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Study Guide: Altered Cellular Function - Pharmacotherapy

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of empiric antibiotic therapy?

a)

Broad-spectrum; used before culture results (48-72 hrs)

b)

Narrow-spectrum; based on identified bacteria

c)

Preventive use (surgery/trauma)

2.

Which type of antibiotic therapy is based on identified bacteria?

a)

Empiric

b)

Definitive

c)

Prophylactic

3.

What is the purpose of prophylactic antibiotic therapy?

a)

Preventive use (surgery/trauma)

b)

To treat established infections

c)

To enhance immune response

d)

To relieve pain

4.

Therapeutic response indicators to antibiotic therapy include decreased fever, WBCs, inflammation, and _______.

a)

drainage

b)

pain

c)

appetite

d)

cough

5.

Subtherapeutic response to antibiotic therapy means:

a)

No improvement

b)

Rapid improvement

c)

Development of resistance

d)

Complete cure

6.

Which of the following is NOT a type of antibiotic resistance?

a)

Inherent

b)

Acquired

c)

Preventive

d)

Healthcare-acquired

e)

Cross-resistance

7.

Name one prevention strategy for antibiotic resistance.

a)

Limit overuse, aseptic technique, narrow-spectrum use.

b)

Increase unnecessary prescriptions, broad-spectrum use, poor hygiene.

c)

Ignore infection control, overuse antibiotics, self-medicate.

d)

Use antibiotics for viral infections, skip doses, share antibiotics.

8.

Which of the following is a common antibiotic side effect?

a)

Superinfection

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

9.

List two common antibiotic side effects.

a)

Superinfection, Pseudomembranous colitis

b)

Increased appetite, Improved vision

c)

Hair growth, Height increase

d)

Enhanced memory, Muscle gain

10.

Beta-lactam antibiotics include which of the following?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Carbapenems

d)

Monobactams

e)

All of the above

11.

The beta-lactam ring in antibiotics is associated with what risk?

a)

Allergy risk

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Vision loss

d)

Hair growth

12.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of penicillins?

a)

Disrupts cell wall synthesis

b)

Inhibits protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit

c)

Blocks DNA gyrase activity

d)

Inhibits folic acid synthesis

13.

Penicillins are indicated for which type of bacteria?

a)

A) Gram-positive (Streptococcus, Staphylococcus)

b)

B) Gram-negative

c)

C) Fungi

14.

Name one adverse effect of penicillins.

a)

Allergy, N/V/D (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), interaction with warfarin/OC/NSAIDs

b)

Hair loss and skin discoloration

c)

Increased appetite and weight gain

d)

Improved vision and hearing

15.

What is the adverse effect of cephalosporins related to penicillin?

a)

Cross-allergy with penicillin.

b)

Nephrotoxicity.

c)

Photosensitivity.

d)

Ototoxicity.

16.

Carbapenems & Monobactams are used for which type of infections?

a)

Serious infections.

b)

Mild allergies.

c)

Viral infections.

d)

Fungal infections.

17.

Which antibiotic class should be avoided with dairy, antacids, and iron?

a)

Tetracyclines.

b)

Penicillins.

c)

Macrolides.

d)

Cephalosporins.

18.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of tetracyclines?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Tooth discoloration

c)

Tendon rupture

d)

QT prolongation

19.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of macrolides?

a)

Inhibit protein synthesis.

b)

Inhibit cell wall synthesis.

c)

Disrupt DNA replication.

d)

Block folic acid synthesis.

20.

Aminoglycosides are primarily indicated for which type of infections?

a)

Gram-negative infections.

b)

Viral infections.

c)

Fungal infections.

d)

Parasitic infections.

21.

Which adverse effect is associated with aminoglycosides?

a)

GI upset

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Tooth discoloration

d)

QT prolongation

22.

What is the black box warning (BBW) adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

a)

Tendon rupture.

b)

Photosensitivity.

c)

Nephrotoxicity.

d)

Hepatic failure.

23.

Sulfonamides inhibit which metabolic pathway?

a)

Folic acid synthesis.

b)

Protein synthesis.

c)

Cell wall synthesis.

d)

DNA replication.

24.

Vancomycin is used to treat which of the following?

a)

MRSA

b)

C. diff

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

25.

What is a major risk associated with Clindamycin?

a)

C. diff risk

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Photosensitivity

26.

Linezolid should be avoided with which of the following?

a)

SSRIs

b)

Antacids

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Statins

27.

Which of the following is a first-line antitubercular drug?

a)

INH

b)

Rifampin

c)

Ethambutol

d)

All of the above

28.

INH is associated with which type of toxicity?

a)

Neuro/hepatotoxic

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Cardiotoxicity

29.

What unusual side effect is associated with Rifampin?

a)

Orange secretions

b)

Blue vision

c)

Hair loss

d)

Hearing loss

30.

Fluconazole is used to treat which infection?

a)

Candida

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Malaria

d)

Influenza

31.

Amphotericin B is administered by which route for systemic use?

a)

IV

b)

Oral

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Topical

32.

Nystatin is used for which type of infection?

a)

Candida

b)

Influenza

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

33.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of antivirals?

a)

Inhibit viral replication

b)

Stimulate bacterial growth

c)

Block nerve impulses

d)

Increase red blood cell production

34.

Oseltamivir should be started within how many hours of flu symptoms?

a)

<48 hours

b)

<24 hours

c)

<72 hours

d)

<96 hours

35.

Acyclovir is used to treat which viruses?

a)

HSV

b)

VZV

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

36.

Metronidazole is used to treat which of the following?

a)

H. pylori

b)

Trichomoniasis

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

37.

Ivermectin is used to treat which type of infection?

a)

Helminths

b)

Bacterial

c)

Viral

d)

Fungal

38.

Chloroquine is used to treat which disease?

a)

Malaria

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Tuberculosis

39.

HAART for HIV/AIDS therapy consists of how many drugs?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3 or more

d)

None

40.

Which key drug for HIV/AIDS therapy has a black box warning for anemia?

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Efavirenz

c)

Lamivudine

d)

Nevirapine

41.

What is a major side effect of Cyclophosphamide?

a)

Immunosuppressant; alopecia.

b)

Hypertension and cough.

c)

Hyperglycemia and weight gain.

d)

Nephrotoxicity and hearing loss.

42.

Which drug is a folic acid blocker and requires leucovorin rescue?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Cisplatin

c)

Paclitaxel

d)

Vincristine

43.

Which antineoplastic agent is cardiotoxic?

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Vincristine

d)

Bleomycin

44.

Vincristine is known for which type of toxicity?

a)

Neurotoxic

b)

Cardiotoxic

c)

Nephrotoxic

d)

Hepatotoxic

45.

Tamoxifen is used to treat which type of cancer?

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Lung cancer

c)

Prostate cancer

d)

Skin cancer

46.

Which antiandrogens are used in hormone therapy for prostate cancer?

a)

Casodex, Lupron, Xtandi

b)

Metformin, Insulin, Januvia

c)

Aspirin, Tylenol, Advil

d)

Lipitor, Crestor, Zocor

47.

What is the main indication for antiandrogens such as Casodex, Lupron, and Xtandi?

a)

Prostate cancer

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Hypertension

48.

Cyclosporine is used for transplants and has which two major side effects?

a)

Nephrotoxic, gingival hyperplasia

b)

Hepatotoxic, alopecia

c)

Ototoxic, rash

d)

Myelosuppression, hyperkalemia

49.

Which agents stimulate blood cell production during chemotherapy?

a)

Erythropoietin, Filgrastim

b)

Insulin, Glucagon

c)

Heparin, Warfarin

d)

Aspirin, Paracetamol

50.

Interferon alfa-2b is used for which conditions?

a)

Hepatitis, Kaposi's sarcoma

b)

Diabetes mellitus, Hypertension

c)

Asthma, Allergic rhinitis

d)

Osteoarthritis, Gout

51.

Which of the following is NOT a common live vaccine?

a)

MMR

b)

Hep B

c)

HPV

d)

Varicella

52.

Live vaccines are contraindicated in which populations?

a)

Pregnancy/immunocompromised

b)

Healthy adults

c)

Children over 5 years old

d)

Elderly individuals without comorbidities

53.

What should nurses check before administering therapy?

a)

Allergies, organ function, interactions

b)

Patient's favorite color, room temperature, time of day

c)

Type of bed sheets, hospital cafeteria menu, parking availability

d)

Weather forecast, nurse's schedule, hospital Wi-Fi password

54.

What should nurses educate patients to do regarding therapy?

a)

Complete full therapy course

b)

Stop therapy when symptoms improve

c)

Skip doses if feeling better

d)

Double the dose if a dose is missed

55.

Fill in the blank: When administering antibiotics, monitor for superinfections such as ______, itching, and discharge.

a)

fever

b)

rash

c)

headache

d)

nausea

56.

Fill in the blank: Sulfonamides should be administered with ______.

a)

fluids

b)

food

c)

antacids

d)

alcohol

57.

Fill in the blank: When administering penicillins, avoid ______.

a)

juice

b)

water

c)

milk

d)

bread

58.

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines should not be taken with ______ or exposure to ______.

a)

dairy; sunlight

b)

meat; cold

c)

fruit; rain

d)

vegetables; heat

59.

Fill in the blank: Vancomycin should be infused for more than ______ minutes.

a)

60

b)

20

c)

30

d)

45