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Y3 Radiology MCQ Compilation

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Q1. Radiation Safety

a)

A single PA chest X-ray has an effective dose of 0.02 mSv

b)

A plain CT brain has a higher dose than a chest radiograph

c)

Barium enema has a lower effective dose than an abdominal radiograph

d)

Stochastic effect is determined by the amount of radiation and exposure

e)

Deterministic effects include cataract formation

2.

Q2. Human Imaging

a)

Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA) is an invasive procedure

b)

Ultrasound is beneficial in bowel-related pathologies

c)

Most CT examinations do not require contrast media

d)

Patients with metal implants have an absolute contraindication for MRI

3.

Q3. Contrast Media

a)

Gastrografin is injected intravenously

b)

Extravasation of contrast media can result in compartment syndrome

c)

Asthmatic patients are at higher risk of adverse reaction to iodinated contrast media

d)

Intravenous injection of high-osmolar contrast media produces flushing sensation

e)

Low-osmolar contrast media is used in MRI

4.

Q4. Imaging Modalities Based on Clinical Scenarios

a)

Low back pain – MRI lumbar spine

b)

Intussusception – Ultrasound abdomen

c)

Traumatic intracranial bleed – MRI brain

d)

Intestinal obstruction – Barium enema

e)

Renal stone – CT renal phase

5.

Q5. CT Scan

a)

Can visualize soft tissue, blood vessels, and bone in any part of the body

b)

Trauma cases use contrast-enhanced CT

c)

Multiple exposures of CT increase cancer risk

d)

CT is used in guided procedures such as needle biopsy

e)

Dental fillings can cause streak artefacts

6.

Q6. Neuroimaging

a)

Spinal cord injury is best visualized using CECT spine

b)

Cerebral angiography can be performed using non-contrast MR

c)

Acute intracranial bleeds are detected by non-contrast CT brain

d)

Brain abscess is diagnosed using contrast-enhanced MRI

e)

Skull base fractures are detected by non-contrast CT

7.

Q7. Chest Radiograph

a)

Mechanical ventilation may cause iatrogenic pneumothorax

b)

Lobar pneumonia shows air bronchogram

c)

COPD chest radiographs may appear normal

d)

Drowning may cause pulmonary oedema

e)

Congestive cardiac failure may present with normal cardiac size

8.

Q8. Large Bowel Obstruction

a)

Caecum > 6 cm is abnormal

b)

Central location of bowel dilatation is typical

c)

Abdominal radiograph can reliably differentiate mechanical from pseudo-obstruction

d)

Commonest cause is inguinal hernia

e)

Coffee-bean sign suggests sigmoid volvulus

9.

Q9. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

Cystic duct joins the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct

b)

Mesenteric infarction may cause air in the portal venous system

c)

Percutaneous cholecystostomy is indicated for gallbladder empyema

d)

Contrast-induced pancreatitis is a complication of MRCP

e)

Triphasic CT can diagnose hepatic artery pseudoaneurysm

10.

Q10. Imaging Modalities

a)

Plain radiography is commonly used in musculoskeletal imaging

b)

CT and MRI are good for vascular imaging

c)

CT scan is best for bony delineation

d)

Ultrasound is not operator-dependent

e)

Barium swallow is a real-time imaging technique

11.

Q11. Contrast Media

a)
  • Air can be used as contrast media

b)
  • Oral contrast does not cause allergic reaction

c)
  • Intravenous contrast is contraindicated in renal impairment

d)
  • Nephrogenic fibrosis does not occur in renal failure patients

12.

Q12. Radiation Safety

a)
  • Skin burn is a deterministic effect

b)
  • 28-day rule applies for female patients undergoing CT

c)
  • Inverse square law applies to radiation dose

d)
  • ALARA principle applies to all radiation imaging

e)
  • Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication in radiology imaging

13.

Q14. GIT Imaging

a)
  • Barium follow-through is used for large bowel study

b)
  • Bird’s beak sign indicates hiatal hernia

c)
  • Three air-fluid levels indicate small bowel obstruction

d)
  • Left lateral decubitus view is first-line for pneumoperitoneum

e)
  • Toxic megacolon is a contraindication for barium enema

14.

Q15. Paediatric Radiology

a)
  • PA chest X-ray is routine for children < 5 years old

b)
  • Acute subdural haemorrhage raises suspicion of non-accidental injury

c)
  • Inhaled foreign bodies are usually radio-opaque on plain X-ray

d)
  • Aerobilia is characteristic of necrotizing enterocolitis

e)
  • Meticulous collimation reduces radiation dose

15.

Q16. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)
  • Ultrasound is not sensitive in diagnosing liver pathology

b)
  • Percutaneous cholecystostomy is indicated for gallbladder empyema

c)
  • Nephrogenic fibrosis is most likely in renal failure

16.

Q19. Elevated Hemidiaphragm – Causes

a)
  • Hepatomegaly

b)
  • Phrenic nerve palsy

c)
  • Diaphragmatic eventration

d)
  • Pneumothorax

e)
  • Pleural effusion

17.

Q20. Radiation Safety

a)
  • Radiology is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy regardless of indication

b)
  • Minimal radiation dose is used in all patients

c)
  • Limit of ionising radiation for a patient is 20 Gy

d)
  • Collimation reduces radiation exposure

18.

Q21. Contrast Medium

a)
  • Contraindicated in toxic megacolon

b)
  • Barium suspension is used in upper and lower GI imaging

c)
  • Barium swallow is indicated for haematochezia

d)
  • IV contrast is optional for liver abscess

e)
  • Low-osmolar contrast can be used for colon anastomosis imaging

19.

Q22. Child Imaging

a)
  • Sail sign is normal in children

b)
  • Pleural effusion is a feature of transient tachypnoea of newborn (TTN)

c)
  • Extradural haemorrhage raises suspicion of non-accidental injury

d)
  • Children are more radiosensitive than adults for the same dose

20.

Q23. Abdominal Imaging

a)
  • Double-bubble sign suggests pneumoperitoneum

b)
  • Ultrasound is first-line for intestinal obstruction

c)
  • Colonic diameter is used to assess pathology

d)
  • Bowel ischaemia may cause portal venous air

21.

Q24. Widened Mediastinum – Causes

a)
  • Pericardial effusion

b)
  • Pleural effusion

c)
  • Enlarged hilar nodes

d)
  • Aortic unfolding

e)
  • Enlarged mediastinal nodes

22.

Q25. Chest X-ray (Normal Anatomy)

a)
  • Normal diaphragmatic curvature is 1.5 cm

b)
  • Right hemidiaphragm crosses anterior 6th rib at midpoint

c)
  • Left hilum is higher than right hilum

d)
  • Carina angle is < 60° (65°)

e)
  • Right descending artery should not exceed 16 mm

23.

Q26. Ultrasound

a)
  • Liver cirrhosis can be diagnosed with ultrasound

b)
  • Acoustic enhancement = reduced echogenicity adjacent to attenuating lesion

c)
  • Echogenicity is the ability to produce echo

d)
  • Curvilinear probe is used for deep structures

e)
  • High-frequency probe is used in musculoskeletal imaging

24.

Q27. Imaging Modalities

a)
  • Plain radiography is commonly used in musculoskeletal imaging

b)
  • CT and MRI are good for vascular imaging

c)
  • CT scan is best at showing bony delineation

d)
  • Ultrasound is not operator-dependent

e)
  • Barium swallow is a real-time imaging technique

25.

Q28. Contrast Media

a)
  • Air is a contrast medium

b)
  • Oral contrast does not cause allergic reactions

c)
  • IV contrast cannot be given to renal impairment patients

d)
  • Nephrogenic fibrosis does not occur in renal failure

26.

Q29. Radiation Safety

a)
  • Skin burn is a deterministic effect

b)
  • 28-day rule applies to female CT patients

c)
  • Inverse square law applies to radiation dose

d)
  • ALARA principle applies universally

e)
  • Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication

27.

Q31. GIT Imaging

a)
  • Barium follow-through is for large bowel

b)
  • Bird’s beak sign = hiatal hernia

c)
  • Three air-fluid levels = small bowel obstruction

d)
  • Left lateral decubitus = first test for pneumoperitoneum

e)
  • Toxic megacolon contraindicates barium enema

28.

Q32. Paediatric Radiology

a)
  • PA chest X-ray is routine < 5 years

b)
  • Acute subdural haemorrhage = non-accidental injury

c)
  • Inhaled FBs usually radio-opaque

d)
  • Aerobilia = necrotizing enterocolitis

e)
  • Collimation reduces dose

29.

Q33. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

Ultrasound not sensitive for liver disease

b)

Percutaneous cholecystostomy for empyema

c)

Nephrogenic fibrosis common in renal failure

30.

Q35. Ultrasound Findings in Fluid Cavity

a)

Refraction

b)

Shadowing

c)

Enhancement

d)

Reverberation

e)

Mirror image

31.

Q36. Elevated Hemidiaphragm

a)

Hepatomegaly

b)

Phrenic palsy

c)

Eventration

d)

Pneumothorax

e)

Pleural effusion

32.

Q37. Imaging

a)

CT only for head & body

b)

USG/MRI = non-radiation

c)

Most CT = no contrast

d)

XR/CT = ionising radiation

e)

Angiography = invasive

33.

Q38. Contrast Media

a)

Iodine = most used IV contrast

b)

LOCM = for anastomosis / leaks

c)

Barium suspension = GI assessment

d)

Gastrografin = GE fistula

e)

Contrast optional for liver abscess

34.

Q39. Radiation Safety

a)

Contraindicated in pregnancy

b)

Minimal dose used always

c)

Limit 20 Gy

d)

Collimation reduces dose

35.

Q40. Head & Neck Imaging

a)

XR = first-line spine

b)

MRI > CT for skull fracture

c)

Non-contrast CT for hydrocephalus

d)

Contrast MRI for brain abscess

36.

Q41. GIT Imaging

a)

Barium follow-through = large bowel

b)

Bird’s beak = hiatal hernia

c)

Three air-fluid levels = SBO

d)

Left lateral decubitus = pneumoperitoneum

e)

Toxic megacolon contraindicates barium

37.

Q42. Paediatric Imaging

a)

Sail sign = normal (3 y/o)

b)

Pleural effusion = TTN

c)

Extradural haemorrhage = non-accidental injury

d)

Children more radiosensitive

38.

Q43. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

AXR diagnoses cholelithiasis

b)

Mesenteric infarction → portal venous air

c)

USG diagnoses cirrhosis

d)

MRCP → pancreatitis

e)

Triphasic CT → hepatic pseudoaneurysm

39.

Q44. Normal CXR

a)

Diaphragm excursion = 1.5 cm

b)

Carina angle < 60°

c)

Right descending artery < 16 mm

d)

Right hemidiaphragm crosses 6th rib

e)

Left hilum higher

40.

Q45. Ultrasound

a)

Curvilinear = deep structures

b)

High freq = MSK

c)

USG = no ionising radiation

d)

Echogenicity = echo production

e)

Acoustic enhancement = reduced amplitude

41.

Q46. Widened Mediastinum Causes

a)

Mediastinal nodes

b)

Aortic unfolding

c)

Enlarged hilar nodes

d)

Pleural effusion

e)

Pericardial effusion

42.

Q47. Radiation/Waves

a)

Gamma & X-ray = EM waves

b)

Terrestrial radiation = natural source

c)

Stochastic effects = dose-dependent

d)

Non-stochastic example = radiation sickness

e)

Nuclear therapy → patient as source

43.

Q48. Contrast Media

a)

Water-soluble CM = mucosal imaging

b)

Positive CM = useful in USG (false)

c)

All positive CM = iodine

d)

Barium contraindicated in perforation

e)

Rectal contrast used in pelvic CT

44.

Q49. Imaging Modalities

a)

MRI uses ionising radiation

b)

MRI more time-consuming than CT

c)

Diagnostic US intensity = safe

d)

Angiography = real-time imaging

e)

CT cannot visualise intracranial vessels

45.

Q50. Chest Radiography

a)

Bat’s wing = pulmonary oedema

b)

Cavitation = post-primary TB

c)

Air bronchogram = pulmonary haemorrhage

d)

Sternal fractures visible in PA CXR (false)

e)

Erect film → improves pneumothorax detection

46.

Q51. Normal CXR

a)

Left atrial appendage forms cardiac margin

b)

Right hemidiaphragm apex 3 cm lower

c)

Right hilum higher

d)

PA CXR usually done supine

e)

Underpenetration → opaque film

47.

Q52. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

Cystic duct + common hepatic duct → CBD

b)

Triphasic CT → hepatic pseudoaneurysm

c)

Multiphase CT → HCC vs haemangioma

d)

MRCP → pancreatitis complication

48.

Q53. Abdominal Imaging

a)

USG diagnoses acute pancreatitis

b)

Caecum > 7 cm = abnormal

c)

Inverted V sign = LBO

d)

Barium swallow = dysphagia

e)

Pneumoperitoneum easily detected supine AXR

49.

Q54. Genitourinary Imaging

a)

Normal kidney on US excludes pyelonephritis

b)

KUB XR assesses kidney size

c)

KUB XR shows normal orientation

d)

CTU for renal trauma

e)

KUB XR detects 80–90% renal stones

50.

Q55. Newborn Imaging

a)

CXR: multiple air-filled cysts + mediastinal shift = congenital diaphragmatic hernia

b)

Extradural haemorrhage = non-accidental injury

c)

Thymus seen up to 5 years

d)

Collimation reduces dose

51.

Q56. Head & Neck Imaging

a)

MRA = choice for subarachnoid haemorrhage

b)

USG screens carotid stenosis

c)

MRI > CT for skull fracture

d)

USG screens brain abnormality in 6 y/o

e)

Crescent-shaped hyperdensity on CT = subdural haemorrhage

52.

Q57. Imaging Modalities

a)

CT rules out brain abscess & tumour

b)

Fluoroscopy & angiography use radiation

c)

Carotid Doppler uses sound waves

d)

First-line for intestinal obstruction = USG

53.

Q58. Radiological Investigations

a)

DSA is non-invasive

b)

CT contraindicated with metallic implants

c)

CT good for bone fractures

54.

Q59. Contrast Media

a)

All positive CM iodine-based

b)

MRI uses iodine contrast

c)

Dehydration = risk factor

d)

Barium used in suspected perforation

e)

Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis = gadolinium complication

55.

Q60. Head & Neck Imaging

a)

Neck lesion first-line = USG

b)

MRI delineates brain tumour

c)

CT differentiates embolic vs haemorrhagic stroke

d)

MRI delineates head/neck fractures

e)

Non-traumatic SAH → CT angiogram

56.

Q61. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

Aerobilia vs portal venous gas = same features

b)

GB wall thickening avoided with 4 hr fasting

c)

Multiplanar CT excludes tumour vs haemangioma

d)

MRCP → pancreatitis complication

e)

Percutaneous drainage not indicated in GB emphysema

57.

Q62. Abdominal Imaging

a)

Normal US kidney excludes pyelonephritis

b)

First-line IO = USG

c)

LBO = peripheral with haustrations

d)

Barium indicated in anastomotic leaks

58.

Q63. Pneumoperitoneum (Supine AXR Signs)

a)

Gas under diaphragm

b)

Double bubble sign

c)

Thumbprint sign

d)

Urachus sign

e)

Inverted T sign

59.

Q64. Paediatric Imaging

a)

Sail sign in 2 y/o = pathological

b)

Extradural haemorrhage = NAI

c)

NEC = aerobilia + pneumoperitoneum

d)

Organs in children more radiosensitive

e)

FB aspiration better on expiratory film

60.

Q65. Chest X-ray Planes

a)

Consolidation = ill-defined opacity

b)

Wide-based opacity = lung lesion

c)

Lung contusion → consolidation

61.

Q66. Chest X-ray Views

a)

Small pleural effusion better seen lateral view

b)

RML collapse better in apical view

c)

Oblique view detects rib fractures

d)

Right pneumothorax better seen in left decubitus

62.

Q67. Ionising Radiation

a)

X-ray & gamma = EM spectrum

b)

Latent period of 40 yrs for stochastic effect

c)

Stochastic severity proportional to dose

d)

AP CXR higher dose than AP abdomen

e)

Lung fibrosis = stochastic

63.

Q68. Chest Imaging

a)

CT better than XR for mediastinal mass

b)

HRCT detects PE

c)

RUL collapse typical on CXR

d)

USG has no role in loculated effusion drainage

e)

V/Q scan useful in PE

64.

Q69. Hepatobiliary Imaging

a)

Multiphase CT distinguishes tumour vs haemangioma

b)

Fasting ≥ 4 hrs avoids false GB thickening

c)

Emphysematous cholecystitis detected by USG

d)

MRCP disadvantage = no parenchymal assessment

e)

MRCP → pancreatitis complication

65.

Q70. Aerobilia – Causes

a)

Sphincterotomy

b)

Bowel ischaemia

c)

Patulous sphincter (elderly)

d)

Passage of gallstone

e)

Malignancy/trauma

66.

Q71. Pneumoperitoneum (Supine XR Signs)

a)

Rigler’s sign

b)

Football sign

c)

Ligamentum teres sign

d)

Urachus sign

e)

Lucent liver sign

67.

Q72. Imaging Modalities

a)

MRI uses ionising radiation

b)

MRI slower than CT

c)

Diagnostic US has no side effects

d)

Nuclear imaging → patient emits radiation

e)

Fluoroscopy shows real-time movement

68.

Q73. Radiation Safety

a)

28-day rule for women of childbearing age

b)

ALARA applies to staff + patients

c)

Aluminium best protection for gamma rays

69.

Q74. Brain Imaging

a)

CT detects early stroke

b)

Choroid plexus calcification = normal

c)

MRI detects SAH

d)

Basal ganglia loss = ACA haemorrhage

e)

DWI/ADC detects SAH