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Microbio test 1

Total questions: 161

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Categories of microorganisms:

1. Viruses

2. Prions

a)

Acellular microbes

b)

Cellular microbes

2.

Categories of microorganisms:

1. Bacteria

2. Archaeans

3. Algae

4. Protozoa

5. Fungi

7. Helminths

a)

Acellular microbes

b)

Cellular microbes

3.

Categories of microorganisms, Which are Prokaryotes?

1. Bacteria

2. Archaeans

3. Algae

4. Protozoa

5. Fungi

7. Helminths

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

4, 5, 6

d)

2, 3

4.

Categories of microorganisms, Which are Eukaryotes?

1. Bacteria

2. Archaeans

3. Algae

4. Protozoa

5. Fungi

7. Helminths

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

3, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 5

5.

Germ Theory of Disease, Which are correct?

1. Bacteria must be present in every case of the disease.

2. Bacteria must be isolated from the host with the disease and grown in pure culture.

3. Specific disease must be reproduced when a pure culture of the bacteria is inoculated into a healthy susceptible host.

4. Bacteria must be recoverable from the experimentally infected host.

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

All of the above

6.

Nucleus:

Lack a true nucleus, one circular chromosome, not membrane bound

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

7.

Nucleus:

Paired chromosomes, in nuclear membrane

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

8.

Membrane-bound organelles:

Absent

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

9.

Membrane-bound organelles:

ER, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Mitochondrion, Chloroplast, Peroxisome

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

10.

Flagella:

Two protein building blocks

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

11.

Flagella:

Complex, multiple microtubules

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

12.

Glycocalyx:

Present as a capsule or slime layer

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

13.

Glycocalyx:

Present in some cells that lack a cell wall

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

14.

Cell wall:

Peptidoglycan cell walls

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

15.

Cell wall:

Polysaccharide cell walls

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

16.

Plasma membrane:

No carbohydrates and generally lacks sterols

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

17.

Plasma membrane:

Sterols and carbohydrates that serve as receptors present

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

18.

Cytoplasm:

No cytoskeleton or cytoplasmic streaming

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

19.

Cytoplasm:

Cytoskeleton or cytoplasmic streaming

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

20.

Cell division:

Binary fission

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

21.

Cell division:

Mitosis

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

22.

Size, shape, and arrangement:

Rod

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirals

23.

Size, shape, and arrangement:

Spherical

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirals

24.

Size, shape, and arrangement:

Vibrio, Spirillum, Spirochete

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirals

25.

Bacterial cell wall, Which contain these?

1. Thick layer of peptidoglycan

2. Cell membrane

3. Tightly bound acidic polysaccharides, including teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid

4. Retain crystal violet and stain purple

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

26.

Bacterial cell wall, Which contain these?

1. Thin peptidoglycan

2. Inner membrane

3. An outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide. Lipid A of LPS acts as endotoxin

4. Periplasmic space

5. Lose crystal violet and stain red from safranin counterstain

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

27.

Gram stain:

Enterococcus spp.

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram negative bacilli

d)

Gram positive bacilli

28.

Gram stain:

Staphylococcus supp.

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram negative bacilli

d)

Gram positive bacilli

29.

Gram stain:

Streptococcus supp.

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram negative bacilli

d)

Gram positive bacilli

30.

Gram stain:

Neisseria (e.g. N.gonorrhoeae)

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram negative bacilli

d)

Gram positive bacilli

31.

Gram stain:

Clostridium (C. botulinum)

a)

Gram positive bacilli

b)

Gram negative bacilli

c)

Gram positive cocci

d)

Gram negative cocci

32.

Gram stain:

Bacillus (B. anthracis)

a)

Gram positive bacilli

b)

Gram negative bacilli

c)

Gram positive cocci

d)

Gram negative cocci

33.

Gram stain:

Corynebacterium (C. diptheriae)

a)

Gram positive bacilli

b)

Gram negative bacilli

c)

Gram positive cocci

d)

Gram negative cocci

34.

Gram stain:

Enterobacteriaceae (e.g. Enterobacter, Escherichia, Klebsiella, Proteus, Salmonella, Shigella spp.)

a)

Gram positive bacilli

b)

Gram negative bacilli

c)

Gram positive cocci

d)

Gram negative cocci

35.

Gram stain:

Pseudomonas

a)

Gram positive bacilli

b)

Gram negative bacilli

c)

Gram positive cocci

d)

Gram negative cocci

36.

Gram stain:

Listeria

a)

Gram positive coccobacilli

b)

Gram negative coccobacilli

c)

Gram positive curved bacilli

d)

Gram variable coccobacilli

37.

Gram stain:

Vibrio cholerae

a)

Gram positive coccobacilli

b)

Gram negative coccobacilli

c)

Gram negative curved bacilli

d)

Gram variable coccobacilli

38.

Gram stain:

Treponema pallidum

a)

Gram positive spirochetes

b)

Gram negative spirochetes

c)

Gram negative spirilla

d)

Gram positive spirilla

39.

Gram stain:

Borrelia burgdorferi

a)

Gram positive spirochetes

b)

Gram negative spirochetes

c)

Gram negative spirilla

d)

Gram positive spirilla

40.

Gram stain:

Helicobacter pylori

a)

Gram positive spirochetes

b)

Gram negative spirochetes

c)

Gram negative spirilla

d)

Gram positive spirilla

41.

Naturally lack a cell wall

a)

Mycobacterium

b)

Nocardis

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Rickettsia

e)

Chlamydia

42.

Major Fungal Infections of Humans:

Epidermis, hair and dermis

Name of infection?

a)

Dermatophytosis, also called tinea or ringworm

b)

Candidiasis, or yeast infection

c)

Tinea versicolor

43.

Major Fungal Infections of Humans:

Mucous membrane, skin, nails

Name of infection?

a)

Dermatophytosis, also called tinea or ringworm

b)

Candidiasis, or yeast infection

c)

Tinea versicolor

44.

Major Fungal Infections of Humans:

Candidiasis, or yeast infection

Name of causative fungus?

(a)  

45.

Protozoa, Two stage life cycle:

Stages that actively feed and multiply

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Cyst

46.

Protozoa, Two stage life cycle:

1. Stages with a protective membrane or thickened wall

2. Dormant resting stage when conditions in the environment become unfavorable

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Cyst

47.

Helminths:

What type of platyhelminthes are Clonorchis sinesis?

(a)  

48.

Helminths:

What type of platyhelminthes are Taenia solium?

(a)  

49.

Helminths:

What type of helminths are Ascaris lumbricoides?

(a)  

50.

Which are platyhelminthes?

1. Trematoda

2. Cestoda

3. Nematodes

a)

1

b)

1, 2

c)

1, 3

d)

All of above

51.

Platyhelminthes:

Small flat leaf-like bodies with oral and ventral suckers and blind sac-like gut

a)

Trematoda

b)

Cestoda

c)

Nematodes

52.

Platyhelminthes:

Long flat ribbon-like bodies with a single anterior holdfast organ (scolex) and numerous segments (proglottides)

a)

Trematoda

b)

Cestoda

c)

Nematodes

53.

Platyhelminthes:

Which have a body cavity?

1. Trematoda

2. Cestoda

3. Nematodes

a)

1, 2

b)

2

c)

3

d)

All of the above

54.

Viruses replication:

Binding of virus to specific molecule on host cell

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

55.

Viruses replication:

The virion is endocytosed and contained within a cytoplasmic vacuole

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

56.

Viruses replication:

The viral nucleic acid is released from the capsid

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

57.

Viruses replication:

Viral components are produced

a)

Release

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

58.

Viruses replication:

New viral particles are constructed

a)

Release

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

59.

Viruses replication:

Assembled viruses are released by budding (exocytosis) or cell lysis

a)

Release

b)

Penetration

c)

Uncoating

d)

Biosynthesis

e)

Assembly

60.

Viruse with segmented genome:

What is discribed as

1. Small changes in the genes

2. These changes can accumulate over time and result in viruses that are antigenically different

3. Repeated epidemics observed with influenza A or B virus

a)
antigenic drift
b)

antigenic shift

61.

Viruse with segmented genome:

What is discribed as

1. Influenza viruses have segmented genome

2. Genetic reassortment occur when two influenza viruses infect the same cell

3. major, sudden change in genetic makeup of the virus

a)
antigenic drift
b)

antigenic shift

62.

What effects includes:

1. changes in cell size & shape

2. Formation of cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

3. Formation of nuclear inclusion bodies

4. Cells fuse to form multinucleated cells (Syncytium formation)

5. Cell lysis

6. Alter DNA

7. Transform cells into cancerous cells

(a)  

63.

Viral identification:

use antibodies to identify viruses

a)

Cytopathic effects

b)

Serological tests

c)

Revolutionary methods

64.

Viral identification:

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): amlification of a selected DNA sequence

a)

Cytopathic effects

b)

Serological tests

c)

Revolutionary methods

65.

Factors that affect microbial growth, Oxygen:

require oxygen for growth

a)

aerobes

b)

anaerobes

c)

facultative anaerobes

d)

aerotolerant anaerobes

66.

Factors that affect microbial growth, Oxygen:

only anaerobic growth (avoid oxygen)

a)

aerobes

b)

anaerobes

c)

facultative anaerobes

d)

aerotolerant anaerobes

67.

Factors that affect microbial growth, Oxygen:

both aerobic and anaerobic growth; greater growth in presence of oxygen

a)

aerobes

b)

anaerobes

c)

facultative anaerobes

d)

aerotolerant anaerobes

68.

Factors that affect microbial growth, Oxygen:

only anaerobic growth, but continues in presence of oxygen

a)

aerobes

b)

anaerobes

c)

facultative anaerobes

d)

aerotolerant anaerobes

69.

Moist heat:

steam under pressure

a)

Autoclave

b)

Hot-air sterilization

c)

Incineration

d)

Dry ovens

70.

Moist heat:

method of (?)

(a)  

71.

Moist heat:

normal autoclave conditions: ?

a)

120.5 ℃ for 15 min

b)

121.5 ℃ for 15 min

c)

120.5 ℃ for 20 min

d)

121.5 ℃ for 20 min

72.

Features of Antimicrobial Drugs:

Drug kills pathogens without damaging the host

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Therapeutic effect

d)

Toxic effect

73.

Features of Antimicrobial Drugs:

Ratio between toxic dose and therapeutic dose / or ratio of TD50 to ED50

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Therapeutic effect

d)

Toxic effect

74.

If therapeutic index high

a)

less toxic

b)

more toxic

75.

If therapeutic index low

a)

less toxic

b)

more toxic

76.

Inhibits bacteria fromreproducing, but doesn't otherwise kill them

a)

Bacterostatic

b)

Bactericidal

77.

Actively kills bacteria

a)

Bacterostatic

b)

Bactericidal

78.

Activity Spectrum:

Active against one or very few types

a)

Narrow spectrum

b)

Broad spectrum

79.

Activity Spectrum:

Active against several types of microorganisms

a)

Narrow spectrum

b)

Broad spectrum

80.

1. Initial antibiotic regimen

2. Use broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents to cover multiple possible pathogens commonly associated with the specific clinical syndrome

a)

Empiric therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

81.

1. After identification of the etiologic pathogen and/or antimicrobial susceptbility data are available

2. Narrow the antibiotic spectrum

a)

Empiric therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

82.

Important considerations when prescribing antimicrobial therapy:

Accurate (?) of infection

(a)  

83.

Important considerations when prescribing antimicrobial therapy:

Understanding the difference between (?) and definitive therapy

(a)  

84.

Important considerations when prescribing antimicrobial therapy:

Interpretation of antimicrobial (?) testing results

(a)  

85.

Important considerations when prescribing antimicrobial therapy:

Understanding drug (?)

(a)  

86.

Important considerations when prescribing antimicrobial therapy:

(?) status of the patient

(a)  

87.

1. Beneficial

2. Inhibit growth of pathogens by occupying space, depleting nutrients and secreting materials

a)

Indigenous microflora or microbiota

b)

Opportunistic pathogens

88.

Do not usually cause problems, but have potential to cause infection

a)

Indigenous microflora or microbiota

b)

Opportunistic pathogens

89.

Pasteur's Swan Neck Flask Experiment

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

c)

Ignaz Semmelweis

d)

Joseph Lister

90.

Germ Theory of Disease

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

c)

Ignaz Semmelweis

d)

Robert Koch

91.

Pasteur's Swan Neck Flask Experiment

a)

Disproved spontaneous generation, evidence that microorgansms exist

b)

Spontaneous generation, the hypothetical process by which living organsms develop from non-living

c)

Hand disinfection and childbirth fever

d)

Antiseptic surgery

92.

Germ Theory of Disease

a)

Disproved spontaneous generation, evidence that microorgansms exist

b)

Spontaneous generation, the hypothetical process by which living organsms develop from non-living

c)

Hand disinfection and childbirth fever

d)

Many disease are caused by the growth of microbes in the body

93.

Methods in bacterial identification:

Growth at different temperatures, pH values, salt concentration, or atomospheric conditions or in the presence of various enzymes etc.

a)

Physiological/biochemical characteristics

b)

Chemical analysis

c)

Serological analysis

d)

Genetic & molecular analysis

94.

Methods in bacterial identification:

Identify and determine chemical components within a microorganism

a)

Physiological/biochemical characteristics

b)

Chemical analysis

c)

Serological analysis

d)

Genetic & molecular analysis

95.

Methods in bacterial identification:

Comparing + contrasting antigenic components of the microbial cell, involves reactions of microorganisms with specific antibodies: Combine known anti-serum with unknown bacterium

a)

Physiological/biochemical characteristics

b)

Chemical analysis

c)

Serological analysis

d)

Genetic & molecular analysis

96.

1. Dormant, tough, non-reproductive structure

2. Spore forming genera: Bacillus and Clostridium

3. Resistance to UV and y radiation, desiccation, lysozyme, temperature, starvation, and chemical disinfectants -> not readily killed by many antimicrobial treatments

3. Relationship to disease

(a)  

97.

Endospores:

endospore formation

a)

Sporulation

b)

Germination

98.

Endospores:

Return to vegetative state

a)

Sporulation

b)

Germination

99.

1. Acid fast

2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis

3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy (Hansen's disease)

a)

Mycobacterium

b)

Nocardia

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Rickettsia

100.

Unique bacteria:

With nontypical cell walls

1. Mycobacterium

2. Nocardia

3. Mycoplasma

4. Rickettsia

5. Chlamydia

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

3

d)

4, 5

101.

Unique bacteria:

Obligate intracellular parasites

1. Mycobacterium

2. Nocardia

3. Mycoplasma

4. Rickettsia

5. Chlamydia

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

3

d)

4, 5

102.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Amebic dysentery caused by Entamoeba histolytica

a)

Amoeboid protozoa

b)

Flagellated protozoa

c)

Apicomplexan protozoa

d)

Ciliated protozoa

103.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Amoeboid protozoa:

Amebic dysentery caused by?

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Trypanosoma brucei

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

104.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Flagellated protozoa:

Giardiasis caused by?

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Trypanosoma brucei

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

105.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Flagellated protozoa:

African sleeping sickness (also known as African trypanosomiasis) caused by?

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Trypanosoma brucei

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

106.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Apicomplexan protozoa:

Malaria caused by?

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Trypanosoma brucei

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

107.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

1. Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia

2. African sleeping sickness (also known as African trypanosomiasis) caused by Trypanosoma brucei

a)

Amoeboid protozoa

b)

Flagellated protozoa

c)

Apicomplexan protozoa

d)

Ciliated protozoa

108.

Protozoan pathogens and human disease:

Malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale and P. vivax

a)

Amoeboid protozoa

b)

Flagellated protozoa

c)

Apicomplexan protozoa

d)

Ciliated protozoa

109.

Fungi:

mushrooms

a)

Macroscopic fungi

b)

Microscopic fungi

110.

Fungi:

molds, yeasts

a)

Macroscopic fungi

b)

Microscopic fungi

111.

Fungi, two morphologies:

round ovoid shape, asexual reproduction

a)

Yeast

b)

Hyphae

112.

Fungi, two morphologies:

long filamentous fungi or molds

a)

Yeast

b)

Hyphae

113.

Fungi:

Acquire nutrients from a wide variety of organic substrates

a)

Heterotrophic

b)

Parasitic

114.

Fungi:

Grow on the bodies of living animals or plants, although very few require a living host

a)

Heterotrophic

b)

Parasitic

115.

Structure of Viruses, two basic components:

single-or double-stranded RNA or DNA

a)

Nucleic acid

b)

Capsid

116.

Structure of Viruses, two basic components:

protein coat that surrounds and protects the viral genome

a)

Nucleic acid

b)

Capsid

117.

Virus with segmented genome:

1. Four types of influenza viruses: A, B, C and D

2. Influenza type A viruses are subtyps based upon the hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) antigens, which are surface proteins found on the viral envelope

This is a DNA or a RNA virus?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

118.

Oncogenic Viruses:

Papilloma virus (HPV) -> ?

a)

cervical cancer

b)

Burkitt's lymphoma

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

liver cancer

119.

Oncogenic Viruses:

Epstein-Barr virus -> ?

a)

cervical cancer

b)

Burkitt's lymphoma

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

liver cancer

120.

Oncogenic Viruses:

Human herpesvirus (HV8) -> ?

a)

cervical cancer

b)

Burkitt's lymphoma

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

liver cancer

121.

Oncogenic Viruses:

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) -> ?

a)

cervical cancer

b)

Burkitt's lymphoma

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

liver cancer

122.

1. Small proteinaceous infectious particles ('misfolded' protein, very resistant to inactivation)

2. Inherited and transmissible by ingestion, transplant, and surgical instruments

3. Cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TESs): Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru

4. All known prion disease affect the nervous system and are untreatable, resulting in 100% fatality

(a)  

123.

Factors affecting the efficacy of disinfection and sterilization, from most resistant to least:

1. Viruses with lipid envelopes

2. Prions

3. Endospores of bacteria

4. Gram-positive bacteria

5. Mycobacteria

6. Viruses without envelopes

7. Cysts of protozoa

8. Vegetative protozoa

9. Fungi, including most fungal spores

10. Gram-negative bacteria

a)

2 -> 3 -> 5 -> 7 -> 8 -> 10 -> 9 -> 6 -> 4 -> 1

b)

1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9 -> 10

c)

2 -> 3 -> 7 -> 5 -> 1 -> 4 -> 6 -> 10 -> 8 -> 9

d)

10 -> 9 -> 8 -> 7 -> 6 -> 5 -> 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1

124.

Factors affecting the efficacy of disinfection and sterilization:

1. Duration of exposure

2. Concentration and potency of disinfectants

3. Microbes: Number, location, innate resistance, biofilms

4. Presence of solvents, organic matter, or inhibitors

5. Physical and chemical factors: temperature and pH of environment

a)

3, 5

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

1, 2, 3, 5

d)

All of the above

125.

Methods of chemical control:

1. Commonly found in household cleaners, mouthwashes, and hospital disinfectants

2. Act by denturing proteins and disrupting membranes

a)

Phenolics

b)

Alcohols

c)

Bisbiguanides

126.

Methods of chemical control:

1. Include ethyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol (Usual concentration: 70% (50% to 95%)

2. Antiseptics

3. Act by denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes

a)

Phenolics

b)

Alcohols

c)

Bisbiguanides

127.

Methods of chemical control:

1. E.g. Chlorhexidine

2. Act by disrupting cell membranes

a)

Phenolics

b)

Alcohols

c)

Bisbiguanides

128.

Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing:

Lowest cencentration of drug that inhibit the visible growth of bacteria

a)

Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

b)

Minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)

129.

Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing:

Inhibits at least 99.9% of the bacterial colonies

a)

Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

b)

Minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)

130.

Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing:

Can use

a)

Resistant

b)

Susceptible

c)

Intermediate

131.

Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing:

Cannot use

a)

Resistant

b)

Susceptible

c)

Intermediate

132.

Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing:

for allergy

a)

Resistant

b)

Susceptible

c)

Intermediate

133.

The action of antimicrobial drugs:

1. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2. Inhibition of nucleic acid replication and transcription

3. Inhibition of synthesis of essential metabolites

4. Inhibition of protein synthesis

5. Injury to plasma membrane

a)

1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5

b)

5 -> 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1

c)

1 -> 4 -> 2 -> 5 -> 3

d)

1 -> 4 -> 2 -> 3 -> 5

134.

Artificial intelligence in microbiology:

Algorithms that learn from data to improve predictions

a)

Machine Learning (ML)

b)

Deep Learning (DL)

c)

Applications

135.

Artificial intelligence in microbiology:

Advanced neural networks for analyzing complex datasets

a)

Machine Learning (ML)

b)

Deep Learning (DL)

c)

Applications

136.

Artificial intelligence in microbiology:

Quick analysis of genetic sequences, microbiological phenotypes, and clinical metadata

a)

Machine Learning (ML)

b)

Deep Learning (DL)

c)

Applications

137.

The impact of artifical intelligence on microbial diagnosis:

Which are the benefits of AI?

1. Rapid detection

2. Improved treatment strategies

3. Pattern recognition

a)

1

b)

1, 2

c)

1, 3

d)

All of the above

138.

1. Can be transmitted

2. Infection + Disease

a)

Infectious disease

b)

Disease

c)

Infection

139.

1. Symptoms: a change in body function that is felt by a patient

2. Sign: a change in a body that can be measured or observed

3. Occurs when cells or molecules cannot function properly

a)

Infectious disease

b)

Disease

c)

Infection

140.

The invasion and replication of microorganisms in or on the body that are not normally present within the body

a)

Infectious disease

b)

Disease

c)

Infection

141.

Which are the outcomes of an infection?

1. Parasite overcomes the immune defenses -> cause disease

2. Immune defenses overcome the ability of the potential pathogen to cause the disease

3. Parasite (or potential pathogen) and the host survive together

a)

1

b)

1, 2

c)

1, 3

d)

All of the above

142.

Virulence:

Type and severity of infection depend on?

1. Pathogenicity

2. Condition of the host

3. Establish itself in a host

4. Cause damage

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

All of the above

143.

Virulence:

Virulence (the extent of pathogenicity) of a microbe is determined by its ability to?

1. Pathogenicity

2. Condition of the host

3. Establish itself in a host

4. Cause damage

a)

1, 2

b)

3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

All of the above

144.

Exoenzyme:

Coagulates fibrinogen (prevent bacterium from phagocytosis)

a)

Coagulase

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

145.

Exoenzyme:

Hydrolyzes collagen

a)

Coagulase

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

146.

Exoenzyme:

Disrupt the membrane of red blood cells

a)

IgA proteases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

147.

Exoenzyme:

Digest fibrin clots

a)

IgA proteases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

148.

Exoenzyme:

Destory mucopolysaccharides that holds cell together

a)

IgA proteases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

149.

Exoenzyme:

Destory IgA antibodies

a)

IgA proteases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hemolysins

d)

Kinases

e)

Hyaluronidase

150.

Chain of Infection:

Bacteria, virus, fungi, parasite

a)

Microorganisms

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

151.

Chain of Infection:

Human, water, air, medical equipment

a)

Microorganisms

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

152.

Chain of Infection:

Secretion, excretion, droplets

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

153.

Chain of Infection:

Contact, in air, by vector

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

154.

Chain of Infection:

Mucosa lining, open wound, respiratory tract, etc.

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

155.

Chain of Infection:

Immunocompromised, elderly people, post-operative individual, etc.

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Reservoir

c)

Port of exit

d)

Means of transport

e)

Port of entry

156.

Chain of infection:

1. Microorganisms

2. Susceptible host

3. Port of entry

4. Reservoir

5. Port of exit

6. Means of transport

a)

1 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 3 -> 2

b)

1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6

c)

6 -> 5 -> 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1

d)

1 -> 4 -> 3 -> 6 -> 5 -> 2

157.

Epidemiology Terminology:

Disease that occurs occasionally in a population

a)

Sporadic disease

b)

Endemic disease

c)

Epidemic disease

d)

Pandemic disease

158.

Epidemiology Terminology:

Disease constantly present in a population

a)

Sporadic disease

b)

Endemic disease

c)

Epidemic disease

d)

Pandemic disease

159.

Epidemiology Terminology:

Disease occurrence exceed the normal expectancy in a given area in a short time

a)

Sporadic disease

b)

Endemic disease

c)

Epidemic disease

d)

Pandemic disease

160.

Epidemiology Terminology:

Worldwide epidemic

a)

Sporadic disease

b)

Endemic disease

c)

Epidemic disease

d)

Pandemic disease

161.

Epidemics are often associated with?

1. Acute

2. Highly-transmissible

3. Directly transmitted pathogens that either kill the host or induce strong immunity

a)

1

b)

1, 2

c)

1, 3

d)

All of the above