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Sexual Andrology

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 28-year-old man with Kallmann syndrome is treated with hCG and FSH injections over two years. His serum testosterone and FSH levels are normal. His semen volume is 1.0 mL, sperm count is six million sperm/mL, and sperm motility is 90%. Well-timed sexual intercourse has not resulted in pregnancy for his wife, whose evaluation is normal. The next step is:

a)

Intrauterine insemination

b)

Color Doppler scrotal ultrasound

c)

ICSI

d)

TRUS

e)

Testis biopsy

2.

A 45-year-old man presents with primary infertility. Physical examination shows small testes, bilateral gynecomastia, and decreased body hair. Semen analysis reveals azoospermia. Serum FSH and LH are elevated, and testosterone is low. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Kallmann syndrome

b)

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

c)

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

d)

Klinefelter syndrome

e)

Y chromosome microdeletion

3.

In men, testosterone therapy can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Decreased sperm production

b)

Increased hematocrit

c)

Increased spermatogenesis

d)

Gynecomastia

e)

Decreased intratesticular testosterone

4.

Which of the following is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in men over 50 years old?

a)

Psychogenic factors

b)

Hypogonadism

c)

Vascular disease

d)

Neurologic disease

e)

Peyronie's disease

5.

A 35-year-old man presents with infertility. Semen analysis shows normal volume, azoospermia, and low FSH. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a)

Klinefelter syndrome

b)

Sertoli cell-only syndrome

c)

Obstructive azoospermia

d)

Mumps orchitis

e)

Y chromosome microdeletion

6.

The first-line therapy for premature ejaculation is:

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Tadalafil

c)

SSRIs (e.g., dapoxetine, paroxetine)

d)

Intracavernosal injection

e)

Vacuum erection device

7.

Which of the following semen parameters is LEAST affected by varicocelectomy?

a)

Sperm count

b)

Sperm motility

c)

Semen volume

d)

Sperm morphology

e)

Total motile count

8.

Which of the following is the most common structural abnormality in men with congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens?

a)

Bilateral renal agenesis

b)

Unilateral renal agenesis

c)

Horseshoe kidney

d)

Polycystic kidney disease

e)

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

9.

A patient with erectile dysfunction is found to have low testosterone on two morning serum measurements. LH is elevated. The next step is:

a)

Testicular ultrasound

b)

Testosterone replacement therapy

c)

MRI of pituitary

d)

Semen analysis

e)

Karyotype analysis

10.

Which of the following is most likely to improve erectile function in a man with type 2 diabetes and ED?

a)

Tight glycemic control alone

b)

Vacuum erection device only

c)

PDE5 inhibitor therapy

d)

Penile prosthesis as first-line

e)

Intracavernosal papaverine alone

11.

The first-line pharmacologic treatment for premature ejaculation is:

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Tadalafil

c)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

d)

Intracavernosal injection

e)

Vacuum erection device

12.

A patient with erectile dysfunction is started on sildenafil. The primary mechanism of action of sildenafil is:

a)

Nitric oxide donor

b)

Guanylate cyclase inhibitor

c)

Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor

d)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

e)

Beta-adrenergic blocker

13.

A 32-year-old man with azoospermia has small testes and elevated FSH. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Obstructive azoospermia

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Pituitary adenoma

d)

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

e)

Y chromosome microdeletion

14.

The most common side effect of intracavernosal injection therapy for erectile dysfunction is:

a)

Priapism

b)

Corporal fibrosis

c)

Penile pain

d)

Infection

e)

Hematoma

15.

Which of the following is a contraindication to testosterone replacement therapy?

a)

Type 2 diabetes

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Desire for fertility

d)

History of kidney stones

e)

Obstructive sleep apnea

16.

A patient with congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens should have which additional evaluation?

a)

Renal ultrasound

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Scrotal ultrasound

d)

Transrectal ultrasound

e)

Karyotype

17.

The most common complication of penile prosthesis implantation is:

a)

Cylinder leakage

b)

Infection

c)

Mechanical failure

d)

Penile shortening

e)

Urethral erosion

18.

Which of the following semen parameters is most predictive of natural conception?

a)

Sperm concentration

b)

Sperm motility

c)

Sperm morphology

d)

Semen volume

e)

pH

19.

The recommended first-line therapy for erectile dysfunction in a patient with diabetes is:

a)

Penile prosthesis

b)

Vacuum erection device

c)

PDE5 inhibitor

d)

Intracavernosal injection

e)

Psychosexual counseling

20.

Which of the following is the most common cause of primary hypogonadism in men?

a)

Kallmann syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Testicular trauma

d)

Mumps orchitis

e)

Cryptorchidism

21.

Male factors associated with an increase of SHBG circulating levels are all, EXCEPT:

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Aging

c)

AIDS/HIV

d)

Cushing disease

22.

Based on 2nd and 3rd Princeton Consensus, intermediate cardiac risk patients with erectile dysfunction include patients with:

a)

Recent myocardial infarction less than 2 weeks ago

b)

Recent myocardial infarction between 2 to 6 weeks ago

c)

Myocardial infarction more than 6 weeks ago

d)

Uncomplicated previous myocardial infarction

23.

Topical alprostadil is currently approved at the dose of:

a)

100 μg

b)

200 μg

c)

300 μg

d)

400 μg

24.

Which statement regarding the treatment of erectile dysfunction is correct?

a)

Sildenafil is effective 10-20 minutes after administration

b)

Efficacy of Tadalafil is maintained for up to 24 hours

c)

Efficacy of Vardenafil is reduced by a heavy, fatty meal

d)

Avanafil dosage should be adapted based on renal function, hepatic function, age or gender

25.

Which phosphodiesterase inhibitor is associated with the highest PDE selectivity for PDE5 over PDE6?

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Tadalafil

c)

Vardenafil

d)

Avanafil

26.

One of the purposes of The International Index of Erectile Function questionnaire is to:

a)

Define the aetiology of erectile dysfunction

b)

Determine the type of erectile dysfunction

c)

Detect the risk factors of erectile dysfunction

d)

Monitor the response to treatment

27.

Which is an absolute contraindication for intracavernosal alprostadil therapy in erectile dysfunction treatment?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Anticoagulant use

c)

Peyronie's disease

d)

History of ischemic priapism

28.

Which is the most common postoperative complication of grafting procedures for Peyronie's disease treatment?

a)

Erectile dysfunction

b)

Penile shortening

c)

Poor cosmetic result

d)

Urethral injury

29.

Which of the following is NOT a recognised treatment for premature ejaculation?

a)

Dapoxetine

b)

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Tramadol

30.

What is the prevalence of testicular microcalcification in men referred for testicular ultrasound?

a)

1-10%

b)

0-1%

c)

10-25%

d)

25-50%