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AG1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is providing care for a patient post limb amputation. Which of the following care should the nurse implement to prevent contractures?

a)

A. Figure-8 wrap the extremity 

b)

B. Assist the patient into the prone position

c)

C. Administer pain medication 

d)

D. Encourage prolonged sitting 

2.

A nurse is caring for a patient who reports phantom limb pain? Which of the following are expected characteristics of this pain? Select all that apply

a)

A. Burning

b)

B. Cramping

c)

C. Intense Aching

d)

D. Radiates to left shoulder

3.

 A patient reports chest pain described as "pressure" during exercise that resolves with rest. What type of angina does the nurse suspect? 

a)

A. Unstable angina 

b)

B. Stable angina

c)

C. Variant angina

d)

D. NSTEMI

4.

Which is a non-modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis? 

a)

A. Smoking 

b)

B. Alcohol use 

c)

C. Family history of CAD

d)

D. Uncontrolled hypertension

5.

 Which statement indicates understanding of nitroglycerin use by a patient with newly diagnosed angina? 

a)

A. "I should take this only when chest pain is not relieved by NSAIDs.

b)

B. "I can take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart, for chest pain."

c)

C. "I will take nitroglycerin before breakfast daily."

d)

D. "I will massage the area of chest pain while taking nitroglycerin."

6.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following conditions is expected upon assessment? Select all the apply

a)

A. Frothy-pink sputum 

b)

B. Edema

c)

C. JVD

d)

D. Crackles upon auscultation

7.

 A nurse is providing teaching to a patient with metabolic syndrome. The education has been successful when the patient recognizes that metabolic syndrome includes which combination of conditions?

a)

A. Hypertension, high HDL, PVD 

b)

B. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension

c)

C. COPD, hyperthyroidism, insulin resistance 

d)

D. CHF, obesity, hypertension

8.

A patient presents with a blood pressure of 186/120 and blurred vision. What other findings may be seen on assessment? Select all the apply

a)

A. Severe headache

b)

B. Dizziness

c)

C. Dehydration 

d)

D. Disorientation

9.
  1. A transgender woman underwent transfeminine surgery and had a penile inversion vaginoplasty. What is an important nursing education point prior to discharge? 

a)
  1. A. Aspirin is acceptable to take if the patient is experiencing pain 

b)

B. Sexual intercourse is allowed after 6 weeks of healing 

c)

C. Vaginal dilation and routine cleaning are required lifelong 

d)

D. The patient needs complete bedrest during healing

10.
  1. An older adult reports decreased appetite, weight loss, and altered taste. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

a)
  1. A. Recommend high-calorie, nutrient-dense snacks between meals 

b)

B. Restrict fluids to avoid early feelings of fullness

c)

C. Encourage one large meal a day 

d)

D. Increase intake of processed foods for convenience

11.
  1. What is an expected age-related change in the gastrointestinal system that a nurse should anticipate with older adult patients?

a)

A. Increased hydrochloric acid secretion 

b)

B. Decreased gastric motility 

c)

C. Increased taste bud sensitivity 

d)

D. Enhanced absorption of calcium

12.
  1. A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

A. “I will be sedated during the procedure” 

b)

B. “I can eat a light breakfast the morning of the test”

c)

C. “I need to drink the bowel prep solution as directed”

d)

D. “Someone will need to drive me home after the test”

13.

A patient with TPN runs out and there is no new bag on the floor yet. What is the nurse’s first action to take?

a)

A. Hang a bag of 10% dextrose and restart the TPN when it becomes available

b)

B. Flush the central line and cap it

c)

C. Notify the provider to order new PTN

d)

D. Increase the rate of the new TPN when it becomes available since the patient was without it for a period of time

14.

A patient presents with profuse projectile vomiting, upper abdominal distention, and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance. They are diagnosed with short bowel obstruction (SBO). What is the resulting acid-base imbalance?

a)

A. Metabolic acidosis

b)

B. Metabolic alkalosis

c)

C. Respiratory acidosis

d)

D. Respiratory alkalosis

15.

A patient is diagnosed with a large bowel obstruction. What are expected lab values for this patient?

a)

A. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit

b)

B. Decreased BUN and creatinine

c)

C. Decreased white blood cells

d)

D. Elevated serum calcium

16.

A patient has a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates the NGT is functioning properly?

a)

A. Greenish-yellow fluid is draining into the collection container

b)

B. The patient reports increased abdominal distention

c)

C. There is no change in drainage for several hours

d)

D. The patient has persistent nausea

17.
  1. A patient presents complaining of pain that is better with eating but worsens 2-3 hours post-meal, is worse at night, and saying they’ve been having melena stools. As the nurse, what do you expect the patient to be diagnosed with?

a)

A. Gastric ulcer 

b)

B. Duodenal ulcer

18.
  1. As the nurse of a patient who just had surgery for peptic ulcer disease (PUD), what would you NOT expect to do while caring for this patient?

a)

A. Place the patient in semi-fowler’s position 

b)

B. Start the patient with a clear liquid diet 

c)

C. Flush the NGT as needed

d)

D. Monitor for incisional bleeding

19.
  1. Which statement by a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

A. “I will avoid sun exposure and wear protective clothing” 

b)

B. “I should report any new onset of chest pain to my provider immediately”

c)

C. “I can stop take my corticosteroids when I feel better” 

d)

D. I will monitor for signs of infection while on immunosuppressants”

20.
  1. Which patient is contraindicated for a MMR immunization?

a)
  1. A. A 5-year old patient allergic to eggs 

b)

B. A 2-year old with a mild cold 

c)

C. A 3-year old receiving chemotherapy 

d)

D. A 7-year old who missed the second MMR dose

21.

A patient presents with the following ABG results:

  • pH: 7.30

  • PaCO₂: 55 mmHg

  • HCO₃⁻: 28 mEq/L

Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

A. Respiratory acidosis with partial compensation 

b)

 B. Metabolic acidosis with full compensation

c)

C. Respiratory acidosis without compensation

d)

 D. Metabolic alkalosis without compensation

22.

 A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for discharge. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?

a)

A. "I will monitor my blood sugar before meals and at bedtime."

b)

B. "I will call my provider if my glucose is over 240 even with medication."

c)

 C. "I will soak my feet daily in warm water to promote circulation."

d)

 D. "I will carry a fast-acting sugar source with me at all times."

23.

 A hospice nurse is caring for a patient showing Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

b)

B. Provide calm presence and frequent repositioning

c)

C. Increase oral fluid intake

d)

D. Administer PRN morphine to suppress respiration

24.

 The nurse reviews labs for a patient with chronic renal failure and notes a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the first action the nurse should take?

a)

A. Encourage increased oral fluid intake

b)

B. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate

c)

C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

d)

D. Recheck the serum potassium in 2 hours

25.

 A patient with SIADH has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

A. Administer 0.45% NaCl IV fluid

b)

B. Restrict fluid intake

c)

C. Provide a low-sodium diet

d)

D. Encourage ambulation

26.


A newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic presents with fruity breath, Kussmaul respirations, and blood glucose of 550 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?

a)

A. Administer IV insulin infusion

b)

B. Insert a Foley catheter

c)

C. Start an IV of 0.9% NS

d)

D. Check urine for ketones

27.

 Which of the following is an expected physical finding in the active dying phase?

a)

A. Bounding pulses and flushed skin

b)

B. Restlessness and productive cough

c)

C. Mottled extremities and decreased urine output

d)

D. Increased appetite and regular respirations

28.

 Which assessment finding in a patient with hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention?

a)

A. Muscle weakness in lower extremities

b)

B. Tall, peaked T waves on ECG

c)

C. Abdominal cramping

d)

D. Diarrhea and hyperactive bowel sounds

29.

 A patient receiving IV potassium reports burning at the IV site. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

A. Stop the infusion immediately

b)

B. Dilute the potassium more

c)

C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site

d)

D. Slow the infusion rate and monitor

30.

 A patient has the following ABG:

  • pH: 7.48

    PaCO₂: 28

    HCO₃⁻: 22

    What is the acid-base disorder?

a)

A. Metabolic alkalosis with compensation

b)

B. Respiratory alkalosis without compensation

c)

C. Respiratory acidosis with partial compensation

d)

D. Metabolic acidosis with full compensation

31.

Which statement by a patient with type 1 diabetes indicates proper understanding of sick day management?

a)

A. "I will stop taking insulin if I cannot eat."

b)

B. "I should check my blood sugar every other day when I'm sick."

c)

C. "I will drink sugar-free liquids to avoid hyperglycemia."

d)

D. "I will check for ketones if my glucose is over 240 mg/dL."

32.

 A family member asks the nurse, “Is this the end?” as the nurse notes the patient shows signs of imminent death. What is the nurse’s best response?

a)

A. “He’s just sleeping deeply right now.”

b)

B. “Would you like to speak to the doctor about his condition?”

c)

C. “Yes, he is showing signs of nearing death. I’ll stay with you.”

d)

D. “We cannot predict the end exactly, but he should recover soon.”

33.

 A marathon runner collapses and presents with confusion, nausea, and a sodium level of 120 mEq/L. What type of hyponatremia is most likely?

a)

A. Euvolemic

b)

B. Hypervolemic

c)

C. Hypovolemic

d)

D. Isotonic

34.

A nurse is reviewing diagnostic results for a client with suspected peripheral venous disease.

Which findings are most consistent with this diagnosis? Select all the apply.

a)

A. Venous duplex ultrasound showing venous reflux

b)

B. Magnetic resonance venogram (MRV) showing obstruction

c)

C. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.65

d)

D. D-dimer level of 0.80 mg/L in a 70-year-old client

35.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD).

Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

a)

A. “I will apply a heating pad to my legs when they feel cold.”

b)

B. “I will elevate my legs above my heart when resting."

c)

C. “I will wear warm socks to help maintain circulation.”

d)

D. “I will use compression stockings to prevent swelling.”

36.

The nurse is reviewing the charts of several clients to determine who is at greatest risk for

developing a venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which clients require interventions to reduce

VTE risk? (Select all that apply.)

a)

A. A 72-year-old recovering from hip replacement surgery, on limited mobility

orders for the next several days.

b)

B. A 45-year-old on bed rest for 5 days following a large ischemic stroke, receiving

enteral feedings.

c)

C. A 30-year-old who is 34 weeks pregnant and works at a desk job for 10 hours a

day.

d)

D. A 50-year-old hospitalized with severe COVID-19 and requiring high-flow nasal

cannula oxygen therapy.

e)

E. A 56-year-old with a central venous catheter receiving long-term chemotherapy

for colon cancer.

37.

The nurse is assessing four clients in the clinic. Which client’s complaint is most consistent

with peripheral artery disease (PAD) rather than peripheral venous disease (PVD)?

a)

A. “My legs swell the most by the end of the day, and the skin around my ankles looks

darker.”

b)

B. “I have a burning pain in my calves when I walk that goes away when I rest.”

c)

C. “The skin on my lower legs is warm, and I have a sore on the inside of my ankle that

keeps draining.”

d)

D. “I have thick, itchy skin on my lower legs and mild aching after standing for long

periods.”

38.

The nurse is teaching a group of older adults about normal age-related changes in the renal

system. Which statement by a participant indicates understanding of this topic?

a)

A. “I should expect my kidneys to produce more concentrated urine as I get older.”

b)

B. “It’s normal for my glomerular filtration rate to gradually decrease with age.”

c)

C. “As I age, my bladder capacity will increase so I can hold more urine.”

d)

D. “I will be less likely to become dehydrated because my kidneys hold on to water

better.”

39.

A nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled renal biopsy. Which finding should the nurse

report to the provider before the procedure?

a)

A. BUN 26 mg/dL (Normal: 7–20 mg/dL) and creatinine 1.4 mg/dL (Normal: Male

0.6–1.3; Female 0.5–1.1)

b)

B. PT 22 seconds (Normal: 11–13.5 sec) and INR 2.1 (Normal: ~1.0 if not on

anticoagulants)

c)

C. Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL (Normal: 13.8–17.1) and hematocrit 41% (Normal: 40–54%)

d)

D. Blood pressure 132/84 mm Hg (Normal: <120/80 mm Hg)

40.

A client in the ED is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Ten minutes ago, the client was

wheezing audibly; now, breath sounds are markedly diminished, and the client appears drowsy.

Vital signs: RR 34/min, HR 122 bpm, SpO₂ 86% on room air. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for possible intubation.

b)

B. Document the finding as an improvement in the client’s respiratory status.

c)

C. Administer the prescribed nebulized bronchodilator treatment.

d)

D. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing to improve ventilation.

41.

A nurse is providing medication teaching to a client with asthma who is prescribed albuterol

and fluticasone. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?

a)

A. “I should use the steroid inhaler first to reduce swelling, then the bronchodilator will

work better.”

b)

B. “I’ll use the rescue inhaler first, wait about 5 minutes, and then take my steroid

inhaler.”

c)

C. “I can take both inhalers right after each other since they work on different parts of my

lungs.”

d)

D. “I’ll use the bronchodilator before the steroid inhaler, but only if I’m having trouble

breathing that day.”

42.

The nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which finding should the nurse recognize as

most consistent with this diagnosis?

a)

A. Hyperresonance to percussion and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air

b)

B. Crackles in all lung fields and SpO₂ of 98% on room air

c)

C. Barrel chest and productive cough that worsens in the evening

d)

D. Tripod position and oxygen saturation of 96% on room air

43.

The nurse is caring for a client with COPD who suddenly becomes short of breath while

ambulating in the hallway. Which instruction should the nurse give to help improve ventilation?

a)

A. “Breathe in quickly through your mouth, then exhale forcefully.”

b)

B. “Breathe in slowly through your nose, then exhale slowly through pursed lips.”

c)

C. “Take two quick breaths in through your nose, then cough hard.”

d)

D. “Hold your breath for 10 seconds before exhaling through pursed lips.”

44.

A client with a history of stage 4 chronic kidney disease is admitted with sudden shortness of

breath and pleuritic chest pain. The provider suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate?

a)

A. CT pulmonary angiography with IV contrast

b)

B. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

c)

C. Pulmonary function testing

d)

D. Chest X-ray

45.

The nurse is reviewing documentation for a client diagnosed with the following fungal

infections. Which pairing of common name and medical term is correct?

a)

A. Athlete’s foot — Tinea cruris

b)

B. Ringworm of the scalp — Tinea capitis

c)

C. Jock itch — Tinea unguium

d)

D. Nail fungus — Tinea corporis

46.

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected psoriasis. Which finding would support this

diagnosis?

a)

A. Red, scaly plaques located on the flexor surfaces of the elbows and knees

b)

B. Thickened, silvery plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees

c)

C. Erythematous rash with honey-colored crusts on the cheeks and chin

d)

D. Painful fluid-filled blisters along the trigeminal nerve distribution

47.

The nurse assesses a client with a painful, blister-like rash on one side of the torso in a

linear pattern. The client reports having chickenpox as a child. Which action is most

appropriate?

a)

A. Provide pain relief and keep the rash covered to prevent fluid contact with

susceptible individuals

b)

B. Provide pain relief and keep the rash covered to prevent airborne spread to

susceptible individuals

c)

C. Apply an occlusive dressing to seal off the lesions completely

d)

D. Recommend an over-the-counter antifungal cream for skin irritation

48.

The nurse is caring for a client with recurrent painful vesicles on the lips. Which statement

by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

A. “I can spread this virus even if the blisters aren’t present.”

b)

B. “I should avoid kissing others while I have an active sore.”

c)

C. “This infection can be cured with antiviral medication.”

d)

D. “Stress or illness can trigger another outbreak.”

49.

The nurse is reviewing postoperative notes for a client whose contaminated leg wound was

left open for 4 days and then surgically closed. Which statement best describes the healing

process?

a)

A. The wound will heal by primary intention, resulting in minimal scar tissue.

b)

B. The wound is healing by secondary intention, filling in from the base up without closure

c)

C. The wound is healing by tertiary intention, with delayed closure after infection

risk decreased.

d)

D. The wound will regenerate completely without scar formation.

50.

A client with a draining abdominal wound is scheduled for IV ceftriaxone at 1000. The

provider’s orders also include “wound culture × 1.” It is now 0945. Which action should the

nurse take?

a)

A. Administer the antibiotic as scheduled, then collect the culture at the next dressing

change

b)

B. Collect the wound culture now, then administer the antibiotic

c)

C. Wait until after the antibiotic is infused to collect the culture, so bacteria are reduced

d)

D. Administer the antibiotic and collect the culture at the same time to avoid delaying

either order

51.

A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a PICC line has just returned from an X-

ray. The nurse finds the client diaphoretic, shaky, and reporting weakness. Which action is the priority?

a)

A. Check the client’s blood glucose level immediately

b)

B. Notify the provider of possible TPN-related complications

c)

C. Flush the PICC line with normal saline to ensure patency

d)

D. Increase the TPN infusion rate to stabilize blood sugar

52.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a PICC line. The current TPN bag

was hung yesterday at 2000 and is infusing at the prescribed rate. It is now 1930 the following day, and about 200 mL remain in the bag. Which action should the nurse take?

a)

A. Allow the remaining TPN to finish before changing the bag

b)

B. Change the TPN bag and tubing at 2000 regardless of remaining volume

c)

C. Increase the infusion rate to finish the bag before 2000

d)

Hang the new TPN bag and continue using the same tubing for up to 72 hours

53.

A client receiving continuous TPN via a PICC line is nearing the end of the 24-hour infusion

bag at 1900. The next bag from pharmacy will not be available for another 3 hours. The client

has no current IV fluids ordered. The client suddenly becomes diaphoretic, shaky, and reports

weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

A. Hang D10W at the same rate as the TPN until the new bag arrives

b)

B. Administer orange juice orally to quickly raise blood sugar if the glucose is < 70 mg/dL

c)

C. Clamp the PICC line and wait for the new TPN bag

d)

D. Slow the TPN infusion to make it last until the new bag arrives

54.

A nurse is caring for a client who just returned from a cerebral angiogram. Which action is the priority?

a)

A. Encourage oral fluids to flush the dye

b)

B. Keep the affected leg straight and assess the puncture site

c)

C. Administer prescribed antiemetics

d)

D. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees

55.

A client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 following a fall. What should the nurse do first?

a)

A. Prepare for intubation

b)

B. Document the score and recheck in 1 hour

c)

C. Apply bilateral wrist restraints

d)

D. Administer oral fluids

56.

Which nursing interventions are appropriate for a client with multiple sclerosis? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Encourage swimming as tolerated

b)

B. Restrict fluid intake to reduce urgency

c)

C. Apply fall precautions

d)

D. Provide a low-fat, high-fiber diet

57.

Which of the following findings is most consistent with Parkinson’s disease?

a)

A. Sudden loss of vision

b)

B. Fluctuating muscle weakness

c)

C. Resting tremors and shuffling gait

d)

D. Projectile vomiting and photophobia

58.

Which instruction is most important for a client experiencing vertigo?

a)

A. Limit salt to reduce fluid in the inner ear

b)

B. Perform jumping jacks daily for balance

c)

C. Avoid all carbohydrate intake

d)

D. Increase caffeine to stimulate alertness

59.

A nurse is teaching a client about cataract surgery recovery. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

A. “I can lift up to 20 pounds if I feel okay.”

b)

B. “I should avoid sneezing or straining.”

c)

C. “My vision will improve within 24 hours.”

d)

D. “I should avoid wearing sunglasses.”

60.

Which finding should be reported immediately following glaucoma surgery?

a)

A. Mild aching

b)

B. Slight redness of the eye

c)

C. Sudden eye pain with nausea

d)

D. Seeing halos around lights

61.

A client with macular degeneration asks what to expect. Which is the best response by the nurse?

a)

A. “You may gradually lose your central vision.”

b)

B. “This only affects peripheral vision.”

c)

C. “Your vision will return once the swelling resolves.”

d)

D. “You will be able to see clearly with corrective lenses.”

62.

Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with dysphagia? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Keep the client upright during meals

b)

B. Provide thin liquids

c)

C. Monitor for pocketing of food

d)

D. Keep suction equipment at bedside

63.

Which deficiency is most directly linked to delayed wound healing?

a)

A. Potassium

b)

B. Vitamin A

c)

C. Iron

d)

D. Calcium

64.

Which diet is most appropriate for a client with Meniere’s disease?

a)

A. High-protein, low-fiber diet

b)

B. Low-sodium diet with evenly spaced fluids

c)

C. Low-calorie diet with fluid restriction

d)

D. High-sodium, high-potassium diet

65.

A nurse is teaching a client about wound healing. Which food should the nurse recommend to support tissue repair?

a)

A. White rice

b)

B. Lean chicken

c)

C. Iceberg lettuce

d)

D. Applesauce

66.

Which laboratory marker is most commonly elevated in individuals with prostate cancer?

a)

A. TSH

b)

B. INR

c)

C. PSA

d)

D. Testosterone 

67.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours post–transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

a)

A. Pink looking urine in the catheter bag

b)

B. Patient reporting the need to frequently urinate

c)

C. Low to no urine output

d)

D. Small amount of blood clots visible in the catheter tubing

68.

A nurse is attending to a newly admitted patient to the medical surgical floor and finds that the existing IV is red, warm and slightly edentulous. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

A. Elevate the extremity

b)

B. Check for blood return

c)

C. Flush the line

d)

D. Discontinue the IV

69.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client newly diagnosed with osteoarthritis. Which of the following client statements indicates a correct understanding of the disease process?

a)

A. "I have an autoimmune disease that attacks my bones."

b)

B. "I have a disease causing pain in both of my knees."

c)

C. "I have a disease causing pain in my right knee."

d)

D. "My disease will be cured if I take the right medication."

70.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following a total knee replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent complications?

a)

A. Encourage the client to bear full weight on the affected leg immediately

b)

B. Apply ice packs to the surgical site to reduce swelling

c)

C. Place a pillow under the knee to keep it flexed while in bed

d)

D. Monitor the surgical leg for increased warmth, redness, and drainage

71.

A patient has just been recently admitted to the emergency department for a suspected fracture due to a fall. Which of the following imaging techniques will be used to assess for a break?

a)

A. CT

b)

B. X-ray

c)

C. MRI

d)

D. Bone scan

72.

A client is in skeletal traction after a femur fracture. Which of the following requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

a)

A. Tractions weights on the floor

b)

B. Traction weights hanging freely off the bed

c)

C. No traction weights

d)

D. Client's report of annoyance 

73.

A nurse is caring for a client in halo traction following a cervical spine injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

A. Ensure the vest fits snugly and use baby powder to prevent movement of the cervical spine

b)

B. Use pillows to support the client’s head while in bed

c)

C. Adjust the halo pins daily to maintain proper alignment

d)

D. Perform pin site care every day using sterile technique

74.

A nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about osteoporosis prevention. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

a)

A. "I should avoid weight-bearing exercises to prevent fractures."

b)

B. "I will increase my intake of calcium and vitamin D."

c)

C. "Smoking helps keep my bones strong."

d)

D. "I don't need to worry about my diet as long as I take medication.

75.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following control precautions should the nurse use?

a)

A. Standard precautions

b)

B. Placing the patient in a private room with a negative pressure airflow

c)

C. Wearing a surgical mask when in contact with the patient

d)

D. Using enteric precautions