)

Mycoplasma

e)

Mycobacterium

4.

Which of the following does NOT confirm a diagnosis of strep throat?

a)

Symptoms

b)

Hemolytic reaction

c)

Bacitracin inhibition

d)

Serological tests

e)

Gram stain

5.

Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to a virulence factor?

a)

Diphtheria - exotoxin

b)

Scarlet fever - exotoxin

c)

Pneumococcal pneumonia - exotoxin

d)

Haemophilus pneumonia - endotoxin

e)

Whooping cough - endotoxin

6.

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen?

a)

Legionella

b)

Pneumocystis

c)

Histoplasma

d)

Rhinovirus

e)

Mycoplasma

7.

Which of the following CANNOT lead to a positive tuberculin skin test?

a)

Previous tuberculosis infection

b)

Being near someone with tuberculosis

c)

Immunity to tuberculosis

d)

Vaccination

e)

Current tuberculosis infection

8.

Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

e)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

9.

Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Coccidioides immitis

d)

Mycoplasma

e)

Blastomyces

10.

Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age?

a)

Legionellosis

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Scarlet fever

d)

Psittacosis

e)

Coccidioidomycosis

11.

You are trying to identify the cause of a patient's middle ear infection. After 24 hours, there is no growth on blood agar incubated aerobically at 37°C. Your next step is to try again,

a)

Then give up.

b)

Incubating at 25°C.

c)

Incubating at 45°C.

d)

Incubating anaerobically.

e)

Using nutrient agar.

12.

A healthy carrier state exists for

a)

Beta-hemolytic streptococci.

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

c)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

d)

Haemophilus influenzae.

e)

All of these.

13.

The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to

a)

HA spikes.

b)

The Guillain-Barré syndrome.

c)

Lack of naturally acquired active immunity.

d)

Antigenic shift.

e)

Lack of antiviral drugs.

14.

Infection by which of the following begins in lungs and spreads to skin?

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Pneumocystis

c)

Blastomyces

d)

Coccidioides

e)

Mycobacterium

15.

Which of the following respiratory infections can be contracted by ingestion?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Haemophilus pneumonia

c)

Streptococcal pharyngitis

d)

Diphtheria

e)

Mycoplasmal pneumonia

16.

Legionella is transmitted by

a)

Fomites.

b)

Person-to-person contact.

c)

Vectors.

d)

Foodborne transmission.

e)

Airborne transmission.

17.

Which of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite?

a)

Coxiella

b)

Influenzavirus

c)

Coccidioides

d)

RSV

e)

Chlamydophila

18.

The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology?

a)

Corynebacterium

b)

Can't tell

c)

Mycobacterium

d)

Bordetella

e)

Haemophilus

19.

Which of the following does NOT produce an exotoxin?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

All of these produce an exotoxin.

d)

Streptococcus pygogenes

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

20.

Which of the following does NOT cause pneumonia?

a)

Haemophilus

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

RSV

e)

Legionella

21.

Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes?

a)

Chlamydophila psittaci

b)

Influenza virus

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Histoplasma capsulatum

e)

Streptococcus pyogenes

22.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Q fever - Rickettsia

b)

Epiglottitis - Haemophilus

c)

Psittacosis - Chlamydia

d)

Whooping cough - Bordetella

e)

Melioidosis - Burkholderia

23.

A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is

a)

Haemophilus influenzae.

b)

Chlamydophila psittaci.

c)

Burkholderia pseudomallei.

d)

Legionella pneumophila.

e)

Streptococcus pneumonia.

24.

A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has

a)

Pneumococcal pneumonia.

b)

Common cold.

c)

Influenza.

d)

Mycoplasmal pneumonia.

e)

Tuberculosis.

25.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Bordetella - gram-negative pleomorphic rod

b)

Corynebacterium - gram-positive rod

c)

Haemophilus - gram-negative rod

d)

Mycobacterium - acid-fast rod

e)

Mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod

26.

Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash?

a)

RSV

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Coccidioides

e)

Streptococcus

27.

The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology?

a)

Bordetella

b)

Haemophilus

c)

Corynebacterium

d)

Can't tell

e)

Mycobacterium

28.

In Situation 25.1, fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Shigella.

b)

Giardia.

c)

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.

d)

Salmonella.

e)

Campylobacter.

29.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Salmonella endotoxin - coagulates blood

b)

Vibrio enterotoxin - secretion of Cl-, K+, and H2O

c)

Shiga toxin - tissue destruction

d)

Aflatoxin - liver cancer

e)

Ergot - gangrene

30.

Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools should be examined for

a)

Yersinia enterocolitica.

b)

Vibrio vulnificus.

c)

Cyclospora.

d)

Salmonella.

e)

Bacillus cereus.

31.

Which of the following feeds on red blood cells?

a)

Taenia spp.

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

d)

Escherichia coli

e)

Giardia lamblia

32.

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is false?

a)

It is often associated with poultry products.

b)

A healthy carrier state exists.

c)

It is a bacterial infection.

d)

It requires a large infective dose.

e)

The mortality rate is high.

33.

Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by

a)

The respiratory route.

b)

All of these.

c)

Water.

d)

Food.

e)

Milk.

34.

In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by

a)

Ingesting the eggs of Taenia saginata.

b)

Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host.

c)

Ingesting segments of adult tapeworms.

d)

Ingesting contaminated definitive hosts.

e)

Ingesting contaminated water.

35.

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Beef tapeworm.

b)

Staphylococcal food poisoning.

c)

Shigellosis.

d)

Trichinellosis.

e)

Salmonellosis.

36.

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the

a)

Small intestine.

b)

Large intestine.

c)

Small intestine and Large intestine.

d)

Stomach.

e)

Mouth.

37.

With which of the following substrates can Streptococcus mutans make a capsule?

a)

All of these

b)

Glucose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Mannitol

e)

Xylitol

38.

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease?

a)

Gingivirus

b)

Gram-positive rods

c)

Gram-negative rods

d)

Gram-negative cocci

e)

Gram-positive cocci

39.

Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

a)

Mumps

b)

Traveler's diarrhea

c)

Staphylococcal enterotoxicosis

d)

Vibrio gastroenteritis

e)

Bacillary dysentery

40.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Hookworm infestation - parasite bores through skin

b)

Taenia infestation - humans are the definitive host

c)

Pinworm infestation - humans ingest parasite's eggs

d)

Hydatid disease - humans are the definitive host

e)

Trichinellosis - humans eat larva of parasite

41.

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus

a)

Escherichia.

b)

Shigella.

c)

Vibrio.

d)

Campylobacter.

e)

Salmonella.

42.

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Trichinella

c)

Entamoeba

d)

Salmonella

e)

Shigella

43.

Which of the following causes an infection of the liver?

a)

Vibrio

b)

Shigella

c)

Hepatitis A virus

d)

Escherichia

e)

Salmonella

44.

Which of the following is NOT a gram-negative rod that causes gastroenteritis?

a)

Shigella

b)

Salmonella

c)

Yersinia

d)

Clostridium

e)

Escherichia

45.

Which of the viruses listed meets these criteria? diagnosed by PCR; incubation of 4 to 22 weeks; transmitted by the parenteral route; is a flavivirus.

a)

Hepatitis C virus

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Hepatitis A virus

d)

Hepatitis D virus

e)

Hepatitis E virus

46.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Eggs - Trichinella

b)

Delicatessen meats - Listeria

c)

Milk - Campylobacter

d)

Oysters - Vibrio

e)

Beef - E. coli O157:H7

47.

The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the

a)

 

Growth of adult Trichinella in the large intestine.

b)

 

Growth of larval Trichinella in the large intestine.

c)

 

Encystment of larval Trichinella in muscles.

d)

 

Encystment of adult Trichinella in muscles.

e)

 

Formation of cysticerci.

48.

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours is probably caused by

a)

 

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

 

Rotavirus

c)

 

Giardia

d)

 

Trichinella

e)

 

Salmonella

49.

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by

a)

 

Improper food storage.

b)

 

Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

c)

 

Eating contaminated food.

d)

 

A blood transfusion.

e)

 

Travel to an underdeveloped country.

50.

Which of the following is treated with tetracycline?

a)

 

Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis

b)

 

Infectious hepatitis

c)

 

Staphylococcal food poisoning

d)

 

Trichinellosis

e)

 

Escherichia coli gastroenteritis

51.

A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39°C and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had alcoholic liver disease. He was transferred to the ICU; therapy with ciprofloxacin was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?

a)

 

Bacillus cereus

b)

 

Yersinia enterocolitica

c)

 

Cyclospora

d)

 

Vibrio vulnificus

e)

 

Salmonella

52.

Which one of the following is NOT transmitted by water?

a)

 

Trichinella

b)

 

Cyclospora

c)

 

Hepatitis A virus

d)

 

Cryptosporidium

e)

 

Salmonella

53.

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is false?

a)

 

It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.

b)

 

It can be prevented by refrigeration.

c)

 

It can be prevented by boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating.

d)

 

It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.

e)

 

Suspect foods are those not cooked before eating.

54.

Which of the following is diagnosed by the presence of flagellated protozoa in the patient's feces?

a)

Giardiasis

b)

Trichinellosis

c)

Cholera

d)

Cryptosporidiosis

e)

 Cyclospora infection

55.

Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong with the others?

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Coccidioides

d)

Pneumocystis

e)

Mycobacterium

56.

Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod?

a)

 

Bordetella pertussis

b)

 

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

 

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

 

Pneumocystis jirovecii

e)

 

Myobacterium tuberculosis

57.

Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms?

a)

Chlamydophila

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Coccidioides

d)

Mycoplasma

e)

Streptococcus

58.

Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir?

a)

 

Psittacosis - parakeets

b)

 

Pneumocystis - humans

c)

 

Histoplasmosis - soil

d)

 

Tuberculosis - cattle

e)

 

Coccidioidomycosis - air

59.

Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages?

a)

 

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

b)

 

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

 

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

 

Respiratory syncytial virus

e)

 

Bordetella pertussis

60.

Which of the following causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route?

a)

 

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

 

Haemophilus influenzae

c)

 

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

 

Streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

 

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

61.

Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?

a)

Blastomyces

b)

Streptococcus

c)

 None of these

d)

Coccidioides

e)

Mycoplasma

62.

Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology?

a)

Coccidioides

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Mycobacterium

d)

Blastomyces

e)

Pneumocystis

63.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

 

Coccidioides - soil

b)

 

Psittacosis - parrots

c)

 

Q fever - fleas

d)

 

Blastomyces - soil

e)

 

Pneumocystis - nosocomial

64.

Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?

a)

 

Influenza - viruses grown in embryonated eggs

b)

 

Whooping cough - heat-killed bacteria

c)

 

Tuberculosis - toxoid

d)

 

Pneumococcal pneumonia - capsular polysaccharides

e)

 

Diphtheria - toxoid

65.

Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Legionella

c)

Mycobacterium

d)

Chlamydophila

e)

Mycoplasma

66.

Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?

a)

 

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

 

Blastomyces dermatidis

c)

 

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

 

Bordetella pertussis

e)

 

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

67.

Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that

a)

 

Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.

b)

 

The symptoms are distinctly different.

c)

 

Mycoplasma can't be cultured.

d)

 

Mycoplasmal pneumonia doesn't have any known etiologic agent.

e)

 

Viral pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.

68.

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of

a)

 

Amebic dysentery.

b)

 

Salmonellosis.

c)

 

Cholera.

d)

 

Tapeworm infestation.

e)

 

Bacillary dysentery.

69.

Which one of the following is NOT required for tooth decay?

a)

 

Acid-producing bacteria

b)

 

Capsule-forming bacteria

c)

 

Glucose

d)

 

All of these are required for tooth decay.

e)

 

Sucrose

70.

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever

a)

 

The classic symptom is diarrhea.

b)

 

Chemotherapy is highly effective.

c)

 

The symptoms are due to an exotoxin.

d)

 

The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder.

e)

 

The microorganisms become invasive.

71.

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably

a)

 

Giardia lamblia.

b)

 

Salmonella enterica.

c)

 

Campylobacter jejuni.

d)

 

Shigella spp.

e)

 

Escherichia coli.

72.

Situation 25.1

Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84%), abdominal cramps (96%), nausea (84%), vomiting (82%), body aches (50%), fever (60%; median body temperature = 38.3°C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).

In Situation 25.1, assume the samples were culture-negative. The next step is

a)

 

Microscopic examination for viruses.

b)

 

Microscopic examination for oocysts.

c)

 

Muscle biopsy.

d)

 

To begin antibiotic therapy.

e)

 

Blood cultures.

73.

Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it

a)

 

Makes HCl.

b)

 

Hides in macrophages.

c)

 

Makes NH3.

d)

 

Invades epithelial cells.

e)

 

Makes a capsule.

74.

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by

a)

 

Salmonella enterica.

b)

 

Clostridium perfringens.

c)

 

Staphylococcus aureus.

d)

 

Vibrio cholerae.

e)

 

Shigella spp.

75.

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications

a)

 

Are more severe.

b)

 

Are treated with antibiotics.

c)

 

Are accompanied by fever.

d)

 

Have shorter incubation times.

e)

 

Are transmitted via water.

76.

The most common mode of HAV transmission is

a)

 

Airborne.

b)

 

Contamination of food during preparation.

c)

 

Contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment.

d)

 

Blood transfusion.

e)

 

Contaminated hypodermic needles.

77.

Which of the following does NOT produce a gastrointestinal disease due to an exotoxin?

a)

 

Vibrio cholerae

b)

 

Clostridium perfringens

c)

 

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

 

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

 

Clostridium botulinum

78.

Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

a)

Rhizopus

b)

Pneumocystis

c)

 All of these

d)

Aspergillus

e)

Mucor

79.

Penicillin is used to treat all of the following EXCEPT

a)

 

Scarlet fever.

b)

 

Pneumococcal pneumonia.

c)

 

Streptococcal sore throat.

d)

 

Mycoplasmal pneumonia.

e)

 

Diphtheria.

80.

Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with

a)

 

Antitoxin.

b)

 

Penicillin.

c)

 

Quinacrine.

d)

 

Water and electrolytes.

e)

 

Thorough cooking.

81.

Which of the following is NOT a eukaryote that causes gastroenteritis?

a)

Campylobacter

b)

Entamoeba

c)

Cryptosporidium

d)

Cyclospora

e)

Giardia

82.

The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram-negative gastroenteritis is to

a)

 

Avoid eating meat.

b)

 

Refrigerate foods.

c)

 

Add vinegar and spices to foods.

d)

 

Salt foods.

e)

 

Cook foods thoroughly.

83.

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 2 to 3 days is probably caused by

a)

 

Trichinella.

b)

 

Staphylococcus aureus.

c)

 

Salmonella.

d)

 

Giardia.

e)

 

Rotavirus.

84.

Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the

a)

 

Presence of diarrhea.

b)

 

Mode of transmission.

c)

 

Abscess formation.

d)

 

Appearance of the patient's stools.

e)

 

Etiologic agent.

85.

A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having

a)

 

Streptococcal pharyngitis.

b)

 

Diphtheria.

c)

 

Common cold.

d)

 

Scarlet fever.

e)

 

There is insufficient information.

86.

Which of the following statements about otitis media is false?

a)

 

It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

b)

 

It is caused by rhinovirus.

c)

 

It is a complication of tonsillitis.

d)

 

It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

e)

 

It is transmitted by swimming pool water.

87.

Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?

a)

Legionella

b)

Mycoplasma

c)

Coccidioides

d)

Influenzavirus

e)

Histoplasma

88.

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?

a)

 

Clostridium perfringens

b)

 

Giardia

c)

 

Vibrio

d)

 

Trichinella

e)

 

Staphylococcus aureus

89.

A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is prepared from

a)

Genetically modified yeast.

b)

Viruses grown in embryonated eggs.

c)

Viral particles in patients.

d)

Pooled gamma globulin.

e)

Viruses grown in tissue culture.

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