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Blood Bank SL Exam III Review

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many days before a blood bank specimen expires?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

1 month

2.

How many days must a blood bank specimen and donor unit segments be retained post-transfusion?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

1 month

3.

Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared from whole blood should contain how much Factor VIII:

a)

40 IU

b)

80 IU

c)

120 IU

d)

150 IU

4.

A patient has a history of anti-Jka, the antibody screen is negative today. What RBC unit should be selected?

a)

Jk(a-) red cells, computer crossmatched

b)

Jk(a-) red cells, AHG crossmatch

c)

Jk(a-) red cells, immediate spin crossmatch

d)

ABO compatible, no additional screening required.

5.

An O negative patient requires 3 units of FFP, what donor units could be selected?

a)

O negative

b)

AB Positive

c)

A negative

d)

All of the above

6.

Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets?

a)

5.5 X 1010

b)

6.0 X 1010

c)

3.0 x 1011

d)

5.5 X 106

7.

An AB negative patient needs to be transfused and there are not any AB negative units available. What unit below could you use?

a)

A negative

b)

O positive

c)

B Positive

d)

All of the unit listed

8.

Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor?

a)

Temperature 99.2° F

b)

hematocrit 37%

c)

spent 2 weeks in the United Kingdom in 1998

d)

Received a blood transfusion 2 years ago

9.

Which of the following would be a cause for permanent deferral?

a)

Received a dura mater graft 9 months ago

b)

Received hepatitis B immune globulin

c)

Is currently on warfarin

d)

had a needlestick exposure 6 months ago

10.

Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for how long?

a)

4 weeks

b)

8 weeks

c)

6 months

d)

1 year

11.

Which of the following donors is acceptable?

a)

donor who had a first- trimester abortion 4 weeks ago

b)

donor whose husband is a hemophiliac who received cryoprecipitate before 1989

c)

donor who was treated for gonorrhea 6 months ago

d)

donor who had malaria 1 year ago

12.

Which of the following tests is not required as part of the donor-processing procedure for allogeneic donation?

a)

ABO

b)

Rh

c)

STS

d)

Anti-HTLV-1

e)

Anti-CMV

13.

Which of the following carries a 12 month-deferral?

a)

donor received Hepatitis B Immune globulin

b)

donor received pituitary growth hormone from another human

c)

donor received the MMR vaccine

d)

donor spent 10 year in West Africa

14.

Which of the following refers to a temporary deferral?

a)

donor received varicella zoster live attenuated vaccine

b)

donor had a confirmed positive test for HBsAg

c)

Donor has a history of CJD

d)

Donor was diagnosed with Babesiosis

15.

Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within _____ hours unless relabeled as thawed plasma.

a)

4 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

16.

How does irradiation affect the shelf life of red blood cells?

a)

Irradiation has no affect on the shelf life

b)

Expiration date is 28 days or original expiration date, whichever is longer

c)

Expiration date is 28 days or original expiration date, whichever is shorter

d)

Expiration date is 24 hours after irradiation

17.

RBC's that have been leukoreduced must contain less than ____ leukocytes.

a)

8.0 X 106

b)

3.0 X 106

c)

5.0 X 106

d)

5.0 X 103

18.

Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled in an open system must be transfused within ____ hours

a)

24 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

8 hours

19.

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion- associated sepsis?

a)

Plasma

b)

packed red blood cells

c)

platelets

d)

Whole blood

20.

Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent:

a)

FNHTR

b)

DHTR

c)

TA-GVHD

d)

TACO

21.

The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is:

a)

Renal failure

b)

unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

c)

active bleeding

d)

hives

22.

TRALI presents with the following symptoms:

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

severe hypoxemia and hypotension

c)

Fever

d)

All of the listed symptoms

23.

Anaphylactic reactions after transfusion is most often associated with what product:

a)

Platelets (IgA deficient patient)

b)

Plasma (IgA deficient patient

c)

ABO incompatible RBCs

d)

Bacterial contaminated platelets

24.

A FNHTR is classified when the fever has a change of ≧ ______

a)

1.0 ° F or 1.8 ° C

b)

1.5 ° C or 1.5 ° F

c)

1.0 ° C or 1.8 ° F

d)

1.0 ° C or F

25.

The type of transfusion event most often associated with fatalities is:

a)

TACO

b)

AHTR

c)

TTBi

d)

TRALI