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Medical Knowledge Assessment

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Below which SpO percentage requires the practitioner to administer oxygen in a non-COPD patient

a)

96

b)

98

c)

94

d)

99

2.

You are performing a primary survey on an unresponsive trauma patient involved in an RTA. When evaluating her chest you note unilateral chest rise, you should

a)

administer entonox for pain relief

b)

note injury and continue to check circulation

c)

inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest

d)

Count the breathing rate for 60 seconds

3.

Normal capillary refill results in the blood returning within _______ seconds

a)
Two
b)

One

c)

Five

d)

Four

4.

Which piece of equipment from the list below is required when taking a patient's blood pressure by auscultation technique

a)

A stethoscope

b)

A tourniquet

c)

A cardiac monitor

d)

A pulse oximeter

5.

A reading of less than 85% when using a pulse oximeter means that the patient is suffering from which of the following

a)

Severe hypothermia

b)

Severe hypoxemia

c)

Mild hyperthermia

d)

Mild hypoxemia

6.

A sphygmomanometer is used in the measurement of

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Pupil size

d)

Temperature

7.

Normal resting heart rate expected for a newborn infant is

a)

60 - 100

b)

75 - 130

c)

90 - 180

d)

70 - 110

8.

When inflating a blood pressure cuff to measure blood pressure by palpation, it should be inflated ______ mmHg above where the last pulse was felt

a)

20

b)

30

c)

15

d)

10

9.

The normal breathing rate for an adult at rest is

a)

28 - 30 breaths per minute

b)

12-20 breaths per minute

c)

8-10 breaths per minute

d)

4 - 6 breaths per minute

10.

An assessment tool that measures oxygen in the haemoglobin in the capillary bed's is called _____

4 lines
11.

The Normal pulse rate in an adult at rest is approximately between _____________ per minute

a)

100 - 160

b)

60 - 100

c)

40 - 60

d)

70 - 130

12.

The difference between your systolic and diastolic blood pressure should be approximately 40 mmHg. This is called your ________

a)

Pulse Pressure

b)

Pulse Rate

c)

Blood Pressure

d)

Blood Volume

13.

When assessing circulation in an unresponsive patient, the pulse should be palpated in the ______

a)

Carotid

b)

Femoral

c)

Posterior tibial

d)

Dorsalis pedis

14.

The first set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the

a)

baseline

b)

main

c)

trending

d)

primary

15.

The primary survey should be completed in less than ___ seconds

a)

60

b)

30

c)

10

d)

90

16.

Pulse oximeters are used to measure

a)

The patient's distal pulse

b)

The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated

c)

The percentage of oxygen in the patient's finger

d)

pulse rate only

17.

Your transport decision should be made after which component of patient assessment

a)

vital signs assessment

b)

Primary survey

c)

ongoing assessment

d)

Secondary survey

18.

The maximum on scene time for life threatening trauma should be

a)

As soon as the primary survey is complete

b)

less than 20 minutes

c)

less than 10 minutes

d)

less than 3 minutes

19.

When conducting a primary survey on a patient with obvious significant external bleeding which of the following is the priority?

a)

Assess airway

b)

Control catastrophic bleeding

c)

Assess responsiveness

d)

C spine control

20.

When managing a trauma patient with mechanism of injury suggestive of spinal injury you should

a)

apply a cervical collar immediately

b)

apply C-spine control only if there are obvious neurological symptoms

c)

perform manual C-spine control

d)

wait until CSMs are assessed before decided whether c-spine immobilisation is needed

21.

The systematic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of a

a)

primary survey

b)

scene assessment

c)

secondary survey

d)

ongoing survey

22.

You are assessing a patient who has an altered level of consciousness. On approach you find the patient who has their eyes closed responds to your voice by opening their eyes but doesn't speak. What is the patient's level on the AVPU score

a)

V

b)

A

c)

U

d)

P

23.

While assessing a patient's level of consciousness, the patient only responds to a pinch of the earlobe. They are considered to be ___ on the AVPU scale

a)

V

b)

A

c)

P

d)

U

24.

The skin pigment of a jaundiced patient may appear

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

White

d)

red

25.

A patient who does not respond to any stimulus is considered to be _______________ on the AVPU scale

a)

unstable

b)

unable to respond

c)

unconscious

d)

unresponsive

26.

For a patient to be considered alert on the AVPU scale they should be

a)

alert and oriented

b)

able to walk in a straight line

c)

sitting up with their eyes open

d)

Option 4

27.

Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group

a)

pregnancy

b)

geriatrics

c)

children

d)

adults

28.

The elements of AVPU are

a)

Alert, verbal, prone, unresponsive

b)

Alert, verbal, pain, unconscious

c)

Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive

d)

Alone, voice, pain, unresponsive

29.

The contraction of the abdominal muscles to palpation is a sign of

a)

Cramps in the abdominal muscles

b)

Muscular strain

c)

An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining

d)

diarrhoea

30.

The normal range of blood glucose in an adult patient is

a)

2 - 6 mmol/L

b)

4 - 5 mmol/L

c)

4 - 20 mmol/L

d)

4 - 10 mmol/L

31.

The "Q" in the OPQRST mnemonic best relates to which of the questions below

a)

When did the problem begin and what caused it

b)

What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing

c)

Does anything make it better or worse

d)

On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain

32.

The sections of the spinal cord that are most susceptible to injury are the cervical and

a)

Lumbar

b)

Sacrum

c)

Thoracic

d)

Coccyx

33.

The three major parts of the brain are the:

a)

midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord

b)

brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord

c)

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

d)

cerebellum, medulla, and occiput

34.

The blood vessels that return blood from the head are the

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Carotid arteries

c)

Jugular veins

d)

Pulmonary veins

35.

The kneecap (patella) is an example of a

a)

Sesamoid bone

b)

Flat bone

c)

Long bone

d)

Short bone

36.

The lower chambers of the heart, which are responsible for the main pumping action of the myocardium, are referred to as ________

a)

Ventricles

b)

Tricuspids

c)

Atria

d)

Septum

37.

Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory system?

a)

hepatic artery

b)

hyoid bone

c)

oesophagus

d)

Larynx

38.

The human skeleton is made up of

a)

310 bones

b)

206 bones

c)

106 bones

d)

385 bones

39.

Distal CSM's means

a)

CSM's at the fracture site

b)

CSM's before the fracture

c)

CSM's near the fracture

d)

CSM's past the fracture

40.

Bones are classified according to their shape: long, short, flat and irregular. An example of an irregular shaped bone is

a)

Sternum

b)

Clavicle

c)

Vertebrae

d)

Femur

41.

The shoulder girdle consists of?

a)

Phalanges and humerus

b)

Scapulae and the metacarpals

c)

Clavicles and the phalanges

d)

Clavicles and the scapulae

42.

An example of the hinged joint can be found at the

a)

Shoulder

b)

Knee

c)

Sacroiliac

d)

Hip

43.

Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called

a)

Ligaments

b)

Tendons

c)

Muscles (aka noelus maximus)

d)

Cartilage

44.

The heart is located in

a)

The dorsal cavity slightly to the right

b)

The thoracic cavity slightly to the right

c)

The thoracic cavity slightly to the left

d)

The abdominal cavity in the retroperitoneal region

45.

An example of a solid abdominal organ is

a)

Spleen

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Bladder

46.

The ______ in your brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration

4 lines
47.

The bone distal to the scapula and proximal to the radius and ulna is the

a)

Sternum

b)

Clavicle

c)

Carpals

d)

Humerus

48.

Which layer forms the outer part of the heart?

a)

Myocardium

b)

Pericardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Sub endocardium

49.

Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord are transmitted along the ___ nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract

a)

Motor

b)

Phrenic

c)

Sensory

d)

Vagal

50.

g conditions inside and outside of the body is the

a)

Peripheral nerves

b)

brain

c)

spinal cord

d)

Sensory nerves

51.

From the outside layer to the inner, what is the correct sequence of layers of the meninges?

a)

Dura mater, Pia mater, Arachnoid

b)

Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater

c)

Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

d)

Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater

52.

The right side of the heart

a)

Circulates blood from the head to the lungs

b)

Circulates blood from the heart to the head

c)

Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs

d)

Circulates blood from the heart to the aorta

53.

The cardio vascular system consists of

a)

Brain, heart, arteries, veins, blood

b)

The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries

c)

The heart, liver, arteries, veins, capillaries

d)

Brain, lungs, heart, blood, arteries

54.

The largest artery in the body is the

a)

aorta

b)

carotid artery

c)

hepatic artery

d)

femoral artery

55.

The organs commonly found in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen are

a)

Stomach, spleen, large intestine, pancreas

b)

Liver, spleen, descending colon, small intestine

c)

Liver, stomach, kidney bladder

d)

Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas

56.

The heart is composed of four chambers. They include two atria and two ventricles. The chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta is the ______ which ejects approximately ___ ml's of blood per contraction

a)

left atria - 120

b)

Right atria - 70

c)

Right ventricle - 120

d)

Left ventricle - 70

57.

The spine consists of 33 bones, which breaks down into 5 groups. Identify the groups

a)

7 cervical; 12 lumbar; 5 thoracic; 4 sacrum; 5 coccyx

b)

7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar; 6 sacrum; 3 coccyx

c)

7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

d)

5 cervical; 12 lumbar; 7 thoracic, 5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

58.

Identify the three types of muscular tissue

a)

Voluntary, striated, cardiac

b)

Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

c)

Cardiac, smooth, involuntary

d)

Striated, voluntary, skeletal

59.

The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called

a)

vital capacity

b)

minute volume

c)

Tidal volume

d)

inspiratory reserve volume

60.

The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of

a)

brain and spinal cord

b)

spinal cord and pia mater

c)

spinal cord and dura mater

d)

brain and 12 cranial nerves

61.

Where is the Dorsalis Pedis pulse point found?

a)

Behind the ankle

b)

in the groin

c)

at the knee

d)

On top of the foot

62.

There are a number of factors that provide us with a stimulus to breath, one of them being _______ which are situated in the walls of the Aorta and the Carotid

a)

chemoreceptors

b)

Baroreceptors

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

Stretch receptors

63.

Skeletal muscle has four characteristics, excitability, contractility, extensibility and _______

a)

Elasticity

b)

Elongation

c)

Automaticity

d)

Osseo integration

64.

How many spinal vertebrae are there?

a)

30

b)

31

c)

33

d)

12

65.

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta for each contraction is called

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Cardiac pre-load

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Systolic pump pressure

66.

Which of the following groups of organs all lie within the abdominal cavity

a)

Pancreas, vena cava and lungs

b)

Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

c)

Kidneys, spleen and heart

d)

Oesophagus, aorta and lungs

67.

External respiration is the process of carbon dioxide being exchanged for oxygen in your lungs. This takes place in the _________ of the lungs

a)

Pleural Cavity

b)

Bronchi

c)

Alveoli

d)

Trachea

68.

Pathology is the study of

a)

Diplopia

b)

disease

c)

Diets

d)

Dermatomes

69.

When you arrive on scene, you find an adult patient in cardiac arrest. You should mobilise how many additional responders?

a)

5 - 6

b)

3 - 4

c)

1 - 2

d)

none

70.

What is the fifth link in the chain of survival?

a)

Advanced life support and post arrest care

b)

Early defibrillation

c)

Early access

d)

Early CPR

71.

Prolonged use of _______ in COPD patients may lead to the reduction in ventilation stimulus

a)

Salbutamol

b)

Oxygen

c)

Methoxyflurane

d)

Entonox

72.

The term "anoxia" refers to

a)

Over saturation of oxygen in the body tissue

b)

Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue

c)

Complete lack of carbon dioxide in the body tissue

d)

Over saturation of carbon dioxide in the body tissue

73.

When you open an infant's airway you should

a)

Tilt the head forward fully

b)

maintain the head in a neutral inline position

c)

use a jaw thrust

d)

Tilt the head back fully

74.

A cerebrovascular accident often referred to as a stroke, can be caused in two ways. One by a ruptured blood vessel within the brain that accounts for 25% of CVA's and the other is a/an ___________ within the brain that accounts for the remaining 75%

a)

Bleed

b)

Aneurysm

c)

Thrombosis

d)

Haemorrhagic

75.

A noticeable blue/grey colouring to the tongue, lips, and nail beds is a sign that the tissues are not being sufficiently oxygenated. This is called

a)

symbiosis

b)

jaundice

c)

cyanosis

d)

pallor

76.

You are attempting to resuscitate a patient in cardiac arrest using a bag-valve-mask and reservoir to provide positive pressure ventilations. With a reservoir bag fitted the BVM will deliverer what oxygen percentage?

a)

50 to 75

b)

75 to 85

c)

90 to 100

d)

70 to 80

77.

When inserting a supraglottic airway the EMT has only ____ attempts of placing the airway

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

2

78.

A patient has collapsed suddenly and has an altered LOC. His airway should be opened by using

a)

jaw thrust

b)

Head-tilt, chin-lift

c)

an OPA

d)

the recovery position

79.

What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?

a)

20

b)

0.4

c)

16

d)

79

80.

A simple face mask at the proper setting on the flow regulator (6 - 10 litres per minute) can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of

a)

80%

b)

35%

c)

60%

d)

44%

81.

The indications for the use of aspirin are

a)

Bronchospasm or Cardiac chest pain

b)

Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction

c)

Apnoea or Cardiac chest pain

d)

Myocardial Ischemia, in a patient less than 16 years of age

82.

Scenario: A 50 year old female patient has chronic bronchitis. The initial assessment finds her breathing at 6 times per minute with an altered mental status; her skin is cool and clammy to touch. Your next action should be to

a)

administer oxygen by nasal cannula at the rate of 15 litres per minute

b)

Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen

c)

Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute

d)

Place the patient in the up-right position to ease breathing

83.

An obstructive airway disease, characterised by a loss of elasticity to the alveoli and the terminal bronchiole is called

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pneumonia

84.

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children

a)

seizures

b)

Electric shock from appliances

c)

Heart Disease

d)

respiratory arrest

85.

The oxygen adjunct of choice for a patient who has been involved in a trauma event and is breathing normally is

a)

BVM, 02 and reservoir bag

b)

Nasal cannula

c)

Non rebreather facemask

d)

Venturi mask

86.

On arrival at the scene of an accident you find a patient with gurgling sounds coming from her throat and inadequate breathing (6 per min). How do you proceed to protect the airway and support breathing?

a)

Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O at 100%

b)

Deal with severe bleeding first

c)

Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use simple face mask

d)

Open airway, suction and apply a non rebreather facemask

87.

What does ROSC stand for?

a)

Return of Stimulated Contractions

b)

Return Of Standard Circulation

c)

Return of systemic circulation

d)

Return of Spontaneous Circulation

88.

In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of

a)

Oxygen in the blood

b)

Carbon dioxide in inspired air

c)

Carbon dioxide in the blood

d)

Oxygen in inspired air

89.

Exchange of gases takes place in the lungs due to the process of

a)

Diffusion

b)

Absorption

c)

Inspiration

d)

Osmosis