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Medical Pharmacology Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which antibiotic’s absorption is markedly reduced by concurrent oral iron therapy?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Cefixime

d)

Doxycycline

2.

Which antihyperlipidaemic decreases triglycerides primarily via PPAR-α activation?

a)

Statins

b)

Fibrates

c)

Bile acid sequestrants

d)

Ezetimibe

3.

Which method is most appropriate to detect latent TB infection before starting anti-TNF therapy?

a)

Chest X-ray only

b)

IGRA or Mantoux (TST) testing plus history and chest imaging

c)

No screening necessary

d)

Start therapy and monitor

4.

Which drug interaction causes decreased efficacy of hormonal contraceptives leading to failure?

a)

St. John’s Wort

b)

Cimetidine

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Erythromycin

5.

A patient with autoimmune disease needs immunosuppression but wishes to father a child soon. Which agent is least preferred due to gonadal toxicity?

a)

Azathioprine

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Low-dose prednisone

6.

Which targeted cancer therapy is a BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

a)

Imatinib

b)

Erlotinib

c)

Trastuzumab

d)

Bevacizumab

7.

Which drug class increases the risk of tendon rupture especially in elderly and corticosteroid users?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Fluoroquinolones

8.

Which protein mutation is classically associated with multi-drug resistance (MDR) via efflux of chemotherapeutics?

a)

BCR-ABL

b)

P-glycoprotein (ABCB1) overexpression

c)

EGFR mutation

d)

BRAF V600E

9.

Which cytokine blockade is targeted by tocilizumab?

a)

TNF-α

b)

IL-6 receptor

c)

IL-1 receptor

d)

CD20

10.

Which drug is a mechanism-based (suicide) inhibitor of CYP450 and can cause long-lasting interactions?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Omeprazole

11.

Which pharmacodynamic property explains why naloxone precipitates opioid withdrawal?

a)

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that displaces agonists from receptors abruptly

b)

Naloxone is a partial agonist producing withdrawal

c)

Naloxone is a long-acting opioid agonist

d)

Naloxone increases opioid receptor synthesis

12.

Which neuroleptic has the lowest risk of extrapyramidal side effects but higher metabolic adverse effects?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Clozapine

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Fluphenazine

13.

Which antibiotic requires therapeutic monitoring of peak and trough levels to avoid nephro- and ototoxicity?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Cephalexin

14.

Which analgesic is safest for a breastfeeding mother with pain?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Cephalexin

15.

Which antiemetic is associated with extrapyramidal side effects and should be used cautiously?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Domperidone

d)

Aprepitant

16.

For an elderly patient with CKD (eGFR 25 mL/min/1.73m²), which analgesic is least preferable long-term?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Naproxen

c)

Low-dose buprenorphine patch

d)

Topical diclofenac

17.

Which antiplatelet is reversible and useful when rapid offset is needed (e.g., pre-surgery)?

a)

Clopidogrel

b)

Ticagrelor

c)

Aspirin

d)

Prasugrel

18.

Which enzyme modification would most reduce formation of the active metabolite of clopidogrel?

a)

CYP3A4 inhibition

b)

CYP2C19 inhibition

c)

CYP1A2 induction

d)

Glucuronidation inhibition

19.

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of amphotericin B therapy?

a)

Nephrotoxicity and infusion-related chills/fever

b)

Ototoxicity mainly

c)

Severe hepatotoxicity primarily

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis

20.

Which drug used for chronic heart failure provides mortality benefit by neprilysin inhibition when combined with an ARB?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Sacubitril

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Dobutamine infusion

21.

Which drug is used to reverse the effects of dabigatran in major bleeding?

a)

Idarucizumab

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Andexanet alfa

22.

Which anti-TB drug causes optic neuritis requiring visual acuity monitoring?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Idarucizumab (a monoclonal antibody fragment)

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Andexanet alfa (for factor Xa inhibitors)

23.

What is the principal mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

Rifampicin

24.

Which drug is associated with severe hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis and is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Activate GLP-1 receptor

b)

Block ATP-sensitive K+ channels on pancreatic β-cells

c)

Increase insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues exclusively

d)

Inhibit α-glucosidase in intestine

25.

Which inhaled anesthetic is associated with the highest risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

a)

Ribavirin

b)

Isotretinoin

c)

Methimazole

d)

Valproate

26.

Which drug is most appropriate for Parkinson’s disease tremor predominant in an elderly patient with urinary retention?

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Propofol

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Thiopental

27.

Which pharmacological property is most important for CNS penetration?

a)

Trihexyphenidyl

b)

Levodopa/carbidopa

c)

Amantadine only

d)

Deep brain stimulation

28.

Which laboratory parameter best monitors heparin therapy in most hospitals (unfractionated heparin)?

a)

PT/INR

b)

aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

Platelet count only

29.

In pharmacokinetics, clearance (CL) equals:

a)

Vd × elimination rate constant (k)

b)

Half-life × Vd

c)

Bioavailability × dose

d)

Area under curve / dose

30.

Which mechanism explains ACE inhibitor–induced angioedema?

a)

Bradykinin accumulation increasing vascular permeability

b)

IgE-mediated allergic reaction exclusively

c)

Direct mast cell degranulation only

d)

Complement activation only

31.

Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in patients with long QT syndrome?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Sotalol

c)

Adenosine

d)

Digoxin

32.

Which antiviral for hepatitis C is a NS5A inhibitor?

a)

Sofosbuvir

b)

Daclatasvir

c)

Interferon-alpha

d)

Ribavirin

33.

Which agent is associated with severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SJS/TEN) particularly in HLA-B*1502 carriers?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Levetiracetam

c)

Valproate

d)

Gabapentin

34.

Which drug requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to narrow therapeutic index and non-linear kinetics?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Levetiracetam

35.

Which antibiotic’s toxicity is potentiated by concurrent loop diuretics leading to ototoxicity?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Azithromycin

36.

Which drug is recommended as the first-line agent for acute gout flare?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Colchicine

c)

Febuxostat

d)

Probenecid

37.

Which antiarrhythmic is safest in patients with structural heart disease (reduced proarrhythmia risk)?

a)

Flecainide

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Quinidine

d)

Dofetilide

38.

Which drug pair poses the highest risk of serotonin syndrome?

a)

Sertraline + tramadol

b)

Amitriptyline + warfarin

c)

Fluoxetine + metoprolol

d)

Citalopram + calcium channel blocker

39.

Which pharmacologic strategy is most appropriate to prevent methotrexate toxicity in high-dose chemotherapy?

a)

Give folic acid concurrently at full dose

b)

Leucovorin

c)

No rescue required

d)

Increase methotrexate dose further

40.

Which target is inhibited by monoclonal antibody pembrolizumab used in oncology?

a)

VEGF

b)

PD-1 immune checkpoint receptor

c)

HER2 receptor

d)

EGFR

41.

Which anti-cancer drug’s cardiotoxicity is mediated by free radical generation and is dose-limited?

a)

Cisplatin

b)

Doxorubicin

c)

Vincristine

42.

Which antifungal interacts seriously with statins causing rhabdomyolysis?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Itraconazole/ketoconazole

c)

Nystatin

d)

Terbinafine

43.

Which receptor mechanism best explains tachyphylaxis to repeated doses of nasal decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline)?

a)

Receptor down-regulation

b)

Receptor up-regulation

c)

Receptor desensitization/internalization

d)

Increased second-messenger generation

44.

Which trial design feature minimizes selection bias by ensuring blinding of allocation until participants are enrolled?

a)

Open-label randomization

b)

Allocation concealment

c)

Per-protocol analysis

d)

Post-hoc subgroup analysis

45.

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in children under 8 years because of permanent tooth discoloration?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Trimethoprim

46.

A neonate develops apnea after maternal administration of an analgesic during labor. Which drug is most likely responsible?

a)

Meperidine

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Amoxicillin

47.

Which opioid is a partial agonist at μ receptor and has ceiling effect for respiratory depression?

a)

Methadone

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Oxycodone

48.

Which antiarrhythmic exhibits reverse-use dependence (greater APD prolongation at slower heart rates) increasing torsades risk?

a)

Methadone

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Morphine

e)

Sotalol

49.

Which analgesic is most likely to precipitate asthma exacerbation in aspirin-sensitive individuals?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Aspirin

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Ibuprofen

50.

Which glucose-lowering agent reduces cardiovascular mortality in patients with established atherosclerotic CVD?

a)

Glimepiride

b)

Pioglitazone

c)

Empagliflozin

d)

Acarbose

51.

Which vaccine type is contraindicated in severe immunosuppression?

a)

Live-attenuated vaccines (e.g., MMR)

b)

Inactivated vaccines

c)

Conjugate vaccines

d)

Recombinant subunit vaccines

52.

Which antiviral requires dose adjustment in renal impairment due to renal excretion?

a)

A. Acyclovir

b)

B. Zidovudine

c)

C. Nevirapine

d)

D. Efavirenz

53.

Which drug is a direct oral anticoagulant that inhibits factor Xa?

a)

Dabigatran

b)

Rivaroxaban

c)

Heparin

d)

Warfarin

54.

Which pharmacological strategy minimizes opioid-induced constipation without reversing analgesia?

a)

Use of peripherally acting mu-opioid receptor antagonists (PAMORAs)

b)

Administration of naloxone

c)

Increasing opioid dosage

d)

Switching to non-opioid analgesics

55.

Which of the following is the hallmark lab abnormality in tumor lysis syndrome?

a)

Systemic naloxone infusion

b)

Peripheral μ-opioid receptor antagonists

c)

Increase opioid dose

d)

Add benzodiazepine

56.

In elderly patients, which pharmacokinetic change commonly increases drug sensitivity?

a)

Hypouricemia

b)

Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia

c)

Isolated hyponatremia only

d)

Hypokalemia

57.

A patient on chronic statin therapy is started on diltiazem. Which adverse reaction should be anticipated?

a)

Increased renal clearance

b)

Increased Vd for hydrophilic drugs

c)

Decreased hepatic metabolism and reduced clearance

d)

Faster gastric emptying

58.

Which drug is most likely to cause drug-induced lupus?

a)

Increased risk of statin-induced myopathy

b)

Increased LDL cholesterol

c)

Statin withdrawal syndrome

d)

Hypoglycaemia

59.

Which CNS stimulant is approved for narcolepsy and has abuse potential?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Omeprazole

60.

Which drug reduces mortality in systolic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction when added to standard therapy?

a)

Modafinil

b)

Methylphenidate / amphetamines

c)

Baclofen

d)

Pregabalin

61.

Which cancer chemotherapy agent causes peripheral neuropathy predominantly by microtubule stabilization?

a)

Cisplatin (neurotoxicity by other mechanisms)

b)

Paclitaxel (taxanes: microtubule stabilization causing neuropathy)

c)

Doxorubicin

d)

Methotrexate

62.

Which anticonvulsant is most associated with aplastic anemia and therefore used cautiously?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Ethosuximide

c)

Valproate

d)

Lamotrigine

63.

Which statin has the least CYP3A4-mediated interactions and is preferred with potent CYP3A4 inhibitors?

a)

Simvastatin

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Rosuvastatin

d)

Lovastatin

64.

Which antiplatelet agent irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 receptor?

a)

Ticagrelor

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Cangrelor

d)

Dipyridamole

65.

Which antimicrobial combination is antagonistic in vitro when bactericidal activity is required?

a)

Penicillin + gentamicin

b)

Chloramphenicol + penicillin

c)

TMP-SMX (synergy)

d)

Piperacillin + tazobactam

66.

Which antibiotic is associated with QT prolongation and torsades de pointes?

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Amoxicillin