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Hematology Board Practice

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which red blood cell inclusion is associated with asplenia?

a)

Pappenheimer bodies

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Basophilic stippling

d)

Heinz bodies

2.

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Chronic blood loss

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Dietary deficiency

d)

Lead poisoning

3.

Which stain is used to detect Heinz bodies?

a)

Prussian blue

b)

Supravital stain

c)

H&E stain

d)

Wright-Giemsa stain

4.

In the Kleihauer-Betke test, fetal hemoglobin is resistant to which substance?

a)

Ethanol precipitation

b)

Acid elution

c)

Methanol fixation

d)

Alkaline denaturation

5.

What is the primary storage form of iron in the body?

a)

Ferritin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemosiderin

6.

Ferric iron has what oxidation state?

a)

0

b)

+2

c)

+3

d)

-1

7.

Which hemoglobin has the highest affinity for oxygen?

a)

HbA

b)

HbA2

c)

HbF

d)

Methemoglobin

8.

A right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve means?

a)

Decreased oxygen affinity

b)

CO2 retention

c)

Higher oxygen saturation

d)

Increased oxygen affinity

9.

Sickle cell trait typically shows what % HbS?

a)

80-90%

b)

10-20%

c)

50-60%

d)

35-45%

10.

Which cell is increased in allergic reactions and parasitic infections?

a)

Basophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Lymphocytes

11.

What is the normal range for hematocrit in adult females?

a)

25-35%

b)

36-46%

c)

30-34%

d)

46-54%

12.

Which abnormal red cell shape is seen in severe liver disease?

a)

Target cells

b)

Spherocytes

c)

Acanthocytes

d)

Schistocytes

13.

Which anemia shows ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow?

a)

Megaloblastic anemia

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Sideroblastic anemia

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

14.

Basophilic stippling is often associated with?

a)

Hereditary spherocytosis

b)

Lead poisoning

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

G6PD deficiency

15.

Which WBC is the first responder to bacterial infections?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

16.

A 'tear drop' RBC is also called?

a)

Elliptocyte

b)

Spherocyte

c)

Dacrocyte

d)

Acanthocyte

17.

Which hemoglobinopathy is caused by substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6?

a)

Methemoglobinemia

b)

HbC disease

c)

Sickle cell disease

d)

Thalassemia

18.

What is the main function of 2,3-BPG in red cells?

a)

Carry CO2

b)

Increase oxygen affinity

c)

Decrease oxygen affinity of hemoglobin

d)

Produce ATP

19.

Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

a)

Monocyte

b)

Basophil

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Eosinophil

20.

Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in which condition?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

G6PD deficiency

21.

What is the lifespan of a normal red blood cell?

a)

60 days

b)

120 days

c)

90 days

d)

45 days

22.

Which anemia shows pancytopenia and hypocellular marrow?

a)

Megaloblastic anemia

b)

Hemolytic anemia

c)

Sideroblastic anemia

d)

Aplastic anemia

23.

What is the principal iron transport protein in the plasma?

a)

Ferritin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Hemosiderin

d)

Transferrin

24.

Which test measures hemoglobin variants by charge?

a)

ELISA

b)

Osmotic fragility test

c)

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

d)

Flow cytometry

25.

What does an elevated reticulocyte count indicate?

a)

Increased RBC production

b)

Bone marrow suppression

c)

Decreased RBC production

d)

Iron overload

26.

In G6PD deficiency, Heinz bodies form due to?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Oxidative damage

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Lead toxicity

27.

Which WBC type releases histamine?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

28.

Target cells are also known as?

a)

Spherocytes

b)

Acanthocytes

c)

Schistocytes

d)

Codocytes

29.

What is the main cause of microcytic, hypochromic anemia?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Folate deficiency

d)

Iron deficiency

30.

Which RBC inclusion is iron-containing and visible with Prussian blue stain?

a)

Howell-Jolly bodies

b)

Heinz bodies

c)

Basophilic stippling

d)

Pappenheimer bodies

31.

What is the main buffer system in RBCs?

a)

Phosphate buffer

b)

Protein buffer

c)

Bicarbonate buffer

d)

Chloride shift

32.

Which hemoglobin is composed of alpha and gamma chains?

a)

HbA

b)

HbS

c)

HbF

d)

HbA2

33.

What is the normal MCV range?

a)

70-79 fL

b)

80-100 fL

c)

60-75 fL

d)

100-110 fL

34.

Anisocytosis refers to?

a)

RBC fragility

b)

RBC inclusions

c)

Variation in RBC size

d)

Variation in RBC shape

35.

Poikilocytosis refers to?

a)

Increased reticulocytes

b)

Variation in RBC shape

c)

Variation in RBC size

d)

Low RBC count

36.

What does a positive Kleihauer-Betke test indicate?

a)

Parvovirus infection

b)

Sickle crisis

c)

Fetal-maternal hemorrhage

d)

Iron overload

37.

Which factor causes a left shift in oxygen dissociation curve?

a)

Increased 2,3-BPG

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Acidosis

d)

Fever

38.

Which RBC abnormality is common in burn patients?

a)

Target cells

b)

Acanthocytes

c)

Elliptocytes

d)

Spherocytes

39.

What is the function of methemoglobin reductase?

a)

Convert Fe3+ to Fe2+

b)

Convert Fe2+ to Fe3+

c)

Produce ATP

d)

Bind oxygen

40.

Which disorder shows rouleaux formation?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Multiple myeloma

c)

G6PD deficiency

d)

Hereditary spherocytosis

41.

In iron deficiency anemia, ferritin levels are?

a)

Normal

b)

High

c)

Variable

d)

Low

42.

Which RBC inclusion is associated with post-splenectomy patients?

a)

Pappenheimer bodies

b)

Basophilic stippling

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Howell-Jolly bodies

43.

What is the normal WBC count range?

a)

2.0-5.0 x10^9/L

b)

4.0-11.0 x10^9/L

c)

11.0-15.0 x10^9/L

d)

6.0-20.0 x10^9/L

44.

Which anemia results from defective DNA synthesis?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Iron deficiency anemia

d)

Megaloblastic anemia

45.

What is the main function of neutrophils?

a)

Antibody production

b)

Phagocytosis of bacteria

c)

Oxygen transport

d)

Histamine release

46.

What is the osmotic fragility test used for?

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Hereditary spherocytosis

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

47.

Which anemia presents with elevated MCHC?

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Thalassemia

c)

Hereditary spherocytosis

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

48.

Which condition shows bite cells?

a)

Megaloblastic anemia

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

G6PD deficiency

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

49.

Which condition shows basophilic stippling?

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Lead poisoning

d)

Aplastic anemia

50.

Which hemoglobin variant is associated with beta-thalassemia?

a)

Increased HbS

b)

Increased HbA2

c)

Increased methemoglobin

d)

Increased HbF

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