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Always protect the tube

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Look at the cartoon and the instruction: 'Always protect the tube.' What is the main message of this image?

a)

Always protect the tube during emergency situations

b)

Ignore the tube during emergencies

c)

Only protect the patient, not the tube

d)

The tube is not important

2.

What is the preferred route for establishing an emergency tracheal airway?

a)

Nasotracheal intubation

b)

Orotracheal intubation

c)

Tracheostomy

d)

Cricothyrotomy

3.

Orotracheal intubation is considered the _______ and _______ method for establishing an emergency tracheal airway.

a)

quickest, easiest

b)

slowest, most complicated

c)

riskiest, least effective

d)

most painful, least reliable

4.

Who can intubate according to the information provided?

a)

Only physicians

b)

Only nurses

c)

Physicians, RTs, nurses, anesthesia, paramedics

d)

Only paramedics

5.

Training for orotracheal intubation involves which of the following?

a)

Manikin practice

b)

Anesthetized patients

c)

OR training

d)

All of the above

6.

Which of the following should be assembled and checked prior to use?

a)

Flowmeter and tubing

b)

Suction apparatus

c)

Oropharyngeal airway

d)

CO2 detector

7.

Fill in the blank: The equipment required includes _______ and tubing.

a)

Flowmeter

b)

Thermometer

c)

Stethoscope

d)

Syringe

8.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the flowmeter and tubing?

a)

Manual resuscitation bag

b)

Appropriate size mask

c)

PEEP valve

d)

Yankeur

9.

Fill in the blank: The suction apparatus includes a _______ to set appropriate suction pressure.

a)

Regulator

b)

Compressor

c)

Filter

d)

Valve

10.

Which of the following is used to set appropriate suction pressure in the suction apparatus?

(a)  

11.

Fill in the blank: The suction apparatus includes tubing, Yankeur, and _______.

a)

Suction catheters

b)

Oxygen mask

c)

IV cannula

d)

Blood pressure cuff

12.

Which airway device is listed as required equipment?

4 lines
13.

Fill in the blank: A _______ detector is required as part of the equipment.

a)

CO2

b)

Smoke

c)

Heat

d)

Motion

14.

Which of the following is a type of laryngoscope blade?

a)

Miller – straight blade

b)

Macintosh – curved blade

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

15.

The Miller blade is a ______ blade.

a)

straight

b)

curved

c)

angled

d)

flexible

16.

The Macintosh blade is a ______ blade.

a)

curved

b)

straight

c)

angled

d)

flat

17.

How many different sizes of endotracheal tubes are mentioned?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

18.

What is the purpose of a syringe in this context?

a)

To inject medicine

b)

To inflate the cuff

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To hold the ETT

19.

What is the function of a stethoscope as mentioned in the list?

a)

To check heart rate

b)

To check bilateral breath sounds

c)

To inflate the cuff

d)

To hold the ETT

20.

Which item is used to hold the endotracheal tube in place?

a)

ETT holder

b)

Laryngoscope

c)

Suction catheter

d)

Ambu bag

21.

Which of the following is a local anesthetic spray?

a)

Etomidate

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Lorazapem (Ativan)

d)

Midazolam (Versed)

22.

Which medication listed is also known as Ativan?

a)

Succinylcholine

b)

Etomidate

c)

Lorazapem

d)

Midazolam

23.

What is the alternative name for Midazolam?

a)

Ativan

b)

Versed

c)

Etomidate

d)

Succinylcholine

24.

Name a substance used for lubrication in medical procedures as listed in the image.

a)

Lubricating jelly

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Antiseptic cream

d)

Sterile gauze

25.

Which device assists with intubation, is quicker, and more accurate?

a)

Magill Forceps

b)

GlideScope

c)

Towels

d)

Lubricating jelly

26.

Magill Forceps are used for ______ intubation.

a)

Nasal

b)

Oral

c)

Tracheal

d)

Esophageal

27.

Towels are used for positioning, specifically the ______ position.

a)

sniffing

b)

prone

c)

lateral

d)

supine

28.

What is the name of the medical device shown in the image?

a)

Laryngoscope

b)

Glide Scope

c)

Otoscope

d)

Endoscope

29.

According to NBRC, what should all personnel have to ensure safety?

a)

Protective barrier clothing

b)

Only gloves

c)

Only masks

d)

No special clothing

30.

Which of the following is NOT considered standard precaution protective barrier clothing?

a)

Gloves

b)

Gowns

c)

Eyewear

d)

Sandals

31.

Fill in the blank: For TB, the recommended protective mask is the ______ mask.

a)

N95

b)

Surgical

c)

Cloth

d)

FFP1

32.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, S stands for _________.

a)

suction equipment

b)

stethoscope

c)

scalpel

d)

syringe

33.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, O stands for _________?

a)

oxygen

b)

oropharynx

c)

oscilloscope

d)

oral airway

34.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, A stands for _________?

a)

airway equipment

b)

anesthesia drugs

c)

aspiration kit

d)

antiseptic solution

35.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, P stands for _________.

a)

position of the patient and pharmacy

b)

preparation of the laryngoscope

c)

pulse oximetry

d)

pressure monitoring

36.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, M stands for _________?

a)

monitors

b)

mask

c)

medication

d)

mouthpiece

37.

Fill in the blank: In the SOAPME mnemonic for essential intubation items, E stands for _________.

a)

esophageal detector

b)

endotracheal tube

c)

epiglottis retractor

d)

emergency bag

38.

According to the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation, how long should preparation take?

a)

Less than 10 minutes

b)

30-45 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

Over 2 hours

39.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation?

a)

A) Gather and check equipment

b)

B) Medication choice

c)

C) Personnel

d)

D) Administer antibiotics

40.

In the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation, what should be gathered and checked?

a)

Equipment

b)

Patient's family history

c)

Dietary supplements

d)

Insurance documents

41.

What is one of the choices that needs to be made during the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation?

a)

Medication choice

b)

Patient discharge planning

c)

Wound dressing selection

d)

Physical therapy scheduling

42.

Who should be present during the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation?

a)

Personnel

b)

Equipment

c)

Medications

d)

Patient's Family

43.

What type of equipment should be monitored during the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation?

a)

Monitoring equipment

b)

Surgical instruments

c)

Laboratory reagents

d)

Radiology machines

44.

What should be considered in case the primary plan fails during the 'Preparation' phase of Rapid Sequence Intubation?

a)

Alternatives should they be needed

b)

Ignore the failure and proceed

c)

Wait for spontaneous recovery

d)

Increase the medication dose

45.

What does 'LEMON' refer to in the context of Rapid Sequence Intubation preparation?

a)

A mnemonic for evaluating the airway prior to intubation

b)

A medication used to sedate patients before intubation

c)

A type of laryngoscope blade

d)

A protocol for post-intubation care

46.

What does the 'L' in 'LEMON' stand for?

a)

Listen

b)

Look

c)

Learn

d)

Leave

47.

According to the 'LEMON' assessment, what should you look at in the patient?

a)

Patient's shoes

b)

Patient, stature, etc.

c)

Patient's family

d)

Patient's medication

48.

What is the 3:3:2 rule used for in the 'LEMON' assessment?

a)

To evaluate the airway using finger measurements between incisors, mandible, and neck.

b)

To assess the patient's blood pressure response to medication.

c)

To determine the depth of chest compressions during CPR.

d)

To evaluate the oxygen saturation levels in the blood.

49.

How many fingers should fit between the incisors according to the 3:3:2 rule?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

50.

How many fingers length should be used for the mandible in the 3:3:2 rule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

51.

How many fingers should fit between the hyoid bone and thyroid according to the 3:3:2 rule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

52.

What is the Mallampati assessment used for in the 'LEMON' method?

a)

It is used if the patient can cooperate to show what the airway looks like and to pick the correct laryngoscope.

b)

It is used to determine the patient's blood pressure before intubation.

c)

It is used to assess the patient's heart rate during airway management.

d)

It is used to check the patient's oxygen saturation levels.

53.

Which Mallampati class shows the most airway obstruction?

a)

Class 1

b)

Class 2

c)

Class 3

d)

Class 4

54.

Increased airway tissue or obstruction makes it more difficult to intubate.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What does 'O' stand for in the context of airway management?

a)

Oxygenation

b)

Obstruction

c)

Operation

d)

Observation

56.

Which of the following can block the airway?

a)

Foreign objects

b)

Tumors

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

57.

What does 'N' stand for in the context of airway management?

a)

A) Nose

b)

B) Neck

c)

C) Nutrition

d)

D) Nerves

58.

When assessing the neck in airway management, what should you check for?

a)

Injuries and complications

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Heart rate

d)

Temperature

59.

Fill in the blank: 100% oxygen should be given for no longer than ____ minutes during preoxygenation.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

2

d)

15

60.

Too much oxygenation can cause nitrogen washout.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

True or False: You should over preoxygenate if the patient was already oxygenating.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Premedication should be administered in less than how many minutes?

a)

3 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

1 minute

d)

5 minutes

63.

What is the goal of premedication before intubation?

a)

To increase the patient's physiologic response

b)

To blunt the patient's physiologic response

c)

To cause hypoxemia

d)

To delay intubation

64.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect minimized by premedication?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Gag

c)

Hypoxemia

d)

Hypertension

65.

Sedation is used for uncooperative patients during premedication.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Paralyzing agents are used in extreme circumstances such as serious trauma or brain injury.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Placement of ETT should take less than how many seconds?

a)

30 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

90 seconds

68.

What is another name for the Sellick Maneuver?

a)

Jaw thrust

b)

Cricoid pressure

c)

Chin lift

d)

Bag-valve mask

69.

The American Medical Association (AMA) is getting away from using which maneuver during ETT placement?

a)

Sellick Maneuver (cricoid pressure)

b)

Jaw-thrust maneuver

c)

Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

d)

BURP maneuver (backward, upward, rightward pressure)

70.

Which of the following is a step in post intubation care?

a)

Secure ETT

b)

Ignore patient monitoring

c)

Skip CXR

d)

Avoid ABG

71.

How long should you monitor the patient for toleration or complications after intubation?

a)

5 minutes

b)

2 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

30 seconds

72.

What is the purpose of a CXR after intubation?

a)

Confirm placement

b)

Check for infection

c)

Measure blood pressure

d)

Assess heart rate

73.

Post intubation ABG should be performed.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Why might long term sedation be needed after intubation?

a)

Patient may be agitated, scared, etc.

b)

To increase heart rate

c)

To reduce oxygen levels

d)

To avoid CXR

75.

What should you always plan for during intubation procedures?

a)

Something to go wrong

b)

Everything to go perfectly

c)

No need for planning

d)

Only one plan

76.

Fill in the blank: Always have extra ______ and alternative equipment on hand during intubation procedures.

a)

equipment

b)

medication

c)

oxygen

d)

gloves

77.

Notifying alternative personnel may be needed during intubation procedures.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

What is the first step in the Intubation Procedure?

a)

Assemble bag-mask

b)

Administer medication

c)

Insert ETT

d)

Remove patient secretions

79.

Why is suction equipment assembled during the intubation procedure?

a)

To check flow and function

b)

To set appropriate pressure and remove secretions if the patient vomits

c)

To inflate the cuff

d)

To secure the laryngoscope blade

80.

What should you do if the laryngoscope blade light does not come on during the intubation procedure?

a)

Replace the bulb. If it still doesn’t work, replace batteries in handle.

b)

Continue the procedure without the light.

c)

Use a flashlight to illuminate the area.

d)

Ignore the issue and try intubating anyway.

81.

ETT is sized by their internal diameter in ________.

a)

millimeters (mm)

b)

centimeters (cm)

c)

inches (in)

d)

meters (m)

82.

You should always deflate the cuff before use when checking for leaks in the ETT during intubation.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What should you check when assembling the bag-mask for intubation?

a)

Light source

b)

Flow and function

c)

Cuff leaks

d)

ETT size

84.

Why should you have additional ETT sizes available during intubation?

a)

To ensure the proper size is available for the patient.

b)

To increase the risk of infection.

c)

To make the procedure more complicated.

d)

To reduce the effectiveness of ventilation.

85.

What is the purpose of inserting a stylet during intubation?

a)

Adds flexibility and reduces shape

b)

Adds rigidity and maintains shape during intubation

c)

Prevents tube blockage

d)

Increases tube length

86.

The tip of the stylet must NEVER extend beyond the endotracheal tube.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Fill in the blank: Lubricate ______ if required during intubation.

a)

ETT

b)

laryngoscope handle

c)

oxygen cylinder

d)

defibrillator

88.

What position should the patient be placed in to align the mouth, pharynx, and larynx during intubation?

a)

Supine position

b)

Sniffing position

c)

Prone position

d)

Sitting position

89.

If the patient has false teeth, what should be done before intubation?

a)

Remove the false teeth first.

b)

Leave the false teeth in place.

c)

Ask the patient to bite down on the false teeth.

d)

Cover the false teeth with gauze.

90.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Intubation Sniffing Position.' Which position shows the aligned airway for proper intubation?

a)

Top image

b)

Bottom image

91.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Intubation Sniffing Position.' The bottom image demonstrates _________.

a)

improper positioning

b)

proper positioning

c)

neutral neck position

d)

hyperextension of the neck

92.

Why is preoxygenation important for a patient in need of intubation?

a)

It helps reduce pain

b)

It provides ventilation and oxygenation for patients in respiratory distress

c)

It lowers blood pressure

d)

It increases heart rate

93.

When using BMV, what percentage of O2 should be used to oxygenate the patient until SpO2 is stable?

a)

21%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

75%

94.

What is the recommended minimum SpO2 level when oxygenating a patient before intubation?

a)

>95%

b)

<90%

c)

80-85%

d)

90-92%

95.

Attempts at intubation should not last longer than ______ seconds.

a)

30

b)

10

c)

60

d)

45

96.

After 30 seconds of an intubation attempt, what should be done before the next attempt?

a)

Give medication

b)

Bag the patient again

c)

Increase oxygen flow

d)

Start CPR

97.

Step 5: As you advance the laryngoscope, you will begin to visualize the arytenoid cartilage and glottis. The arytenoid cartilage surrounds what?

a)

glottis

b)

epiglottis

c)

trachea

d)

vocal cords