WorksheetsPharmacology MNS Part I
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
A 62-year-old man with chronic gout and stage 3 chronic kidney disease is prescribed a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. Which drug is most appropriate for this patient’s renal condition?
A) Allopurinol
B) Ferbuxostat
C) Colchicine
D) Probenecid
A 58-year-old male with gout started on ferbuxostat returns after 3 months complaining of chest tightness. What important risk of ferbuxostat should be considered?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Cardiovascular events
D) Pancreatitis
Allopurinol works by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Inhibiting microtubule polymerization
B) Increasing uric acid excretion
C) Non-selective xanthine oxidase inhibition
D) Blocking COX-2 enzymes
A patient developed a rash and elevated liver enzymes after starting treatment for chronic gout. Which drug is most likely responsible?
A) Ferbuxostat
B) Colchicine
C) Allopurinol
D) Naproxen
Which drug increases uric acid excretion and is classified as a uricosuric agent?
A) Allopurinol
B) Probenecid
C) Indomethacin
D) Colchicine
6) Colchicine primarily acts by interfering with what process in neutrophils?
A) COX enzyme inhibition
B) Microtubule polymerization
C) Lysosomal enzyme production
D) Histamine release
7) Why are NSAIDs often considered first-line treatment for acute gout attacks?
A) They lower serum uric acid levels
B) They dissolve urate crystals
C) They reduce inflammation effectively
D) They are uricosuric
8) Colchicine is not preferred as a first-line drug for acute gout due to which of the following?
A) Poor oral absorption
B) Severe cardiovascular risk
C) Narrow therapeutic index and high GIT/neurotoxicity
D) Limited anti-inflammatory activity
9) 9. In which scenario would colchicine be most appropriately used?
A) As first-line in all patients
B) In combination with NSAIDs routinely
C) When NSAIDs are contraindicated
D) Only for chronic gout
10 ) A 65-year-old patient with peptic ulcer disease presents with acute gout. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this acute attack?
A) Naproxen
B) Indomethacin
C) Colchicine
D) Probenecid
Epilepsy & Anti-epileptic :- 1. A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with focal seizures. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for his condition and works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels?
A) Ethosuximide
B) Diazepam
C) Phenytoin
D) Levetiracetam
2. A patient with generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures (co-occurance) is best treated with which first-line broad-spectrum antiepileptic?
A) Valproic acid
B) Carbamazepine
C) Lamotrigine
D) Ethosuximide
3. A child with absence seizures shows 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges on EEG. Which drug is most effective in this case?
A) Phenytoin
B) Ethosuximide
C) Levetiracetam
D) Diazepam
4. Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the antiseizure effect of valproic acid?
A) Enhancing glutamate activity
B) Blocking sodium and T-type calcium channels, and increasing GABA
C) Inhibiting dopamine reuptake
D) Stimulating AMPA receptors
5. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following adverse effects should be carefully monitored?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Gingival hyperplasia and ataxia
C) Rash and thrombocytopenia
D) Hypotension
6. A young woman with epilepsy is concerned about birth defects. Which drug is safest for use in women of childbearing age?
A) Valproic acid
B) Carbamazepine
C) Lamotrigine
D) Phenytoin
7. A patient on carbamazepine has subtherapeutic levels of their oral contraceptive. What is the likely cause?
A) Enzyme inhibition
B) Renal excretion
C) Autoinduction of hepatic enzymes
D) Displacement from plasma proteins
8. A 19-year-old female on valproic acid presents with irregular menses and acne. Labs reveal elevated androgens. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hyperprolactinemia
B) PCOS
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Cushing's syndrome
9. A patient with status epilepticus is administered diazepam. What is a key reason for using this drug in this emergency setting?
A) Long-term seizure control
B) Sodium channel blockade
C) GABAergic inhibition and rapid onset
D) Calcium channel inhibition
10. A 30-year-old male is started on levetiracetam for focal epilepsy. Two weeks later, he develops a rash. What is the appropriate management approach?
A) Stop immediately; restart at same dose
B) Increase dose to build tolerance
C) Titrate slowly to reduce skin rash risk
D) Switch to valproic acid
Skeletal Muscle Relaxants:- 1. A 65-year-old man in the ICU requires muscle relaxation for mechanical ventilation. Which class of drugs is most appropriate for reducing skeletal muscle tone in this setting?
A) NSAIDs
B) Antipsychotics
C) Skeletal muscle relaxants
D) Beta blockers
2. Which of the following drugs causes persistent depolarization of the neuromuscular junction, leading to flaccid paralysis?
A) Rocuronium
B) Baclofen
C) Succinylcholine
D) Dantrolene
3. A 35-year-old male is undergoing rapid endotracheal intubation. Which muscle relaxant is most suitable for rapid onset and short duration?
A) Rocuronium
B) Dantrolene
C) Succinylcholine
D) Baclofen
4. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with succinylcholine?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hyperkalemia and malignant hyperthermia
C) Hypertension
D) Sedation and dizziness
5. A 50-year-old patient undergoing a long orthopedic surgery is administered rocuronium. What is a known side effect of this drug?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Hypotension and histamine release
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Tachycardia
6. What is the recommended agent to reverse the neuromuscular blockade caused by rocuronium after surgery?
A) Diazepam
B) Dantrolene
C) Neostigmine with atropine
D) Naloxone
7. Which of the following drugs is a centrally acting spasmolytic and is commonly used in spinal cord injury?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Baclofen
C) Dantrolene
D) Botulinum toxin
8. A patient on long-term spasmolytic therapy complains of drowsiness and weakness. Which type of drug is most likely responsible?
A) Non-depolarizing blocker
B) Centrally acting spasmolytic
C) NSAID
D) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
9. Dantrolene is used in malignant hyperthermia because it:
A) Blocks voltage-gated Na⁺ channels
B) Inhibits Ca²⁺ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Enhances GABA activity
D) Inhibits ACh release
10. A woman receives botulinum toxin injections for facial wrinkles but later experiences muscle weakness. What explains this adverse effect?
A) Excessive histamine release
B) Peripheral nerve demyelination
C) Inhibition of ACh release at the neuromuscular junction
D) Activation of nicotinic receptors
Antidepressants :- 1. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed amitriptyline for major depression. Which class of antidepressant does this drug belong to?
A) SSRI
B) Atypical antidepressant
C) TCA
D) MAOI
2. A young adult with depression is started on fluoxetine. Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with this drug?
A) Severe sedation
B) Postural hypotension
C) Insomnia and agitation
D) Weight gain and constipation
3. Which antidepressant class is least likely to cause cardiac side effects like sinus tachycardia?
A) TCA
B) SSRI
C) MAOI
D) SNRI
4. A patient is diagnosed with severe anxiety disorder and is also experiencing depressive symptoms. Which class of antidepressants is preferred in this situation?
A) MAOIs
B) TCAs
C) Atypical antidepressants
D) SNRIs
5. A 40-year-old man on sertraline visits the ER with hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and confusion. He recently started phenelzine. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Serotonin syndrome
B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C) TCA toxicity
D) Panic attack
6. Which of the following antidepressants is an example of a secondary amine TCA?
A) Imipramine
B) Maprotiline
C) Amitriptyline
D) Fluoxetine
7. A patient taking a TCA reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What is the likely cause of this symptom?
A) Central dopamine blockade
B) Anticholinergic toxicity
C) Postural hypotension
D) Reflex bradycardia
8. A patient taking trazodone for depression reports feeling extremely drowsy. What is the likely explanation for this effect?
A) Antihistamine action
B) Dopamine antagonism
C) Enhanced GABA release
D) Peripheral α2-agonism
9. What is the shared mechanism by which all antidepressant classes improve mood over time?
Inhibition of dopamine synthesis
Blocking NMDA receptors
Inhibiting GABA
Restoring and downregulating postsynaptic serotonergic/noradrenergic activity
10. A 55-year-old man with depression is started on selegiline. This drug is best classified as:
A) SSRI
B) SNRI
C) TCA
D) MAOI
NSAIDs - 1. A 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis and a history of peptic ulcer disease (PuD) is prescribed celecoxib. Why is this drug preferred over traditional NSAIDs in her case?
A) It enhances platelet aggregation
B) It inhibits prostaglandin E2 synthesis in the CNS
C) It selectively inhibits COX-2, sparing COX-1
D) It prevents reye’s syndrome
2. Which of the following adverse effects is specifically associated with long-term celecoxib use?
A) Reye’s syndrome
B) Stroke and myocardial infarction
C) Aspirin-induced asthma
D) Bone marrow suppression
3. A 55-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease is seeking pain relief. Which drug should be avoided due to increased risk of MI and stroke?
A) Diclofenac
B) Celecoxib
C) Paracetamol
D) Aspirin
4. Which NSAID is considered cardioprotective due to its irreversible inhibition of platelet COX-1?
A) Paracetamol
B) Diclofenac
C) Aspirin
D) Meloxicam
5. A 12-year-old boy with a viral illness develops vomiting, confusion, and liver dysfunction after taking aspirin. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Reye’s syndrome
C) Acute pancreatitis
D) Drug-induced cholestasis
6. A patient on high-dose aspirin for pain management presents with ringing in the ears and elevated body temperature. What is the cause?
A) Aspirin-induced asthma
B) Acute gout
C) Aspirin toxicity (salicylism)
D) Hypertensive crisis
7. A 45-year-old woman is treated long-term with diclofenac for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following benefits explains its use?
A) Selective COX-2 inhibition only
B) Cardioprotective effect
C) Strong analgesic and antipyretic activity
D) Inhibits platelet aggregation
8. A pregnant woman with mild joint pain is advised not to take NSAIDs like ibuprofen or aspirin. Why are these drugs contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Risk of cleft palate
B) CNS teratogenicity
C) Premature closure of ductus arteriosus and uterine contraction inhibition
D) Increased fetal heart rate
9. A patient with osteoarthritis on non-selective NSAIDs reports black stools and nausea. What is the likely explanation?
A) Pancreatitis
B) Bowel perforation
C) Gastrointestinal bleeding
D) Intestinal infection
10. A 50-year-old man presents with paracetamol overdose. Labs show elevated liver enzymes. What is the most appropriate antidote to prevent hepatotoxicity?
A) Acetazolamide
B) Atropine
C) N-acetylcysteine
D) Naloxone
(Local Anaesthetics) 1. A 30-year-old woman receives local anesthesia for a minor dental procedure. She remains conscious but reports no pain. What best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
A) GABA receptor activation
B) Voltage-gated Na⁺ channel blockade
C) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
D) NMDA receptor antagonism
2. A 45-year-old male with chronic liver disease is scheduled for a procedure requiring local anesthesia. Which adjustment is most appropriate if an amide LA is chosen?
A) Use a higher dose for better effect
B) Avoid amides and use esters instead
C) Use amide at a reduced dose
D) Add adrenaline to increase metabolism
3. Which of the following drugs is an ester local anesthetic?
A) Lidocaine
B) Ropivacaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Procaine
4. A 60-year-old woman experiences a metallic taste, tinnitus, and restlessness after local anesthesia. What type of toxicity is likely?
A) Hepatic
B) CNS toxicity
C) Renal
D) Allergic reaction
5. Which local anesthetic is most associated with cardiotoxicity, especially if given in large doses?
A) Lidocaine
B) Tetracaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Cocaine
6. A patient with a known allergy to local anesthetics is more likely reacting to which class?
A) Amides
B) Esters
C) Opioids
D) Benzodiazepines
7. A 35-year-old man undergoes minor skin excision. Which local anesthetic is commonly used due to its rapid onset and topical availability?
A) Ropivacaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Lidocaine
D) Tetracaine
8. Which local anesthetic is most appropriate for spinal anesthesia due to its long duration of action?
A) Lidocaine
B) Ropivacaine
C) Tetracaine
D) Bupivacaine
9. A pregnant woman requires epidural anesthesia during labor. Which local anesthetic is preferred due to less motor blockade?
A) Lidocaine
B) Procaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Cocaine
10. Which of the following correctly matches the local anesthetic with its type and primary metabolism route?
A) Tetracaine – Amide – Liver
B) Lidocaine – Ester – Plasma cholinesterase
C) Procaine – Ester – Plasma cholinesterase
D) Bupivacaine – Ester – Liver
(Agents affecting bone and calcium metabolism) = 1. A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. She reports severe heartburn after taking it with her breakfast. What explains her symptoms?
A) High oral bioavailability
B) Food enhances absorption
C) Drug causes esophageal irritation
D) It inhibits calcium absorption
2. A 65-year-old man with prostate cancer develops hypercalcemia due to bone metastases. Which drug is best to reduce calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity and acting on hydroxyapatite?
A) Cinacalcet
B) Plicamycin
C) Zoledronic acid
D) Fluoride
3. A 60-year-old dialysis patient has high PTH levels. He is given a drug that activates calcium-sensing receptors in the parathyroid gland. Which is the most likely drug?
A) Calcitonin
B) Cinacalcet
C) Pamidronate
D) Aluminum hydroxide
4. A patient with parathyroid carcinoma presents with severe hypercalcemia. Which drug lowers calcium by suppressing PTH release via receptor activation?
A) Etidronate
B) Cinacalcet
C) Dantrolene
D) Ropivacaine
5. A patient with bone metastases is treated with plicamycin. What is the primary mechanism of this drug?
A) Promotes osteoblast differentiation
B) Binds DNA and inhibits osteoclast gene transcription
C) Stimulates vitamin D production
D) Blocks Na⁺ channels in bone
6. A 70-year-old man with recurrent kidney stones is given a thiazide diuretic. What is the likely benefit of this therapy?
A) Increases urinary calcium excretion
B) Enhances sodium retention
C) Decreases urinary calcium excretion
D) Stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion
7. A child in a fluoride-deficient area is given water containing optimal fluoride levels. What is the intended benefit?
A) Promote enamel erosion
B) Inhibit dentin formation
C) Reduce dental caries
D) Increase gingival thickness
8. A man is admitted after ingesting rat poison containing fluoride. He presents with GI upset and neurological symptoms. What is the likely cause of toxicity?
A) Excess calcium absorption
B) Central dopamine depletion
C) Fluoride-induced systemic toxicity
D) Vitamin D overdose
9. A 58-year-old man on dialysis has hyperphosphatemia. What is the best pharmacologic approach to manage this?
A) Increase dietary phosphate
B) Administer vitamin D analogs
C) Use phosphate binders
D) Give calcium IV
10. A dialysis patient on aluminum-based phosphate binders develops confusion and bone pain. What is the most likely cause?
A) Fluoride excess
B) Uremia
C) Aluminum toxicity
D) Hypervitaminosis D
