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NC1 SET 4

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Postpartum day 3, a client has BP 166/110, severe headache, and blurred vision. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Institute seizure precautions and start magnesium per protocol

b)

Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein quantification

c)

Encourage oral fluids and reassess symptoms later

d)

Prepare oxytocin infusion for expedited uterine involution

2.

A laboring client on magnesium sulfate becomes somnolent with RR 8/min, absent reflexes, and urine 15 mL/hr. What is the priority?

a)

Stop magnesium, give calcium gluconate per protocol, and support ventilation

b)

Increase magnesium rate to prevent seizures from recurring

c)

Restrict all fluids and wait for a spontaneous recovery

d)

Administer an opioid for comfort and observe for improvement

3.

Immediately after birth, the uterus is firm and midline, but bleeding is brisk and bright red. What is the best nursing interpretation?

a)

Genital tract laceration likely; prepare for examination and repair

b)

Uterine atony likely; begin high-dose uterotonics immediately

c)

Bladder distention likely; perform immediate catheterization

d)

Retained placenta likely; prepare for manual removal now

4.

During labor, a client develops sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and DIC without warning. What is the priority nursing response?

a)

Call a code, deliver high-flow oxygen, support circulation, and activate massive transfusion protocol

b)

Place the client in Trendelenburg and await spontaneous recovery

c)

Administer a diuretic to reduce pulmonary edema risk

d)

Provide oral fluids while arranging a chest radiograph

5.

A 31-week client has preterm labor with intact membranes and no infection. Which nursing actions are appropriate now? Select all that apply.

a)

Arrange antenatal corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity

b)

Consider tocolysis to allow completion of the steroid course

c)

Begin routine digital cervical examinations every hour

d)

Obtain GBS screen and avoid unnecessary vaginal exams

e)

Discharge home with strict bed rest and no medications

6.

Post-cesarean day 1, a client has pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and SpO₂ 90%. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Apply oxygen, elevate the head, notify provider, and prepare for diagnostic imaging

b)

Encourage brisk ambulation to mobilize the suspected clot

c)

Massage the calf to improve venous return and comfort

d)

Offer oral fluids and reassess oxygen saturation later

7.

A TOLAC client on low-dose oxytocin reports sudden tearing pain between contractions with vaginal bleeding and loss of station. What is the priority?

a)

Encourage active pushing to restore fetal descent

b)

Stop oxytocin and call an obstetric emergency immediately

c)

Start amnioinfusion to relieve variable decelerations

d)

Obtain a urine ketone test to rule out dehydration

8.

A postpartum client with asthma has uterine atony after oxytocin. Which nursing actions are appropriate now? Select all that apply.

a)

Perform bimanual massage and ensure bladder emptying

b)

Administer misoprostol per rectum as ordered

c)

Give tranexamic acid within 3 hours of birth if not contraindicated

d)

Administer carboprost IM despite the asthma history

e)

Prepare uterine balloon tamponade if bleeding persists

9.

A 35-week client has intense nocturnal pruritus of palms and soles; bile acids return at 60 μmol/L. What is the best nursing plan today?

a)

Notify the provider, support symptom therapy, arrange fetal surveillance, and discuss delivery timing near 36-37 weeks

b)

Reassure that itching is benign and continue routine prenatal care

c)

Begin magnesium sulfate prophylaxis to reduce seizure risk

d)

Delay all surveillance because fetal risk is minimal at this stage

10.

Six weeks postpartum after GDM, a client asks about diabetes follow-up. What is the most accurate teaching?

a)

A random glucose today is sufficient to exclude diabetes long term

b)

Schedule a 75-g OGTT at 4-12 weeks postpartum and screen every 1-3 years thereafter

c)

Discontinue all screening because insulin needs ended after delivery

d)

Use home capillary checks only when symptoms of diabetes appear

11.

A 32-week client is rear-end MVC victim and arrives on a backboard. Which initial nursing actions are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Prioritize ABCs with maternal stabilization first

b)

Apply left uterine displacement to reduce vena cava compression

c)

Initiate fetal monitoring when maternal status permits

d)

Delay Rh testing until discharge regardless of blood type

e)

Assess for bleeding and obtain type and screen with indicated labs

12.

Postpartum day 5, a client has orthopnea, S3, and bibasilar crackles. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Encourage aggressive oral fluids to increase milk supply

b)

Elevate the head, give oxygen, and notify cardiology for heart-failure management

c)

Apply warm compresses and reassess in the morning

d)

Restrict all activity until symptoms resolve spontaneously

13.

After an assisted birth with a fourth-degree laceration, which nursing plan is most appropriate today?

a)

Daily rectal temperatures and stimulant laxatives for regularity

b)

Perineal hygiene, pain control, stool softener, fiber, and avoidance of rectal procedures

c)

Early enemas to prevent fecal stasis and wound strain

d)

High-impact exercise to restore pelvic tone rapidly

14.

Which intrapartum situations require GBS intrapartum prophylaxis? Select all that apply.

a)

Unknown GBS status with intrapartum fever ≥38 °C

b)

Unknown GBS status with ROM ≥18 hours at term

c)

Prior GBS colonization in a previous pregnancy now testing negative

d)

History of a prior infant with early-onset GBS disease

e)

GBS bacteriuria at any time during the current pregnancy

15.

During third stage, the uterus inverts after traction. What is the best immediate nursing action?

a)

Call for help, stop uterotonics, and prepare for immediate manual replacement

b)

Continue fundal massage to restore the uterine shape

c)

Start high-dose oxytocin infusion before any manipulation

d)

Place the patient sitting up and reassess bleeding later

16.

A 39-week induction order includes misoprostol for a client with a prior low-transverse cesarean. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Question the order and notify the provider due to uterine rupture risk

b)

Administer the dose and document informed consent

c)

Replace misoprostol with high-dose oxytocin immediately

d)

Begin amniotomy to accelerate cervical ripening

17.

A breastfeeding parent on therapeutic LMWH for DVT asks about feeding safety. What is the best response?

a)

Stop anticoagulation because all agents pass into milk significantly

b)

Continue breastfeeding; LMWH is compatible with lactation; review bleeding precautions

c)

Switch to a direct oral anticoagulant to reduce injection burden

d)

Discontinue breastfeeding until anticoagulation is completed

18.

During a confidential prenatal visit, a client discloses intimate partner violence. Which nursing actions are appropriate today? Select all that apply.

a)

Ensure private, trauma-informed assessment and document objectively

b)

Create a safety plan and provide local resources discreetly

c)

Clarify reporting requirements and obtain consent where applicable

d)

Confront the partner to obtain an admission of guilt

e)

Offer follow-up and referrals while respecting the client's choices

19.

A first-trimester screen shows asymptomatic bacteriuria (≥10⁵ CFU/mL). What is the best nursing plan?

a)

Start appropriate antibiotics and arrange a test-of-cure culture

b)

Observe without therapy unless dysuria develops later

c)

Use cranberry juice alone for seven days and repeat testing

d)

Delay treatment until the second trimester ultrasound

20.

A family learns of an intrauterine fetal demise at 35 weeks. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Provide privacy, offer memory-making options, and facilitate bereavement support

b)

Discourage parental holding to avoid traumatic recall later

c)

Focus on rapid discharge to minimize hospital exposure

d)

Avoid discussing lactation because the topic is distressing

21.

At discharge, a client asks about postpartum preeclampsia warning signs. Which teaching points should the nurse emphasize? Select all that apply.

a)

Severe headache, visual changes, or RUQ/epigastric pain

b)

Shortness of breath, chest pain, or sudden swelling

c)

Oliguria or a rapid rise in blood pressure readings

d)

Mild mood lability during the first week only

e)

Seizure or fainting-call emergency services immediately

22.

A mother on stable methadone therapy asks about breastfeeding. What is the best nursing guidance?

a)

Avoid breastfeeding until methadone taper is complete

b)

Breastfeeding is encouraged if no other contraindications; coordinate NAS monitoring and follow-up

c)

Switch to mixed formula to lower neonatal exposure

d)

Discontinue methadone to enable immediate breastfeeding

23.

Before an operative vaginal birth, which bedside checks should the nurse confirm? Select all that apply.

a)

Complete dilation and ruptured membranes

b)

Engaged head with known position and adequate pelvis

c)

Empty bladder and adequate analgesia or anesthesia

d)

Maternal exhaustion is present with no contraindications

e)

Informed consent and emergency backup available

24.

At 3 cm/-3 station, the head is unengaged and the plan is amniotomy. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Proceed with amniotomy to accelerate descent

b)

Advise deferring amniotomy due to prolapse risk and notify the provider

c)

Apply fundal pressure to encourage rapid engagement

d)

Start high-dose oxytocin before confirming engagement

25.

A postpartum hemorrhage reaches 1500 mL with hypotension and coagulopathy. What is the priority nursing response?

a)

Activate massive transfusion protocol, warm products, trend labs, and administer calcium per protocol

b)

Wait for the next hemoglobin value before transfusing

c)

Give high-dose diuretics to reduce interstitial third spacing

d)

Provide oral iron and reassess in two hours

26.

A 7-year-old arrives wheezing with hives and hypotension after peanut exposure. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Deliver IM epinephrine in the thigh and place supine with legs elevated

b)

Administer IV antihistamine and monitor for clinical response

c)

Begin nebulized albuterol and reassess after two treatments

d)

Obtain IV access and delay medications until access is secured

27.

A 6-hour newborn after 22 hours of ruptured membranes and maternal fever is grunting with RR 72 and mottling. What is the priority?

a)

Obtain cultures, start IV broad antibiotics, support airway and glucose

b)

Await CRP results and begin therapy only if positive

c)

Discharge with oral amoxicillin and next-day follow-up

d)

Place prone and perform chest physiotherapy for comfort

28.

A 9-month infant with bronchiolitis has SpO₂ 89% and intercostal retractions with poor feeds. What is the best immediate step?

a)

Suction nares gently, provide oxygen to ≥90-92%, and support hydration

b)

Schedule albuterol and amoxicillin for 48 hours

c)

Give codeine syrup to suppress the cough reflex

d)

Place prone and apply vibration to the posterior chest

29.

A 3-year-old is febrile, drooling, tripod, and speaking with a muffled voice. What is the safest first step?

a)

Keep the child calm upright, avoid oral exam, call airway team, provide blow-by oxygen

b)

Use a tongue depressor to visualize the oropharynx in triage

c)

Lay supine for lateral neck film before any intervention

d)

Start IV dexamethasone and reassess before airway support

30.

A near-drowning child is warm, alert, and normoxic 30 minutes after rescue. What is the best plan today?

a)

Observe for several hours with continuous pulse-oximetry and serial assessments

b)

Discharge immediately with routine return precautions

c)

Start broad antibiotics and bed rest in the ward

d)

Restrict fluids and begin early hallway ambulation

31.

A 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes presents in DKA with Kussmaul respirations. Which initial steps are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Give an isotonic fluid bolus 10-20 mL/kg and send baseline labs

b)

Start insulin infusion after fluids and after potassium assessment

c)

Give an IV insulin bolus prior to rehydration

d)

Perform frequent neurologic checks to detect cerebral edema

e)

Administer IV bicarbonate routinely to normalize pH

32.

A toddler has intermittent colicky pain, bilious emesis, and one 'currant-jelly' stool. What should the nurse do now?

a)

Start laxatives and apply warm abdominal compresses

b)

Keep NPO, secure IV access, provide analgesia, and prepare for air/contrast enema

c)

Give oral barium at bedside for confirmation

d)

Discharge with instructions to return if pain persists

33.

A child with moderate croup has stridor at rest and sternal retractions. What are the immediate priorities? Select all that apply.

a)

Administer nebulized epinephrine and observe for rebound

b)

Give dexamethasone via oral, IV, or IM route as available

c)

Minimize agitation and provide humidified oxygen as needed

d)

Obtain a throat swab using a tongue blade in triage

e)

Perform chest percussion and vibration for secretion clearance

34.

A 6-week infant has projectile non-bilious emesis with visible peristalsis and a palpable RUQ 'olive.' What is the pre-operative priority?

a)

Begin ad-lib oral feeds to test tolerance

b)

Correct dehydration and electrolyte derangements prior to surgery

c)

Start IV bicarbonate to reverse the metabolic alkalosis

d)

Delay surgery until the infant's weight improves

35.

A 12-kg child with watery diarrhea is thirsty, restless, and has delayed skin recoil - moderate dehydration. Which ORS-based actions are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Provide ~75 mL/kg ORS over about four hours with frequent reassessment

b)

Continue breastfeeding and resume normal diet after rehydration

c)

Replace ongoing losses with measured ORS after each stool or emesis

d)

Use loperamide to reduce stool frequency routinely

e)

Start IV fluids for all moderate cases regardless of response

36.

After two back-to-back albuterol treatments, an 8-year-old in severe asthma speaks in single words with SpO₂ 89%. What is the best next step?

a)

Stop oxygen to limit carbon dioxide retention

b)

Add inhaled ipratropium, administer systemic corticosteroid now, titrate oxygen, consider continuous albuterol and IV magnesium

c)

Give codeine to reduce cough and promote rest

d)

Trial a nonselective beta-blocker to slow the heart rate

37.

A 6-week-old infant has a temperature of 38.6 °C, is irritable but arousable, and has no source on exam. What is the best ED plan?

a)

Perform a full sepsis evaluation, obtain cultures, and start empiric IV antibiotics

b)

Give acetaminophen and discharge with routine precautions

c)

Obtain a chest radiograph only and avoid lab work

d)

Observe for 24 hours to see whether a rash develops

38.

Parents of a 2-month-old ask how to reduce SIDS risk. Which counseling points are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Place supine on a firm, flat sleep surface for every sleep

b)

Room-share without bed-sharing during the early months

c)

Keep the sleep area free of soft bedding, pillows, and toys

d)

Use prone naps if a caregiver is present to supervise

e)

Avoid smoke exposure and keep immunizations up to date

39.

A 14-month-old likely swallowed a button battery one hour ago and is drooling and refusing to swallow. What is the priority?

a)

Give milk at triage and observe for passage at home

b)

Induce emesis immediately to remove the battery

c)

Keep NPO, obtain urgent radiographs from nasopharynx to rectum, and arrange emergent endoscopic removal if esophageal

d)

Administer laxatives to accelerate intestinal transit

40.

A child with nephrotic syndrome has generalized edema and albumin 2.0 g/dL with normal blood pressure. What should the nursing plan emphasize today?

a)

Provide high-salt snacks to encourage diuresis

b)

Record daily weight and strict I&O, protect the skin, use moderate sodium restriction, and administer ordered therapies

c)

Institute universal fluid restriction regardless of status

d)

Defer all immunizations indefinitely during childhood

41.

A home visit reveals a non-ambulatory infant with a spiral femur fracture and bruises in different stages of healing. Which actions are mandated now? Select all that apply.

a)

Report immediately to child protective services as required by law

b)

Ensure the infant's safety and document objective findings

c)

Confront the caregiver to obtain a confession on video

d)

Arrange prompt medical evaluation and skeletal survey

e)

Delay reporting until a consistent history is obtained

42.

An 8-year-old with cystic fibrosis is admitted with increased cough and sputum. Which plan is best today?

a)

Cluster all airway care after meals to promote rest

b)

Schedule airway clearance before meals and at bedtime; give bronchodilator then mucolytics; ensure pancreatic enzymes and high-calorie, high-salt intake

c)

Restrict salt to reduce secretions and thirst

d)

Place on droplet isolation universally for all organisms

43.

A 10-year-old with sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis reports severe limb pain and has tachycardia but SpO₂ 97%. Which nursing actions are priorities? Select all that apply.

a)

Initiate weight-based IV opioid analgesia with timely reassessment

b)

Begin aggressive IV hydration and maintain warmth

c)

Apply ice packs to numb the painful areas

d)

Assess for infection triggers and provide supportive care

e)

Delay analgesia until diagnostic imaging is complete

44.

A 9-year-old with RLQ pain, fever, and anorexia is diagnosed with appendicitis and is awaiting surgery. What is the most appropriate nursing action pre-op?

a)

Encourage a heating pad over the area for relief

b)

Keep NPO, maintain IV fluids, provide analgesia, and monitor for perforation

c)

Administer laxatives to decompress the bowel before surgery

d)

Allow a light meal for energy and comfort

45.

A 10-year-old with persistent asthma receives a new written action plan. Which teaching is most accurate?

a)

Use short-acting beta-agonist daily for baseline control

b)

Use a spacer, rinse after inhaled corticosteroid, pre-treat before exercise, and know peak-flow zones

c)

Store the rescue inhaler at school in a locked office

d)

Avoid vaccines during high-dose inhaled steroid therapy

46.

A 4-year-old had a 3-minute generalized seizure with fever 39.5 °C and is now back to baseline. What is the best discharge teaching?

a)

Start daily anticonvulsants to prevent recurrences

b)

Explain that simple febrile seizures are usually benign; teach seizure first aid and return precautions

c)

Order routine head CT to rule out structural lesions

d)

Prohibit routine vaccinations for the next year

47.

A teen presents with fever, petechial rash, hypotension, and confusion - suspected meningococcemia. What are the immediate nursing actions? Select all that apply.

a)

Initiate droplet precautions without delay

b)

Obtain cultures if possible and start IV broad antibiotics promptly

c)

Begin aggressive fluids and vasopressors per protocol

d)

Observe 24 hours before starting antimicrobial

48.

A 3-day-old has weak femoral pulses, an upper-lower extremity BP gradient, and differential cyanosis. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Begin vigorous feeds to improve weight gain

b)

Obtain four-limb blood pressures and pre/post-ductal saturations; notify cardiology for suspected coarctation

c)

Apply tight swaddling and reassess in one week

d)

Start high-dose furosemide immediately at bedside

49.

A 5-year-old with type 1 diabetes has vomiting from gastroenteritis. Which sick-day instruction is best?

a)

Hold all insulin until the child resumes normal eating

b)

Continue basal insulin, check glucose and ketones regularly, give carbohydrate fluids, and follow correction dosing

c)

Avoid carbohydrates to hasten ketone clearance

d)

Double physical activity to normalize sugars

50.

A 20-kg child sustained 20% TBSA partial-thickness burns 60 minutes ago. What is the priority in the first hours?

a)

Start LR using Parkland formula, target urine ≥1 mL/kg/hr, provide warmth, analgesia, and tetanus update

b)

Encourage oral water and delay IVs for comfort

c)

Apply topical butter and cover with towels tightly

d)

Restrict analgesia to avoid masking worsening pain

51.

A 6-year-old in status epilepticus is actively seizing on arrival. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Ensure airway and give a weight-based benzodiazepine promptly

b)

Start a loading dose of fosphenytoin before any other drug

c)

Insert a tongue blade to prevent biting during the seizure

d)

Apply physical restraints and wait for the provider to arrive

52.

A 12-year-old has sudden unilateral testicular pain, high-riding testis, and nausea for 90 minutes. What is the priority?

a)

Place warm packs and reassess in two hours

b)

Alert urology emergently, keep NPO, and prepare for urgent detorsion

c)

Obtain a urine culture before any further steps

d)

Schedule an outpatient ultrasound for the next morning

53.

A 7-year-old has trismus, muffled voice, uvular deviation, and unilateral peritonsillar swelling. What is the best nursing action now?

a)

Perform vigorous throat swabbing to confirm streptococcus

b)

Maintain airway readiness, keep NPO, and notify ENT for drainage

c)

Encourage large oral fluids to clear secretions quickly

d)

Start deep oropharyngeal suctioning to remove exudate

54.

An obese 12-year-old presents with limp and externally rotated foot; hip pain worsens with activity. Which immediate nursing steps are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Make the child non-weight-bearing and provide a wheelchair

b)

Notify orthopedics urgently for suspected SCFE

c)

Begin hip range-of-motion stretching at bedside

d)

Provide analgesia and prepare for imaging without walking

e)

Discharge with home exercises and sports when pain allows

55.

A cyanotic term newborn remains hypoxic despite 100% oxygen; preductal and postductal saturations differ by 10%. What is the priority?

a)

Feed small frequent volumes to reduce energy use

b)

Notify the team to start prostaglandin E1 and prepare for transfer

c)

Place prone with chest percussion to mobilize secretions

d)

Give a trial of diuretic therapy to reduce pulmonary edema

56.

A 3-year-old with severe dehydration is lethargic with cool extremities and delayed capillary refill. What is the first fluid action?

a)

Start hypotonic saline at maintenance rates

b)

Give isotonic crystalloid 20 mL/kg bolus and reassess

c)

Begin oral rehydration solution in small frequent sips

d)

Administer dextrose 10% as an initial rapid bolus

57.

A child with palpable purpura, colicky abdominal pain, arthralgia, and hematuria is diagnosed with IgA vasculitis (HSP). Which nursing focus is most important today?

a)

Monitor blood pressure and urine for protein and blood

b)

Encourage NSAIDs around the clock for renal protection

c)

Restrict fluids strictly to reduce edema formation

d)

Promote vigorous activity to prevent joint stiffness

58.

A student was hospitalized with meningococcal disease. Which contacts require chemoprophylaxis? Select all that apply.

a)

Household members with frequent overnight exposure

b)

Child-care classmates with close daily contact

c)

Healthcare staff with direct airway secretion exposure

d)

Casual schoolmates who sat across the classroom

e)

Passing contacts at the grocery store last week

59.

A 16-year-old with infectious mononucleosis asks about sports. What is the best guidance?

a)

Resume all sports once afebrile for forty-eight hours

b)

Avoid contact sports until splenic risk is cleared by exam or imaging

c)

Return to full play after one week regardless of symptoms

d)

Use a snug abdominal binder to protect the spleen in games

60.

Amoxicillin is ordered 90 mg/kg/day divided twice daily for a 16-kg child using 400 mg/5 mL suspension. What volume per dose is correct?

a)

6 mL

b)

9 mL

c)

10 mL

d)

12 mL

61.

A 5-year-old is diagnosed with tinea capitis. Which instructions are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Use oral antifungal therapy as prescribed for several weeks

b)

Apply selenium sulfide or ketoconazole shampoo to reduce spread

c)

Shave the scalp completely to speed resolution

d)

Avoid sharing combs, hats, pillows, and hair accessories

e)

Exclude from school until the scalp is completely clear

62.

A 3-year-old with nonsevere acute otitis media is afebrile and comfortable. Parents ask about antibiotics. What is the best plan?

a)

Start high-dose amoxicillin immediately for all ages

b)

Offer watchful waiting with analgesia and close follow-up

c)

Use topical anesthetic drops and no follow-up

d)

Avoid all analgesics to allow diagnostic clarity

63.

A 4-month-old with paroxysmal cough and posttussive cyanosis is suspected of pertussis. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Place in contact isolation and start steroids

b)

Initiate droplet precautions and monitor for apnea events

c)

Encourage large oral feeds to prevent weight loss

d)

Give codeine cough syrup before any testing

64.

A caregiver reports a possible acetaminophen overdose in a 4-year-old; time of ingestion is uncertain. Which steps are appropriate now? Select all that apply.

a)

Obtain a serum acetaminophen level at or after 4 hours from ingestion

b)

Draw baseline AST/ALT and assess co-ingestants

c)

Consult poison control and prepare to start NAC if indicated

d)

Give ipecac to induce emesis at home

e)

Discharge without labs if the child is currently asymptomatic

65.

A 13-year-old with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive at practice; a glucometer shows 38 mg/dL. What is the best immediate action?

a)

Administer glucagon and secure the airway; give oral carbohydrate once awake

b)

Start a long run to raise circulating catecholamines

c)

Place the child supine and wait for spontaneous recovery

d)

Give a large soda by mouth while unconscious

66.

Parents of a child with celiac disease ask about foods. Which guidance is best?

a)

Avoid rice, corn, and potatoes because they contain gluten

b)

Avoid wheat, barley, and rye; choose naturally gluten-free grains

c)

Use oats freely regardless of processing source

d)

Limit vaccines to reduce autoimmune activation

67.

A school-age child with sickle cell disease develops new chest pain, fever, and hypoxia-suspected acute chest syndrome. Which actions are priorities? Select all that apply.

a)

Administer oxygen and obtain chest imaging promptly

b)

Start broad-spectrum antibiotics as ordered

c)

Provide incentive spirometry and adequate analgesia

d)

Restrict fluids strictly to prevent pulmonary edema

e)

Delay blood transfusion discussions until discharge

68.

A 9-year-old with refusal to bear weight, fever, and localized bone tenderness is suspected of osteomyelitis. What is the best nursing step?

a)

Encourage walking to assess pain pattern more clearly

b)

Obtain cultures, start IV antibiotics as ordered, and restrict weight-bearing

c)

Give NSAIDs only and discharge with a splint

d)

Begin deep tissue massage to reduce swelling

69.

A 2-month-old with poor weight gain has hypernatremic dehydration; history reveals over-concentrated formula. What is the best teaching?

a)

Mix formula exactly per label using safe water and precise measurement

b)

Add cereal to bottles to raise calories quickly and safely

c)

Give plain water between feeds to dilute sodium rapidly

d)

Use honey as a natural thickener to improve intake

70.

A 10-year-old demonstrates poor MDI-spacer technique. Which correction is best?

a)

Inhale rapidly to push the drug deep into the lungs

b)

Seal lips on mouthpiece, actuate once, inhale slowly and deeply, hold 10 seconds

c)

Actuate three times and then take a single long inhalation

d)

Skip the spacer to reduce device resistance during use

71.

A child with DKA develops headache and bradycardia during treatment. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Increase insulin rate to hasten acidosis correction

b)

Notify the provider immediately and prepare hyperosmolar therapy per protocol

c)

Start rapid free water infusion to normalize osmolality

d)

Place ice packs on the head to reduce discomfort

72.

A 7-year-old with unknown records needs catch-up immunization. Which vaccines are appropriate today if no contraindications? Select all that apply.

a)

Tdap as first tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis dose at this age

b)

IPV series according to catch-up intervals

c)

MMR

73.

An adolescent with EBV mononucleosis asks about home care. Which advice is most accurate?

a)

Rest, hydrate, use analgesics, and avoid contact sports until the spleen is cleared

b)

Start amoxicillin immediately to shorten the illness duration

c)

Begin strenuous exercise to prevent deconditioning

d)

Use aspirin daily to reduce fever and throat pain

74.

A 6-year-old receives IV morphine for severe pain. Which assessment is the priority after administration?

a)

Respiratory rate and sedation level using a validated scale

b)

Bowel sounds and daily stool frequency

c)

Blood pressure trend and capillary refill

d)

Oral intake volume and urine color

75.

A preterm infant on feeds develops abdominal distension, emesis, and heme-positive stools; x-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Continue feeds slowly to maintain gut motility

b)

Stop feeds, place OG for decompression, start IV fluids and antibiotics, and monitor closely

c)

Give loperamide to reduce stooling frequency

d)

Apply abdominal heat and reassess after thirty minutes