WorksheetsPE - Prelim (AK UE/LE)
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins
The medial 2/3 third of the clavicle is oriented in this manner:
Convex antero-posteriorly
Concave antero-posteriorly
Convex posteriorly, concave anteriorly
Concave posteriorly, convex anteriorly
The head of the humerus in relation to the glenoid cavity is oriented in this manner:
Medially, posteriorly, superiorly
Laterally, anteriorly, superiorly
Medially, posteriorly, inferiorly
Laterally, anteriorly, inferiorly
Orientation of the glenoid fossa
Superior, Posterior, Lateral
Inferior, Anterior, Medial
Superior, Anterior, Lateral
Anterior, lateral, inferior
NOTA
Normal angle of retrotorsion of the humeral head
10 deg
20 deg
30 deg
40 deg
50 deg
Superior angle of the scapula is at the level of
T2
T3
T4
T7
T9
The therapist is palpating the shoulder of a patient. As he carefully laterally rotates the arm, in what sequence will the palpable structures be felt in the proximal humerus?
Greater tuberosity > biceps, long head > lesser tuberosity
Lesser tuberosity > biceps, short head > Greater tuberosity
Greater tuberosity > biceps, short head > lesser tuberosity
Lesser tuberosity > biceps, long head > Greater tuberosity
During circling motion of the arm, the axis can be found at the:
Acromioclavicular joint
Sternoclavicular joint
Glenohumeral joint
NOTA
AOTA
A biker fell on his left shoulder during a sports event. After medical examination by a physician, it was reported that the athlete's shoulder was 'separated.' Pain and swelling was noted at the point of the shoulder accompanied by a 'step-off' deformity. What might have caused this deformity?
Tear of the costoclavicular ligament
Tear of the acromioclavicular ligament
Tear of the coracohumeral ligament
Both A and B
Both B and C
Which of the following is true regarding the inferior glenohumeral ligament?
It limits IR and ER above 90 degrees
Thickens on MRI viewing during adhesive capsulitis
Covers the subacromial bursa and
Serves as the roof of the bicipital groove to hold the biceps tendon
Limits inferior translation of the humerus during adduction
Which of the following ligaments prevents superior translation of the humeral head?
Coracohumeral Ligament
Transverse humeral Ligament
Coracoclavicular Ligament
Coracoacromial Ligament
Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament
Which of the following provide Positive translatory force?
I. Supraspinatus
II. Deltoids
III. Infraspinatus
IV. Subscapularis
V. Teres Minor
I, III and V
I, II, IV and V
I and II only
I and III only
NOTA
When carrying a 25 lb load in the hand during static standing, which of the following muscles is/are responsible for holding the humeral head tightly apposed against the glenoid fossa?
I. Supraspinatus
II. Teres Minor
III. Infraspinatus
IV. Subscapularis
I, II and III
I and III
II and IV
IV only
All of the above
The following are requirements in order to fully elevate the arm, EXCEPT
External rotation of the shoulder
Inferior translation of the head of the humerus
Rotation of the clavicle
Scapular downward rotation
NOTA
The trapezius and serratus anterior:
Act synergistically in abduction
Act as synergists in upward rotation and antagonists in protraction and retraction
Act as synergists in retraction and antagonists in upward and downward rotation
Act as synergists in upward rotation and antagonists in depression
These muscles synergistically act to pull the medial border of the scapula upward:
Serratus Anterior and Trapezius
Trapezius and Levator Scapulae
Serratus Anterior and Levator Scapulae
Rhomboids and Levator Scapulae
Teres major and Rhomboids
The following structure/s will pass through the quadrangular space EXCEPT
I. Axillary artery
II. Axillary nerve
III. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
IV. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
I, II and III
II and IV
I and III
IV
This muscle serves as the reference point for the division of the axillary artery
Pectoralis major
Pectoralis minor
Serratus Anterior
Biceps
The following are requirements for full shoulder elevation except:
Scapular stabilization
Superior glide of the humerus
ER of the humerus
Rotation of the clavicle at the SC joint
All of these are true
During what phase of the scapulohumeral rhythm will you expect posterior rotation of the clavicle?
Phase I
Phase III
Phase II
NOTA
Elbow complex is made up of distinct articulations. Which of the following is NOT included?
Humeroulnar joint
Humeroradial
Proximal radioulnar joint
NOTA
TRUE regarding the carrying angle:
In full elbow extension and flexion, the normal carrying angle is about 15 deg.
It is slightly greater in men than women due to pelvic configuration
The angulation is due to asymmetrical configuration of the trochlea which causes the ulna to deviate medially especially during flexion to extension movement.
During pronation with elbow in extension, there is a much pronounced carrying angle.
NOTA
Elbow stability is maintained by a combination of bony and soft tissue components. Which structures DO NOT contribute to the primary stability of the elbow?
Ulnohumeral joint
Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
Anterior band of the MCL
Radial head
None of these
Which of the following muscle is/are not affected by forearm position during elbow flexion or extension?
I. Biceps brachii
II. Brachioradialis
III. Triceps brachii
IV. brachialis
III and IV
I and II
I, II and III
all are not affected
The muscle that act with the biceps to stabilize and prevent flexion during supination is/are
A. Brachioradialis
B. Anconeus
C. Triceps
A and B
B and C
Testing elbow flexion with the forearm pronated, places the LEAST activity on:
Brachialis
Brachioradialis
Biceps Brachii
None of these
The following are true of the brachioradialis except?
It is inserted by a long tendon on the base of the styloid process of the radius
The nerve supply is via the radial nerve
It devotes itself entirely to the elbow
It is a strong flexor of the elbow only with light loads or during slow flexion
The triceps muscle is known for having three distinct heads which lie on the posterior aspect of the upper arm. One of them is the 'lateral' head that can be described by which of the following statements?
Has a more distal attachment, a fleshy origin, and overlying it is the long head
Becomes actively insufficient when the shoulder is extended
Active during resisted and unresisted extension with or without gravity assistance
The strongest of the three heads, and joins the long head to form a common tendon comparable to the Achilles
All of these are correct
The cubital fossa is a space which contains some structures such as the ulnar nerve and radial artery. It is bounded medially by pronator teres and laterally by ECRB.
Both statements are true
Both statements are false
Only the first statement is true
Only the second statement is true
Only the first statement is false
The following statements describe the wrist: EXCEPT:
In abduction, the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift medially.
The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift laterally in adduction.
Due to reinforcement provided by fibers, the carpus is forced to move with the radius as a unit during pronation-supination.
Because the joint is ellipsoidal. movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.
It can be flexed, extended, abducted or adducted.
To assess for TFCC tears, which of the following procedures must be performed?
The PT applies pressure on the distal ulna
The examiner applies axial compression through the fourth and fifth metacarpals
The examiner axially loads and deviates the wrist radially
Patient actively makes a fist and squeezes as hard as possible
None of these
The tendon of this muscle is primarily involved in lateral epicondylitis:
ECRL
EDC
Supinator
ECRB
A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of
Lunate dislocation
Panner's disease
Kienbocks' disease
Preiser's disease
Contents of the antecubital fossa, EXCEPT
Bices tendon
Median nerve
Brachioradialis
Brachial artery
Anatomically part of the proximal carpal row but does not participate in radiocarpal articulation
Lunate
Navicular
Triquetrum
Pisiform
None of these
Which among the proximal carpal row shows the greatest motion?
Lunate
Scaphoid
Triquetrum
Pisiform
In radial deviation there is:
Ulnar glide of the carpals, flexion of proximal carpais, extension of distal carpals
Radial glide of carpals, extension of proximal carpals, Flexion of distal carpals
Ulnar glide of the carpals, flexion of both proximal and distal carpals
Radial glide of the carpals, flexion of both proximal and distal carpals
Which of the following is/are true regarding the biceps brachii:
I. Affected by forearm position
II. Unaffected by forearm position
III. Affected by shoulder position
IV. Unaffected by shoulder position
I and II
I and III
II and IV
I and IV
Which of the following describes the humeroulnar joint?
A modified hinge joint
Reinforced by the LCL
Articulating surfaces are trochear notch of humerus and trochlea of ulna
NOTA
True about extensor mechanism
Lateral slip inserts at the middle phalanx
Central slip inserts at the proximal phalanx
Extensor digitorum communis is actively assisted by lumbricals and interossei muscles to achieve flexion of IP joints
NOTA
The carpal bone that forms the floor of the anatomic snuffbox which is usually tender when there is fracture:
Navicular
Lunate
Trapezoid
Pisiform
Hamate
You are attempting to palpate for the lunate. Which of the following is the correct way?
Distal to the lister's tubercle, with wrist extended
Proximal to the lister's tubercle, wrist extended
Distal to the lister's tubercle, wrist flexed
Proximal to the lister's tubercle, wrist flexed
The lunate is not palpable
You are testing for the muscle strength of your patient's digital muscles. You are pulling the fingers from adduction to abduction while the patient resists. What muscle are you testing?
Dorsal Interossei
Palmar Interossei
Lumbricals
Abductor pollicis brevis
Adductor pollicis brevis
The carpal tunnel consists of the following structures except:
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor pollicis longus
Flexor carpi radialis
Median nerve
The chief pronator muscle of the forearm
Pronator Teres
Pronator Quadratus
Brachioradialis
ECRL
Both A and B
After radial nerve palsy, the last muscle to recover is found in which extensor tunnel?
I
II
III
IV
V
This ligament forms 4/5 of a ring around the radius:
Oblique ligament
MCL
Annular ligament
Interosseous membrane
Quadrate ligament
The muscle responsible for light hand closure
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor pollicis longus
Both a and b
All of these
CMC of the thumb is what type of joint?
Uniaxial
Biaxial
Triaxial
NOTA
The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT:
The combination of an observed shortened extremity, external hip rotation, and pain movement strongly suggests a fractured hip
The ischial tuberosity is easily palpable if the hip is flexed as the gluteus maximus slides up
A line drawn across the top of the iliac crest crosses the spine between the spinous processes of L4 and L5
Due to the overhang of the ilium and the obstruction of supporting ligaments, the sacroiliac joint is not palpable
The center of the sacroiliac joint, at S2, is crossed by an imaginary line drawn between the anterior superior iliac spines
The following are nerves of the sacral plexus that pass through the greater sciatic foramen below piriformis, EXCEPT:
Sciatic Nerve
Superior gluteal nerve
Inferior gluteal nerve
Pudendal nerve
None of these
In children, the chief arterial supply of the head of the femur is from the:
Obturator artery
Inferior gluteal artery
Superficial circumflex iliac artery
Deep external pudendal artery
Branches from the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries
If the neck-shaft angle of the femur is less than 125 deg, this deviation results in decreased leg length and muscle strength due to torque changes from changes in muscle lever arms and length-tension relationships.
Retroversion
Coxa Vara
Anteversion
Coxa Valga
From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 deg. A decrease in this angle, a factor in out toeing during walking is called:
Coxa Vara
Retroversion
Coxa Valga
Anteversion
The closed-packed position of the hip include/s the following:
I. Extension
II. Internal rotation
III. Abduction
IV. External rotation
I, II, III
Only IV
II, IV
IV
The following ligaments contribute to the stability of the hip:
I. Ischiofemoral ligament
II. Pubofemoral ligament
III. Iliofemoral ligament
IV. Ligamentum teres
IV ONLY
NOTA
I, II, III
I, II
III, IV
Components of anterior pelvic tilt in weight-bearing position:
Hip extension and lumbar extension
Hip flexion and lumbar flexion
Hip extension and lumbar flexion
Hip flexion and lumbar extension
Concerning the posterior compartment of the thigh:
I. Major blood supply is from perforating branches of profunda femoris artery
II. The nerve supply to the muscles is the tibial component of the sciatic nerve, except for the long head of the biceps femoris, which is supplied by the common peroneal part of the sciatic nerve
Both are correct
Both are incorrect
Only I is correct
Only II is correct
The following are true about the rectus femoris:
I. The heads are not distinctly palpable since the muscle disappears proximally in the depression between the Sartorius and the Tensor Fascia
II. The head that takes origin from the AIIS is the more commonly avulsed, usually from injuries
III. The only two-jointed muscle in the quadriceps group
IV. It has dual origin, a direct and indirect head
V. Crosses the hip and the knee joints, acting as a flexor of the hip and an extensor for knee joint
I, II and III
I and III
II, IV, and V
all of these
none of these
The following statements characterize Tensor Fasciae:
It nerve supply is by the inferior gluteal nerve, a branch of the sacral plexus
It is inserted into the lotibial tract of the fascia latae with gluteus Maximus
It can help adduct, laterally rotate and flex the hip joint
Arises from the inner surface of the ilium just behind the posterior superior spine and runs vertically downwards
None of these
This muscle is proximally attached to the ASIS of the ilium and attached distally to the medial surface of the tibia; it is innervated by the femoral Nerve and flexes, externally rotates and abducts the hip, as well as flexes and medially rotates the knee.
Rectus femoris
Sartorius
Pectineus
TFL
During gait analysis of your CVA patient you noticed lateral trunk bending toward the left as the patient bears weight on the left leg at midstance. This could be a result of weakness of which muscle?
Right gluteus maximus
Left gluteus maximus
Right gluteus medius
Left gluteus medius
Common origin of gracilis, adductor brevis and adductor magnus:
Inferior ramus of pubis
Ischial tuberosity
Ramus of pubis
Superior ramus of pubis
A therapist determines that a patient is walking with a backward trunk lean with full weight on the left leg. The patient also demonstrates great difficulty going up ramps. Based on these findings which of these muscles needs strengthening?
Right quadriceps
Right iliopsoas
Left gluteus maximus
Right gluteus maximus
Left quadriceps
When the hip is extended, this muscle externally rotates the hip, however, when the hip is flexed, this same muscle will internally rotate the hip:
Gluteus Minimus
Gluteus Medius
Piriformis
The following are true about the femoral triangle, except:
I. Defined medially by the adductor longus
II. Defined medially by the adductor longus
III. With the subject in supine, the soft tissues of the triangle are examined with the heel of the leg being examined resting upon the opposite knee
IV. Defined posteriorly by the sartorius muscle ridge
II and IV
TI, II and III
only IV
None of these
All of these
The following are true of the structural foundation of the knee:
I. The shape of the femoral medial condyle is important in the movement of the tibia on the femur
II. The added depth of the tibial plateau is extremely important because the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau are both somewhat convex
III. The menisci deepen the contour of the tibial plateau to provide a good seat for the tibia on the femoral condyles
IV. The osseous portions of the knee are the femur, tibia, patella and fibula
None of these
I, II and III
II and IV
Only IV
All of these
The following statements are true of the patella, except:
Decreases pressure and distribute forces on the femur
Increases the leverage of the quadriceps
When the knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surface of the femoral condyles
It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion
none of these
The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT:
Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism, a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction
Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed chain motion
In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on a fixed femur
It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented
none of these
Partial tearing of this ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachments and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia on the femur.
LCL
ACL
MCL
PCL
The following describe the lateral meniscus, EXCEPT:
There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia
May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does
The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial
Because of its shape, it is much more of movement by the lateral femoral condyle over the lateral plateau of the tibia
Has considerably less mobility than medial meniscus and by its shape and contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle
Course of the ACL:
Upward, backward, Lateral
Upward, forward, medial
Upward, backward, medial
Upward, forward, lateral
A college soccer player sustained a hypertension. knee injury when kicking the ball. The patient was taken to the emergency room of a local hospital and was diagnosed with knee sprain. Based on the mechanism of injury. What structure is most likely sprained?
ACL
PCL
Medial Meniscus
ITB
The bursa that is affected in Baker's cyst:
Prepatellar bursa
Suprapatellar bursa
Pets anserine bursa
Popliteal bursa
Infrapatellar bursa
The following describes the Q angle, except:
The acute angle formed by quadriceps femoris may above 15 degrees Increase the tendency for lateral patalar malposition
An increased 'Q' angle associated with another deficiency of the extensor mechanism may allow the patella to sublux more easily
The second line is drawn from the center of the patella to the center of the anterior-inferior illac spine on the pelvis
Determined by drawing one line from the middle of the patella to the center of the tibial tubercie
If the angle is less than 170 degrees on the medial side of the knee on weight-bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as:
Genu Varum
Genu Valgum
Genu Recurvatum
None of these
The contents of the popliteal fossa from the deepest to the most superficial:
Posterior tibial nerve, popliteal vein, popliteal artery
Popliteal artery, popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve
Popliteal vein, popliteal artery, posterior tibial nerve
Posterior tibial nerve, popliteal artery, popliteal vein
Popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve, popliteal artery
The fibula functions as follows, except:
All of these
Gives origin to the muscles
Acts as lateral 'splint' for the ankle joint
Acts as pulley for tendons passing behind it the ankle
None of these
Which muscle is active in foot inversion, accompanied by dorsiflexion:
EHL
Tibialis anterior
EDL
Tibialis posterior
The saphenous nerve is a continuation of:
Tibial nerve
Sciatic nerve
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Common peroneal nerve
The following statements describe the foot's medial aspect, EXCEPT:
The sustentaculum tali supports the calcaneus and serves as an attachment for the spring ligament; problems within this anatomic alignment may lead to pes planus
The first cuneiform bone projects distally nearly half an inch further than the other cuneiform bones and articulates laterally with the cuboid bone
The medial tubercle of the talus is the point of insertion for the ankle's medial collateral ligament
The first metatarsal flares slightly at its base to meet the first cuneiform, articulating in a simple piano joint, providing gliding movement
The navicular articulates proximally with the talar head and distally with the three cuneiforms
Components of the deltoid ligament, except:
I. Anterior talotibial ligament
II. Posterior talotibial ligament
III. Calcaneotibial ligament
IV. Calcaneofibular ligament
II and IV
all of these
only IV
I, III and III
The forward projection of the metatarsal bones normally follow the sequence of:
2>1>3>4>5
1>3>2>4>5
1>2>3>4>5
2>3>1>4>5
The Chopart joint, a surgical level of amputation is formed by these articulating surfaces:
I. Talonavicular
II. Talocrural
III. Calcaneocuboid
IV. Tarsometatarsal
I and III
I, II and III
II and IV
none of these
Components of subtalar joint pronation when the foot is bearing weight:
Talar adduction and talar dorsiflexion and moderate calcaneal inversion
Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar abduction and talar dorsiflexion
Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar adduction and talar plantarflexion
Moderate calcaneal inversion and talar dorsiflexion
Excessive calcaneal inversion, talar adduction and talar plantarflexion
The configuration of an Egyptian foot follows this sequence:
2>1>3>4>5
1>3>2>4>5
1>2>3>4>5
2>3>1>4>5
Structures found in the second layer on the plantar aspect of the foot:
I. Lumbricals
II. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
III. Quadratus plantae
IV. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
all of these
I and III
II, IV
I, II, III
Contents of the tarsal tunnel:
I. Posterior tibial nerve
II. Tibialis posterior tendon
III. Posterior tibial artery
IV. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
II, IV
I, III
I, II, III
all of these
none of these
Innervation of the Interossei muscles of the foot:
Medial plantar nerve
Lateral plantar nerve
Both medial and plantar nerve
None of these
Contents of the extensor retinacula of the foot.
I. Tibialis anterior tendon
II. extensor hallucis longus tendon
III. Peroneus tertius tendon
IV. Dorsalis pedis artery
I, II, III
all of these
II and IV
I and III
Location of the dorsalis pedis artery.
Medial to tibialis anterior tendon
Lateral to extensor digitorum longus tendon
Medial to extensor hallucis longus tendon
Medial to extensor digitorum longus tendon
Between tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus tendons
The following are true regarding the branches of the sacral plexus, except:
Roots of the superior gluteal nerve are L4, L5, S1 posterior divisions
Nerve to quadratus femoris and inferior gemellus is from roots L4, L5, S1 anterior divisions
none of these
Roots from inferior gluteal nerve are L5, S1, S2 posterior divisions
Roots from the pudendal nerve are from S2, S3, S4 anterior divisions
The first half of the single limb support that starts when contralateral foot lifts from the ground for swing:
Loading response
Midstance
Terminal stance
Pre-swing
Initial swing
This gait determinant reduces the vertical rise of the center of gravity as it passes over the same leg and compensated for by increased knee and ankle flexion so the swinging leg can pass under the lowered hemipelvis:
Pelvic list
Pelvic lateral displacement
Knee, ankle and foot rotation
Pelvic rotation
Knee flexion in stance
During gait, the position of the knee at midstance is:
10 degrees flexion
15 degrees flexion
Fully extended
40 degrees flexion
65 degrees flexion
Which of the following statements about muscle functions during gait is incorrect?
The knee extensors (quads) are maximally active at heel strike to stabilize the knee and counteract the flexion moment
Hip flexors contribute to initiate swing (acceleration to midswing)
Erector spinae, gluteus maximus and hamstrings contribute to core stability (trunk and pelvis) and assist in counteracting extension moment from heel strike to foot flat
Knee flexors (hams) decelerate the momentum of the swinging leg (midswing to deceleration)
None of these
In lumbopelvic rhythm, if the posture is Kyphotic, what is the movement or orientation of the sacroiliac joint?
Counternutation
Nutation
Posterior tilt
Anterior tilt
In lumbopelvic rhythm, if the posture is Lordotic, what is the movement or orientation of the sacroiliac joint?
Counternutation
Nutation
Posterior tilt
Anterior tilt
What part of the scapula is also known as 'crow's beak'?
Acromion process
Scapular spine
Coracoid process
Supraspinous fossa
What ligament of the shoulder limits shoulder external rotation and prevents downward displacement of the humeral head?
Coracoid ligament
Glenohumeral ligament
Coracohumeral ligament
Acromioclavicular ligament
What muscle of the lower extremity is also known as the 'lateral hamstring'?
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Tensor fascia latae
What are the muscles of the pes anserine of the lower extremity?
Semitendinosus, Gracilis, Semimembranosus
Semimembranosus, Gracilis, Adductor longus
Semimembranosus, Adductor longus, Semitensinosus
Semitendinosus, Sartorius, Gracilis
What are the combination motions of the upper extremity to complete shoulder girdle upward rotation?
Scapular upward rotation & anterior rotation of both SC and AC joint
Scapular downward rotation & elevation of both SC and AC joint
Scapular upward rotation & elevation of both SC and AC joint
Scapular downward rotation & anterior of both SC and AC joint
Which of the following is true about coxa vara deformity?
The affected lower extremity will appear shorter in comparison to the normal.
The femoral-shaft angle or angle of inclination will be increased when measured.
Coxa vara commonly is associated with genu varum deformity of the knee.
The orientation of the lower extremity is hip flexed and adducted, knee flexed, ankle dorsiflexed and everted.
Which of the following is false about second-class lever? Except.
A. If the 2 forces are applied equally, the force with a longer distance from the axis has the advantage.
A. The common example of exercise for second-class lever is straight leg raise with ankle weights.
The application of resistance is in between the moving force and axis, thus providing a moving force advantage.
A. The moving force is in between the resistance force and axis, thus providing a resistance force advantage.
The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:
A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
The gliding movement occurs on the axis
The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired atlanto-occipital joints
When the “no” movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament
In kinesiology, a ____ muscle is a skeletal muscle that primarily acts to stabilize a joint rather than produce large, rapid movements
Spurt
Shunt
Spurs
Shung
Many human limb movements operate as favors to speed and range of motion, which describes:
First-class lever
Second-class lever
Third-class lever
Fourth-class lever
During early stance, the most likely anatomical cause when the entire foot contacts the ground is
Weak Quadriceps
Poor balance
Heel pain
Weak ankle dorsiflexors
The suprascapular nerve innervates which muscle?
Triceps
Deltoid
Infraspinatus
Biceps
The primary action of this muscle is flexing the forearm at the elbow joint and it works most when forearm is in neutral position
Biceps brachii
Brachioradialis
Brachialis
Coracibrachialis
