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TUTORIAL MITE 2093

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of the intervertebral disks in the vertebral column?

a)

Connect ribs to the vertebrae

b)

Protect the spinal cord from injury

c)

Provide cushioning and flexibility

d)

Facilitate blood flow to the spinal cord

2.

Which cervical vertebra is known as the 'atlas'?

a)

C2

b)

C1

c)

C7

d)

C3

3.

What type of curvature is described as lordotic in the vertebral column?

a)

Thoracic curvature

b)

Sacral curvature

c)

Cervical and lumbar curvature

d)

Coccygeal curvature

4.

Which projection is used to visualize the atlantoaxial joints between C1 and C2?

a)

AP axial projection

b)

Lateral projection

c)

AP open mouth projection

d)

Oblique projection

5.

What is the recommended SID for lateral cervical spine radiographs?

a)

40 inches

b)

50 inches

c)

60 to 72 inches

d)

30 inches

6.

What is the name of the first compensatory curve in the vertebral column?

a)

Lumbar curvature

b)

Cervical curvature

c)

Thoracic curvature

d)

Sacral curvature

7.

Which vertebra is referred to as the 'vertebra prominens'?

a)

C6

b)

C5

c)

C7

d)

T1

8.

What is the primary curvature of the thoracic spine?

a)

Convex curvature

b)

Concave curvature

c)

Lordotic curvature

d)

Neutral curvature

9.

Which joint is responsible for rotation of the head?

a)

Occipitoatlantal joint

b)

Atlantoaxial joint

c)

Zygapophyseal joint

d)

Costotransverse joint

10.

What is the term for an exaggerated thoracic curvature?

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Neutral curvature

11.

Which cervical vertebra contains the odontoid process (dens)?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

C3

d)

C7

12.

What type of joint is the zygapophyseal joint?

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

Fibrous

c)

Synovial

d)

Amphiarthrodial

13.

Which projection is best for visualizing the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?

a)

AP axial projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

Lateral projection

d)

AP open mouth projection

14.

What is the angle required for the CR in an anterior oblique cervical spine projection?

a)

10° cephalad

b)

15° caudad

c)

20° cephalad

d)

5° caudad

15.

Which vertebrae are connected to ribs?

a)

Lumbar vertebrae

b)

Thoracic vertebrae

c)

Cervical vertebrae

d)

Sacral vertebrae

16.

What is the term for an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine?

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Neutral curvature

17.

Which projection is used to visualize the dens when the AP open mouth projection is not sufficient?

a)

AP axial projection

b)

Fuchs or Judd method

c)

Lateral projection

d)

Oblique projection

18.

What is the primary function of the spinal canal?

a)

Protect the ribs

b)

Enclose and protect the spinal cord

c)

Support the vertebral column

d)

Facilitate blood flow

19.

Which cervical vertebra has no body?

a)

C2

b)

C3

c)

C1

d)

C7

20.

What is the term for the soft inner part of the intervertebral disk?

a)

Annulus fibrosus

b)

Nucleus pulposus

c)

Vertebral body

d)

Pedicle

21.

Which projection is best for visualizing the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection

c)

Oblique projection

d)

AP open mouth projection

22.

What is the angle required for the CR in a posterior oblique cervical spine projection?

a)

15° cephalad

b)

10° caudad

c)

20° cephalad

d)

5° cephalad

23.

Which vertebrae are the largest and strongest in the vertebral column?

a)

Cervical vertebrae

b)

Thoracic vertebrae

c)

Lumbar vertebrae

d)

Sacral vertebrae

24.

What is the term for the outer fibrous portion of the intervertebral disk?

a)

Annulus fibrosus

b)

Nucleus pulposus

c)

Vertebral body

d)

Pedicle

25.

Which projection is used to visualize the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection

c)

Oblique projection

d)

AP open mouth projection

26.

What is the term for the condition where the nucleus pulposus protrudes through the annulus fibrosus?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

d)

Scoliosis

27.

Which projection is used to demonstrate the atlantoaxial joint between C1 and C2?

a)

Lateral projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

AP open mouth projection

d)

AP axial projection

28.

What is the CR angle for an AP axial projection of the cervical spine?

a)

10° cephalad

b)

15° to 20° cephalad

c)

5° caudad

d)

25° cephalad

29.

Which projection is best for visualizing the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?

a)

Lateral projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

AP open mouth projection

d)

AP axial projection

30.

What is the recommended SID for a lateral cervical spine projection?

a)

40 inches

b)

50 inches

c)

60 to 72 inches

d)

30 inches

31.

Which projection is used to visualize the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection

c)

Oblique projection

d)

AP open mouth projection

32.

What is the CR angle for an anterior oblique projection of the cervical spine?

a)

10° cephalad

b)

15° caudad

c)

20° cephalad

d)

5° caudad

33.

Which projection is used to visualize the dens when the AP open mouth projection is not sufficient?

a)

Lateral projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

Fuchs or Judd method

d)

AP axial projection

34.

What is the purpose of the Swimmer's lateral projection?

a)

To visualize the atlantoaxial joint

b)

To visualize the C7-T1 junction

c)

To visualize the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine

d)

To visualize the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine

35.

Which projection is used to evaluate cervical spine mobility in cases of whiplash?

a)

AP axial projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension projections

d)

AP open mouth projection

36.

What is the purpose of the vertebral column?

a)

To protect internal organs

b)

To provide a flexible supporting column for the trunk and head and transmit weight to the lower limbs

c)

To produce red blood cells

d)

To store minerals

37.

How many vertebrae are typically found in the adult vertebral column?

a)

33

b)

26

c)

7

d)

12

38.

Which section of the vertebral column consists of 12 vertebrae, each connecting to a pair of ribs?

a)

Cervical vertebrae

b)

Lumbar vertebrae

c)

Thoracic vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

39.

Which part of a typical vertebra forms the thick, weight-bearing anterior portion?

a)

Vertebral arch

b)

Lamina

c)

Body

d)

Spinous process

40.

What is the name of the opening formed by the stacking of vertebral foramina, which encloses and protects the spinal cord?

a)

Intervertebral foramen

b)

Transverse foramen

c)

Spinal canal

d)

Vertebral notch

41.

Which term describes an abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine curvature?

a)

Lordosis

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Spondylosis

42.

What type of joints are the intervertebral joints found between the vertebral bodies?

a)

Synovial

b)

Amphiarthrodial

c)

Diarthrodial

d)

Gliding

43.

What is the unique characteristic of all cervical vertebrae regarding foramina?

a)

Each has one large vertebral foramen only.

b)

Each has two transverse foramina and one large vertebral foramen.

c)

Each has three foramina that run vertically (right and left transverse foramina and a single large vertebral foramen).

d)

Each has no foramina.

44.

What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?

a)

Axis

b)

Atlas

c)

Vertebra prominens

d)

Dens

45.

What is the most distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebra (C2)?

a)

Bifid tip

b)

Transverse foramen

c)

Dens (odontoid process)

d)

Lateral mass

46.

What type of movement is allowed by the medial atlantoaxial joint between C1 and C2?

a)

Gliding

b)

Ellipsoid

c)

Trochoid (pivot)

d)

N/A

47.

At what angle to the midsagittal plane are the zygapophyseal joints of the second through seventh cervical vertebrae located?

a)

45°

b)

90°

c)

15°

d)

70°

48.

Which fracture extends through the pedicles of C2, with or without subluxation of C2 on C3, and results from extreme hyperextension of the neck?

a)

Jefferson fracture

b)

Odontoid fracture

c)

Hangman's fracture (page17)

d)

Teardrop burst fracture

49.

What condition is described as an abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine, leading to stooped posture and reduced height?

a)

Lordosis

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Kyphosis (page17)

d)

Spondylosis

50.

What is the recommended CR angle for an AP axial projection of the cervical spine when the patient is erect or has more lordotic curvature?

a)

15∘ cephalad

b)

20∘ cephalad (page17)

c)

15∘ caudad

d)

20∘ caudad

51.

For anterior oblique (RAO, LAO) cervical spine projections, what is the recommended CR angle?

a)

15∘ cephalad

b)

20∘ cephalad

c)

15∘ caudad (page22)

d)

Perpendicular

52.

When performing a lateral cervical spine radiograph, what should the patient be instructed to do with their shoulders?

a)

Elevate them

b)

Keep them in a neutral position

c)

Relax and drop them down and forward as far as possible (page23)

d)

Pull them back

53.

In a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position, which arm and shoulder are positioned up, flexing the elbow and resting the forearm on the head for support?

a)

The arm and shoulder away from the IR

b)

The arm and shoulder nearest the IR (page25)

c)

Both arms and shoulders

d)

Neither arm or shoulder

54.

What is the purpose of the "wagging jaw" (Ottonello method) AP projection for the cervical spine?

a)

To demonstrate intervertebral foramina

b)

To visualize the zygapophyseal joints

c)

To blur the mandible over the cervical column and visualize the dens and entire cervical column (page28)

d)

To assess hyperflexion and hyperextension

55.

In an AP axial projection of the vertebral arch (pillars) of the cervical spine, what is the recommended CR angle?

a)

15∘ to 20∘ cephalad

b)

Perpendicular

c)

20∘ to 30∘ caudal (page28)

d)

45∘ oblique

56.

What is the main reason that lumbar vertebrae are the strongest in the vertebral column?

a)

Their small size allows for greater flexibility.

b)

They connect directly to the ribs, providing extra support.

c)

The load of body weight increases toward the inferior end of the column. (page2)

d)

They are protected by thick layers of muscle.

57.

Which part of the lumbar vertebra is demonstrated radiographically on an oblique lumbar image as the "neck" of the Scottie dog?

a)

Pedicle

b)

Transverse process

c)

Pars interarticularis (page2)

d)

Superior articular process

58.

What is the classification of the zygapophyseal joints in the lumbar spine?

a)

Cartilaginous (symphysis)

b)

Fibrous (suture)

c)

Synovial (plane/gliding) (page6)

d)

Amphiarthrodial

59.

Which topographic landmark corresponds to the approximate level of L2-L3?

a)

Iliac crest

b)

ASIS

c)

Xiphoid tip

d)

Lower costal margin (page8)

60.

What is the primary advantage of performing a PA projection of the lumbar spine compared to an AP projection for females?

a)

Improved visualization of the spinous processes.

b)

Lower ovarian dose. (page9)

c)

Reduced patient motion.

d)

Greater magnification unsharpness.

61.

When positioning a patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine, what adjustment should be made to the patient's knees and hips to reduce lumbar curvature and bring the back closer to the IR?

a)

Extend them fully.

b)

Flex them. (page9)

c)

Abduct them.

d)

Adduct them.

62.

What is the minimum SID typically used for radiography of the lower vertebral column?

a)

30 inches (76 cm)

b)

40 inches (102 cm) (page9)

c)

60 inches (152 cm)

d)

72 inches (183 cm)

63.

Which imaging modality is considered superior for the evaluation of soft tissue structures of the lumbar spine, such as the spinal cord and intervertebral disk spaces?

a)

Computed Tomography (CT)

b)

Nuclear Medicine Technology

c)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (page10)

d)

Myelography

64.

What is the noninvasive measurement of bone mass, often assessed in the lumbar spine?

a)

Myelography

b)

Bone Densitometry (page10)

c)

Computed Tomography (CT)

d)

Radionuclide bone scan

65.

What is a common cause of a herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)?

a)

Inherited genetic predisposition

b)

Trauma or improper lifting (page11)

c)

Autoimmune disease

d)

Bacterial infection

66.

What describes the condition where the normal concave curvature of the lumbar spine is abnormal or exaggerated?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Lordosis lifting (page11)

d)

Spina bifida

67.

In spondylolysis, what often appears "broken" on an oblique projection?

a)

The pedicle

b)

The spinous process

c)

The neck of the Scottie dog (pars interarticularis) (page11)

d)

The transverse process

68.

For an AP projection of the lumbar spine using a smaller IR (30×35 cm), where should the CR be directed?

a)

To the level of the iliac crest (L4-L5 interspace)

b)

To the level of L3 (page13)

c)

To the xiphoid tip

d)

To the ASIS

69.

When performing oblique projections of the lumbar spine, what is the typical degree of body rotation for the general lumbar region?

a)

30∘

b)

45∘ (page7)

c)

50∘

d)

70∘

70.

On an oblique lumbar spine radiograph, if the pedicle (eye of the Scottie dog) is demonstrated posteriorly on the vertebral body, what does this indicate?

a)

Accurate 45∘ patient rotation

b)

Over-rotation (page14)

c)

Under-rotation

d)

Insufficient CR angle

71.

For a lateral lumbar spine projection, what adjustment may be needed for a patient with a wider pelvis and a narrow thorax, even with waist support?

a)

A 5∘ to 8∘ cephalad angle

b)

A 5∘ to 8∘ caudad angle (page15)

c)

A 15∘ to 20∘ cephalad angle

d)

No angle is ever needed

72.

What is the centering point for the CR when performing a lateral L5-S1 projection?

a)

At the iliac crest

b)

1.5 inches (4 cm) superior to the iliac crest

c)

1.5 inches (4 cm) inferior to iliac crest and 2 inches (5 cm) posterior to ASIS (page16)

d)

At the ASIS

73.

For an AP axial L5-S1 projection, what CR angle is generally used for male patients?

a)

35∘ cephalad

b)

30∘ cephalad (page17)

c)

15∘ caudad

d)

Perpendicular

74.

When performing a scoliosis series, what is the recommended projection to significantly reduce the dose to radiation-sensitive areas like the female breasts and thyroid gland?

a)

AP projection

b)

PA projection (page18)

c)

Lateral projection

d)

Oblique projection

75.

In the Ferguson method for a scoliosis series, what is placed under the foot or hip on the convex side of the curve for the second image?

a)

A compression band

b)

A sandbag

c)

A 3- to 4-inch (8- to 10-cm) block (page20)

d)

A lead shield

76.

For lateral bending views in a scoliosis or spinal fusion series, what acts as the fulcrum (pivot point) during changes in position?

a)

The shoulders

b)

The pelvis (page21&22)

c)

The knees

d)

The head

77.

For a spinal fusion series with hyperextension, how should the patient move their torso and legs?

a)

Bend forward into a fetal position.

b)

Move posteriorly as far as possible to hyperextend the long axis of the body. (page22)

c)

Bend laterally to each side.

d)

Keep them straight and rigid.

78.

When imaging the sacrum with an AP axial projection, what should the patient do regarding their bladder and lower colon?

a)

Keep them full.

b)

Empty the bladder and have the lower colon free of gas and fecal material. (page23)

c)

It does not matter.

d)

Ingest contrast medium.

79.

What is the recommended CR angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum?

a)

10∘ caudad

b)

15∘ cephalad (page23)

c)

30∘ caudad

d)

Perpendicular

80.

For an AP axial coccyx projection, what is the recommended CR angle?

a)

10∘ caudad (page24)

b)

15∘ cephalad

c)

30∘ cephalad

d)

Perpendicular

81.

When obtaining a lateral sacrum and coccyx projection, what is the recommended SID?

a)

30 inches (76 cm)

b)

40 inches (102 cm) (page25)

c)

60 inches (152 cm)

d)

72 inches (183 cm)

82.

What can be used during a lateral sacrum and coccyx projection to ensure optimal density if the coccyx is to be included?

a)

A grid only

b)

A lead mat

c)

A boomerang-type filter (page25)

d)

Increased kV

83.

For posterior oblique positions (LPO and RPO) of the sacroiliac joints, what is the recommended patient rotation?

a)

15∘ to 20∘

b)

25∘ to 30∘ (page28)

c)

45∘

d)

90∘

84.

Which sacroiliac joint is visualized in a posterior oblique position where the side of interest is elevated (e.g., LPO for the right joint)?

a)

The joint closest to the IR (downside) (page28)

b)

The joint farthest from the IR (upside)

c)

Both joints equally

d)

Neither joint

85.

The small, hook-like processes projecting downward from the medial pterygoid processes of the sphenoid bone are called the:

a)

Anterior clinoid processes

b)

Posterior clinoid processes

c)

Pterygoid hamuli (page 7)

d)

Lesser wings

86.

The small upper horizontal portion of the ethmoid bone that contains many small openings for the olfactory nerves is the:

a)

Crista galli

b)

Perpendicular plate

c)

Lateral labyrinths

d)

Cribriform plate (page 8)

87.

The cranial suture that separates the frontal bone from the two parietal bones is the:

a)

Sagittal suture

b)

Lambdoidal suture

c)

Squamosal suture

d)

Coronal suture (page 9)

88.

In an infant, the membrane-covered openings or 'soft spots' where sutures join are called:

a)

Sutural bones

b)

Wormian bones

c)

Fontanels (page 9)

d)

Bregma

89.

The two maxillae are the largest immovable bones of the face and assist in the formation of which three cavities?

a)

Mouth, nasal cavity, and orbits (page 15)

b)

Mouth, paranasal sinuses, and middle ear

c)

Nasal cavity, orbits, and auditory canal

d)

Orbits, pharynx, and mouth

90.

The point at the superior aspect of the anterior nasal spine, which is a surface landmark at the midline point where the nose and upper lip meet, is the:

a)

Nasion

b)

Glabella

c)

Acanthion (page 16)

d)

Mental point

91.

The facial bones that form the prominence of the cheeks and make up the lower outer portion of the orbits are the:

a)

Maxillary bones

b)

Nasal bones

c)

Lacrimal bones

d)

Zygomatic bones (page 17)

92.

The thinnest and most fragile bones in the entire body are the:

a)

Zygomatic arches

b)

Nasal and lacrimal bones (page 17)

c)

Inferior nasal conchae

d)

Palatine bones

93.

The two bones that form the bony nasal septum are the:

a)

Nasal bones and vomer

b)

Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer (page 18)

c)

Maxillae and palatine bones

d)

Sphenoid and ethmoid bones

94.

The only movable bone in the adult skull is the:

a)

Maxilla

b)

Zygoma

c)

Mandible (page 19)

d)

Vomer

95.

The joint formed by the condyle of the mandible fitting into the temporomandibular fossa of the temporal bone is the:

a)

Atlanto-occipital joint

b)

Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) (page 19&20)

c)

Synarthrodial joint

d)

Gomphosis joint

96.

Which of the following paranasal sinuses are part of the facial bone structure?

a)

Frontal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Maxillary (page 21)

97.

All paranasal sinuses are generally fully developed by the:

a)

Age of 1

b)

Age of 6 or 7

c)

Late teenage years (page 21)

d)

Fifth decade of life

98.

The opening into the middle nasal meatus passageway for the maxillary sinuses is located at the:

a)

Inferior lateral aspect

b)

Superior medial aspect (page 21)

c)

Posterior aspect

d)

Anterior inferior aspect

99.

An air-fluid level within the sphenoid sinuses after skull trauma may indicate a:

a)

Linear fracture

b)

Depressed fracture

c)

Basal skull fracture (page 22)

d)

Tripod fracture

100.

The uncinate process of the ethmoid bone makes up the medial wall of the:

a)

Ethmoid bulla

b)

Middle nasal meatus

c)

Infundibulum passageway (page 22)

d)

Inferior nasal meatus

101.

Each orbit is a cone-shaped, bony-walled structure, with the apex corresponding to the:

a)

Supraorbital margin

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic foramen (page 24)

d)

Superior orbital fissure

102.

The three cranial bones that contribute to the formation of each orbit are the:

a)

Frontal, temporal, occipital

b)

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid (page 24)

c)

Parietal, temporal, sphenoid

d)

Occipital, ethmoid, temporal

103.

The imaging modality primarily used to detect differences between normal and abnormal tissues in the brain and associated soft tissues, with limited usefulness in bone evaluation, is:

a)

CT (Computed Tomography)

b)

Sonography

c)

Nuclear Medicine

d)

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) (page 37)

104.

For a lateral skull projection, the MSP (midsagittal plane) should be aligned:

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

Parallel to the IR (page 40)

c)

At a 15° angle to the IR

d)

At a 37° angle to the IR

105.

In the PA axial (Caldwell method) skull projection with a 15° caudad CR angle, the petrous ridges should be projected into the:

a)

Upper one-third of the orbits

b)

Middle of the orbits

c)

Lower one-third of the orbits (page 41)

d)

Below the orbits

106.

For the SMV (Submentovertex) projection of the skull, the IOML (infraorbitomeatal line) should be aligned:

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

Parallel to the IR (page 43)

c)

At a 30° angle to the IR

d)

At a 40° angle to the IR

107.

Which of the following positioning errors for a skull radiograph is indicated by the anterior and posterior separation of symmetric vertical bilateral structures like the EAM and mandibular rami?

a)

Tilt

b)

Excessive neck flexion

c)

Rotation (page 40)

d)

Incorrect CR angle

108.

For the AP axial (Towne method) skull projection, if the patient is unable to depress the chin sufficiently to bring the OML perpendicular to the IR, the IOML can be placed perpendicular instead, and the CR angle should be increased to:

a)

25° caudad

b)

30° caudad

c)

37° caudad (page 1)

d)

42° caudad

109.

When performing a lateral skull projection, the interpupillary line (IPL) must be aligned:

a)

Parallel to the IR

b)

Perpendicular to the IR (page 1)

c)

At a 15° angle to the IR

d)

At a 30° angle to the IR

110.

For the PA axial (Caldwell method) skull projection, the recommended CR angle is:

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

15° cephalad

c)

15° caudad (page 1)

d)

25° to 30° cephalad

111.

Which of the following describes the correct CR centering for an AP axial (Towne method) skull projection with a 30° caudad angle to the OML?

a)

To exit at the nasion

b)

To exit at the acanthion

c)

At the glabella

d)

At MSP 2½ inches (6.5 cm) above the glabella

112.

To best visualize any existing air-fluid levels within the cranial or sinus cavities, the patient should ideally be positioned:

a)

Recumbent with a vertical x-ray beam

b)

Erect with a horizontal x-ray beam

c)

Prone with a perpendicular x-ray beam

d)

Supine with a cephalic angled x-ray beam

113.

For a lateral facial bones projection, the CR is centered to the zygoma, midway between the outer canthus and the:

a)

Nasion

b)

Acanthion

c)

EAM (External Acoustic Meatus)

d)

Mental point

114.

In the parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection for facial bones, the MML (mentomeatal line) should be aligned:

a)

Parallel to the IR

b)

Perpendicular to the IR

c)

At a 37° angle to the IR

d)

At a 55° angle to the IR

115.

When performing a superoinferior tangential (axial) projection for nasal bones, the CR should be angled to be parallel to the:

a)

OML (Orbitomeatal Line)

b)

IOML (Infraorbitomeatal Line)

c)

AML (Acanthiomeatal Line)

d)

GAL (Glabelloalveolar Line)

116.

For the SMV (Submentovertex) projection of the zygomatic arches, the patient's neck should be hyperextended until the IOML is:

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

Parallel to the IR

c)

At a 15° angle to the IR

d)

At a 30° angle to the IR

117.

For a lateral sinuses projection, to accurately visualize air-fluid levels, the CR must be horizontal, and the patient must be:

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Erect

d)

Trendelenburg

118.

For the AP axial (Towne method) skull projection, in a trauma patient where cervical spine fracture or subluxation needs to be ruled out, which modification might be necessary if the patient cannot depress the chin sufficiently to bring the OML perpendicular to the IR?

a)

Increase the SID to 72 inches.

b)

Angle the CR 15° cephalad.

c)

Align IOML perpendicular to IR and increase CR angle by 7°.

d)

Perform the projection in a prone position.

119.

A horizontal beam projection is required for trauma patients undergoing a lateral skull perspective. This is primarily to demonstrate:

a)

Fine bony details of the sella turcica.

b)

Air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus, indicating a basal skull fracture.

c)

Bilateral symmetry of the parietal bones.

d)

Magnification of the occipital area.

120.

If a patient with a suspected basal skull fracture cannot be positioned erect for a lateral skull radiograph, how should the image be obtained to still visualize potential air-fluid levels?

a)

In a supine position with a perpendicular CR.

b)

In a prone position with a 15° caudad CR.

c)

With a horizontal beam, similar to trauma lateral facial bones.

d)

Using a modified Towne method.

121.

For trauma patients who are unable to be positioned for a PA skull projection, an alternative AP axial projection may be obtained with the use of a:

a)

15° cephalic angle, with OML positioned perpendicular to IR.

b)

Perpendicular CR to the nasion.

c)

25° caudad angle to the IOML.

d)

Horizontal beam and erect patient position.