wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

M.Sc Chemistry CPGET Mock Test 2025

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl is:

a)

Tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) chloride

b)

Dichlorotetraamminecobalt(III) chloride

c)

Tetraamminecobalt(III) dichloride

d)

Cobalt(III) tetraamminedichloride

2.

The coordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)₆]3- is: [ ]

a)

4

b)

6

c)

3

d)

2

3.

Which ligand is polydentate?[ ]

a)

NH₃

b)

H₂O

c)

EDTA

d)

CO

4.

The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(H₂O)₆]^{3+} is:[ ]

a)

+1

b)

+2

c)

+3

d)

+6

5.

The EAN (Effective Atomic Number) of Ni in [Ni(CO)₄] is: [ ]

a)

34

b)

36

c)

28

d)

30

6.

Which metal carbonyl obeys the 18-electron rule? [ ]

a)

[Fe(CO)₅]

b)

[Co(CO)₄]

c)

[Mn(CO)₆]+

d)

All of the above

7.

The bridging ligand in [(CO)₃Fe(CO)₃Fe(CO)₃]is:[ ]

a)

CO

b)

NO

c)

O₂

d)

N₂

8.

The geometry of [Co₂(CO)₈]is:[ ]

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Square planar

c)

Octahedral

d)

Dodecahedral

9.

The metal ion present in hemoglobin is:

a)

Mg²⁺

b)

Fe²⁺

c)

Cu²⁺

d)

Zn²⁺

10.

Chlorophyll contains:

a)

Fe²⁺

b)

Mg²⁺

c)

Ca²⁺

d)

Mn²⁺

11.

The function of myoglobin is:

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Oxygen storage

c)

Electron transfer

d)

CO₂ transport

12.

Which metalloenzyme catalyzes water oxidation in photosynthesis?

a)

Cytochrome c oxidase

b)

Nitrogenase

c)

Photosystem II (Mn₄CaO₅ cluster)

d)

Carbonic anhydrase

13.

According to HSAB theory, Ag⁺ is a:

a)

Hard acid

b)

Soft acid

c)

Borderline acid

d)

Neutral acid

14.

Which of the following is a hard base?

a)

CN⁻

b)

I⁻

c)

F⁻

d)

SCN⁻

15.

The most stable complex forms between:

a)

Hard acid + Hard base

b)

Soft acid + Soft base

c)

Hard acid + Soft base

d)

Soft acid + Hard base

16.

Which pair follows the HSAB principle?

a)

Fe³⁺ + OH⁻

b)

Hg²⁺ + S²⁻

c)

Both a and b

d)

None

17.

Cisplatin is used in cancer therapy because it:

a)

Binds to DNA and inhibits replication

b)

Acts as an antioxidant

c)

Chelates iron in blood

d)

Catalyzes protein synthesis

18.

EDTA is used to treat heavy metal poisoning as it:

a)

Forms soluble complexes with metals

b)

Precipitates metals as sulfides

c)

Oxidizes metals to harmless ions

d)

Reduces metal toxicity via hydrolysis

19.

The color of [Cu(H₂O)₆]2+ is due to:

a)

d-d transition

b)

Charge transfer

c)

Ligand vibration

d)

Spin crossover

20.

Wilkinson's catalyst [RhCl(PPh₃)₃] is used for:

a)

Hydrogenation of alkenes

b)

Oxidation of alcohols

c)

Polymerization of ethylene

d)

Hydrolysis of esters

21.

Tollen's reagent gives a silver mirror with:

a)

Ketones

b)

Aldehydes

c)

Esters

d)

Carboxylic acids

22.

Hydrolysis of an ester in acidic medium yields:

a)

Alcohol + Aldehyde

b)

Alcohol + Carboxylic acid

c)

Alkane + CO₂

d)

Ketone + Water

23.

The product of a Claisen condensation is a:

a)

β-Keto ester

b)

Aldehyde

c)

Alcohol

d)

Nitroalkane

24.

Nitroalkanes are reduced to amines using:

a)

LiAlH₄

b)

NaBH₄

c)

KMnO₄

d)

PCC

25.

Gabriel phthalimide synthesis prepares:

a)

Primary amines

b)

Secondary amines

c)

Tertiary amines

d)

Quaternary salts

26.

Isocyanides are identified by their:

a)

Sweet odor

b)

Foul smell

c)

Blue color

d)

High solubility

27.

Pyridine is a:

a)

5-membered aromatic

b)

6-membered aromatic

c)

Non-aromatic

d)

Anti-aromatic

28.

The nitrogen in pyrrole is:

a)

sp³ hybridized

b)

sp² hybridized

c)

sp hybridized

d)

None

29.

The anomeric carbon in glucose is:

a)

C-1

b)

C-2

c)

C-5

d)

C-6

30.

Maltose is a:

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Polysaccharide

d)

Amino sugar

31.

The peptide bond is:

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Van der Waals

32.

α-Helix is stabilized by:

a)

Disulfide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Hydrophobic interactions

d)

Salt bridges

33.

The salt bridge in a galvanic cell:

a)

Completes the electrical circuit

b)

Prevents mixing of solutions

c)

Maintains electrical neutrality

d)

All of the above

34.

Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) has a potential of:

a)

0.00 V

b)

1.00 V

c)

-1.00 V

d)

2.00 V

35.

The half-life of a first-order reaction is:

a)

Concentration-dependent

b)

Concentration-independent

c)

Proportional to concentration

d)

Inversely proportional to concentration

36.

The Arrhenius equation describes the effect of:

a)

Pressure on rate

b)

Temperature on rate

c)

Catalyst on equilibrium

d)

pH on rate

37.

For a spontaneous process, ΔG is:

a)

>0

b)

<0

c)

=0

d)

Undefined

38.

ΔH = ΔU + PΔV applies to:

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Isobaric process

c)

Adiabatic process

d)

Isothermal process

39.

The primary product of acetone photolysis is:

a)

Ethane

b)

Acetyl radical

c)

Methane

d)

Ketene

40.

Photosynthesis uses light to drive:

a)

CO₂ reduction

b)

N₂ fixation

c)

SO₂ oxidation

d)

CH₄ combustion

41.

Which p-block element is a liquid at room temperature?

a)

Bromine

b)

Iodine

c)

Sulfur

d)

Selenium

42.

The inert pair effect is most prominent in:

a)

Group 13 (Tl, Pb)

b)

Group 14 (C, Si)

c)

Group 15 (N, P)

d)

Group 16 (O, S)

43.

Which noble gas forms clathrates?

a)

Helium

b)

Neon

c)

Argon

d)

Xenon

44.

The first noble gas compound synthesized was:

a)

XeF₂

b)

XePtF₆

c)

KrF₂

d)

ArF₂

45.

Lanthanide contraction explains the similar size of:

a)

Zr & Hf

b)

Nb & Ta

c)

Both a & b

d)

Mo & W

46.

Which ion is colorless in solution?

a)

Fe³⁺

b)

Cu²⁺

c)

Zn²⁺

d)

Ni²⁺

47.

The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is:

a)

+2

b)

+3

c)

+4

d)

+5

48.

Which lanthanide has the highest magnetic moment?

a)

Gd³⁺

b)

Eu³⁺

c)

Ce³⁺

d)

Lu³⁺

49.

Group II cations are precipitated as:

a)

Chlorides

b)

Sulfides (acidic medium)

c)

Hydroxides

d)

Carbonates

50.

NH₄Cl is added before NH₄OH to precipitate Group III cations to:

a)

Prevent Mg²⁺ precipitation

b)

Suppress OH⁻ concentration

c)

Both a & b

d)

Increase pH

51.

The bond order in O₂⁺ is:

a)

1.5

b)

2.0

c)

2.5

d)

3.0

52.

The shape of XeF₄ is:

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Square planar

c)

Octahedral

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

53.

In gravimetry, the precipitate is dried to constant weight to ensure:

a)

Complete precipitation

b)

Removal of adsorbed water

c)

Decomposition of impurities

d)

All of the above

54.

EDTA titrations use Eriochrome Black T indicator for:

a)

Acid-base titrations

b)

Redox titrations

c)

Complexometric titrations

d)

Precipitation titrations

55.

The "sea of electrons" model explains:

a)

Electrical conductivity of metals

b)

High melting points of ionic solids

c)

Brittleness of ceramics

d)

Transparency of diamond

56.

Which theory explains color in transition metal complexes?

a)

VSEPR

b)

CFT

c)

MOT

d)

Band theory

57.

The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO₄ is:

a)

+3

b)

+5

c)

+7

d)

+9

58.

In the spectrochemical series, the strongest field ligand is:

a)

H₂O

b)

NH₃

c)

CN⁻

d)

Cl⁻

59.

The alloy "Nichrome" contains:

a)

Ni + Cr

b)

Cu + Zn

c)

Fe + C

d)

Al + Mg

60.

The coordination number in a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice is:

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

61.

The hybridization of carbon in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:

a)

sp

b)

sp²

c)

sp³

d)

dsp²

62.

Which compound exhibits chain isomerism with butane?

a)

2-Methylpropane

b)

Cyclobutane

c)

But-1-ene

d)

But-2-yne

63.

The most stable conformation of cyclohexane is:

a)

Boat

b)

Chair

c)

Twist-boat

d)

Half-chair

64.

Baeyer's strain theory explains instability in:

a)

Cyclopropane

b)

Cyclohexane

c)

Benzene

d)

Butane

65.

Hückel's rule applies to:

a)

Cyclooctatetraene

b)

Benzene

c)

Naphthalene

d)

Both b & c

66.

The electrophile in nitration of benzene is:

a)

NO₂⁺

b)

NO₃⁻

c)

HNO₃

d)

NO₂

67.

The best reagent for converting R-X → R-OH is:

a)

NaOH (aq)

b)

AgNO₃ (aq)

c)

NaBH₄

d)

LiAlH₄

68.

Which undergoes SN² fastest?

a)

CH₃-Br

b)

(CH₃)₂CH-Br

c)

(CH₃)₃C-Br

d)

C₆H₅-Br

69.

Lucas reagent (ZnCl₂/HCl) tests for:

a)

1°/2°/3° alcohols

b)

Phenols

c)

Ethers

d)

Aldehydes

70.

Williamson synthesis prepares:

a)

Alcohols

b)

Ethers

c)

Esters

d)

Ketones

71.

Tollen's test is positive for:

a)

Acetone

b)

Acetic acid

c)

Formaldehyde

d)

Ethanol

72.

Aldol condensation requires:

a)

α-H in carbonyl

b)

No α-H

c)

Aromatic aldehyde

d)

Acidic conditions

73.

The dihedral angle in staggered ethane is:

a)

0°

b)

60°

c)

120°

d)

180°

74.

Anti-conformation is most stable in:

a)

Ethane

b)

Butane

c)

Cyclohexane

d)

Ethene

75.

A meso compound has:

a)

No chiral centers

b)

Chiral centers + internal symmetry

c)

Only R-configuration

d)

Only S-configuration

76.

The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog priority for -OH, -COOH, -CH₃, -H is:

a)

-COOH > -OH > -CH₃ > -H

b)

-OH > -COOH > -CH₃ > -H

c)

-CH₃ > -OH > -COOH > -H

d)

-H > -CH₃ > -OH > -COOH

77.

Epoxide ring opening by OH⁻ yields:

a)

1° alcohol

b)

1,2-diol

c)

Ether

d)

Ketone

78.

The product of ozonolysis of 2-butene is:

a)

2 aldehydes

b)

2 ketones

c)

1 aldehyde + 1 ketone

d)

Carboxylic acids

79.

Which shows geometrical isomerism?

a)

1-Butene

b)

2-Butene

c)

Cyclopentane

d)

Ethyne

80.

The enantiomeric excess of a sample with 70% R and 30% S is:

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

70%

d)

100%

81.

The azimuthal quantum number (l) for an electron in the 3d subshell is:

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

82.

According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle:

a)

Position and energy cannot be measured simultaneously

b)

Velocity and time cannot be measured simultaneously

c)

Position and momentum cannot be measured simultaneously

d)

Energy and time cannot be measured simultaneously

83.

The compressibility factor (Z) for an ideal gas is always:

a)

0

b)

1

c)

<1

d)

>1

84.

At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. This is:

a)

Charles' Law

b)

Boyle's Law

c)

Avogadro's Law

d)

Gay-Lussac's Law

85.

The boiling point elevation constant (Kb) depends on:

a)

Nature of solute only

b)

Nature of solvent only

c)

Nature of both solute and solvent

d)

None of these

86.

An ideal solution obeys:

a)

Raoult's Law

b)

Henry's Law

c)

Both Raoult's and Henry's Law

d)

Neither Raoult's nor Henry's Law

87.

Which colligative property is most suitable for determining the molecular weight of polymers?

a)

Boiling point elevation

b)

Freezing point depression

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

Relative lowering of vapor pressure

88.

The van't Hoff factor (i) for K2SO4 in dilute aqueous solution is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

89.

The coordination number in a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice is:

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

90.

Schottky defect in crystals involves:

a)

Missing cation and anion pair

b)

Interstitial cation

c)

Extra anion in interstitial site

d)

Displaced cation

91.

For a one-component system, the maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

92.

In Gibbs phase rule, F = C - P + 2, the number 2 represents:

a)

Temperature and pressure

b)

Volume and temperature

c)

Pressure and composition

d)

Temperature and composition

93.

Tyndall effect is observed in:

a)

True solutions

b)

Colloidal solutions

c)

Both true and colloidal solutions

d)

Neither

94.

The process of removing dissolved salts from colloidal solution by placing it in a bag of semipermeable membrane is called:

a)

Dialysis

b)

Peptization

c)

Electrophoresis

d)

Coagulation

95.

Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by:

a)

x/m = kP

b)

x/m = kP¹/ⁿ

c)

x/m = k/P

d)

x/m = k/P¹/ⁿ

96.

Chemical adsorption:

a)

Decreases with temperature

b)

Increases with temperature

c)

Is independent of temperature

d)

First increases then decreases with temperature

97.

The standard deviation is a measure of:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Both accuracy and precision

d)

Neither accuracy nor precision

98.

In error analysis, systematic errors:

a)

Can be minimized by taking multiple measurements

b)

Arise due to limitations of measuring instrument

c)

Are random in nature

d)

Can be completely eliminated

99.

The quantum number that determines the energy of an electron in hydrogen atom is:

a)

Principal quantum number (n)

b)

Azimuthal quantum number (l)

c)

Magnetic quantum number (m)

d)

Spin quantum number (s)

100.

The critical temperature of a gas is the temperature:

a)

Below which it can be liquefied by pressure alone

b)

Above which it cannot be liquefied by any pressure

c)

At which solid, liquid and gas coexist

d)

At which vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure

Similar Resources on Wayground

Biochemistry Review Bomb Live Game

100 questions

Biochemistry Review Bomb Live Game

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Compuestos

102 questions

Compuestos

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

CHEMISTRY ENGINEERING MATERIALS

95 questions

CHEMISTRY ENGINEERING MATERIALS

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

BioChem 1360: Unit 3

100 questions

BioChem 1360: Unit 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Physical Science Chemistry Review

95 questions

Physical Science Chemistry Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Unit 1 & 2 Review

105 questions

Unit 1 & 2 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

CAP 1 Introducción a la Química

100 questions

CAP 1 Introducción a la Química

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Soal Remedial Assesmen Sumatif kelas XI sem ganjil

100 questions

Soal Remedial Assesmen Sumatif kelas XI sem ganjil

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University