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Abdomen Final Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ultrasound contrast agents are used for:

a)

Help reduce or eliminate current limitations of ultrasound and doppler blood flow detection

b)

Treating infections detected by ultrasound

c)

Reducing the noise in ultrasound machines

d)

Measuring bone density with ultrasound

2.

The microbubbles of contrast agents are made up of:

a)

gas enclosed in a shell

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

plasma

3.

Harmonic imaging works by:

a)

Utilizing the nonlinear behavior of tissues to generate higher frequency echoes for improved image quality.

b)

Using only the fundamental frequency of the ultrasound wave for imaging.

c)

Applying contrast agents to enhance the visibility of blood vessels.

d)

Relying solely on Doppler effect for tissue characterization.

4.

How can we avoid the microbubbles being destroyed?

a)

Low acoustic power according to MI

b)

By increasing agitation and exposure to sunlight

c)

By adding strong acids to the solution

d)

By freezing the microbubbles rapidly

5.

Contraindications for an ultrasound-guided interventional procedure include which of the following?

a)

patient declines procedure

b)

bleeding disorder

c)

lack of safe path for needle

d)

uncooperative patient

6.

The type of equipment used for a core biopsy and an FNA is:

a)

A core needle for core biopsy and a fine needle for FNA

b)

A scalpel for both procedures

c)

A vacuum device for both procedures

d)

A laser probe for core biopsy and a syringe for FNA

7.

The advantages of using ultrasound guidance during a procedure include:

a)

Improved visualization of anatomical structures

b)

various positioning / angles

c)

comfort the patient

d)

lack or radiation

e)

portable and shorter time

8.

An inconclusive result during a procedure could be caused by:

a)

insufficient sample size

b)

accurate measurements

c)

necrotic tissue in sample

d)

wrong amount of tissue

9.

Select the correct order of the steps for an ultrasound-guided procedure.

a)

Patient positioning, probe placement, image acquisition, needle insertion

b)

Needle insertion, image acquisition, probe placement, patient positioning

c)

Image acquisition, patient positioning, probe placement, needle insertion

d)

Probe placement, needle insertion, patient positioning, image acquisition

10.

What might cause a needle to deviate during a procedure?

a)

Tissue the needle is trying to pass through, watch the needle for bending

b)

The color of the needle

c)

The temperature of the room

d)

The type of gloves worn by the practitioner

11.

What is a gastric bezoar?

a)

Trichobezoars- hair balls in young women; Phytobezoars- vegetable matter; Concretions- inorganic materials (sand, gravel, etc.)

b)

A type of stomach ulcer caused by bacteria

c)

A benign tumor found in the stomach lining

d)

A digestive enzyme produced in the stomach

12.

What is the normal shape and echogenicity of the spleen?

a)

Half moon shaped with homogeneous and slightly hyperechoic compared to the liver

b)

Oval shaped with heterogeneous and hypoechoic compared to the liver

c)

Round shaped with anechoic texture

d)

Irregular shaped with mixed echogenicity

13.

What is Crohn disease?

a)

A recurrent granulomatous inflammatory disease that affects the terminal ileum and/or colon, regional enteritis

b)

A viral infection of the liver

c)

A genetic disorder causing excessive mucus production

d)

A degenerative neurological condition

14.

What is a leiomyosarcoma?

a)

A rare, malignant tumor originating from smooth muscle cells within the stomach wall, unpredictable and highly resistant

b)

A benign tumor arising from adipose tissue

c)

A malignant tumor of the lymphatic system

d)

A cancer originating from epithelial cells

15.

Describe pseudomyxoma peritonei.

a)

Caused by cancerous cells that produce excessive mucin, gelatinous ascites, with tumors that cause fibrosis of tissue. Digestion is impeded. If left untreated, tumors and mucin will fill the abdominal cavity, and can be lethal. Organs can become compressed and function is destroyed.

b)

A rare autoimmune disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness and skin rash, primarily affecting the limbs and face.

c)

A congenital metabolic disorder resulting in the accumulation of copper in the liver, brain, and other vital organs.

d)

A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that causes ulcers in the lining of the large intestine and rectum.

16.

How accurate is contrast enhanced ultrasound when differentiating between benign and malignant masses?

a)

can confirm characteristics of malignancy

b)

Low accuracy

c)

can confirm characteristics of benign

d)

high accuracy

17.

What is bilirubin?

a)

Forms when blood cells breakdown (important to detox liver); Bilirubin is the main pigment in bile

b)

A hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar levels

c)

A protein responsible for oxygen transport in the blood

d)

An enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates in the mouth

18.

Describe the ultrasound appearance of the portal veins vs the hepatic veins.

a)

Portal veins are more echogenic

b)

Portal veins are less echogenic

c)

Portal veins are not visible on ultrasound

d)

Portal veins and hepatic veins have identical echogenicity

19.

How is the main portal vein formed?

a)

Union of SMV and splenic vein

b)

Union of IVC and hepatic vein

c)

Union of renal vein and splenic vein

d)

Union of SMV and renal vein

20.

Describe Morrison’s pouch.

a)

Between right lobe and right kidney; First place for fluid will accumulate

b)

Between spleen and left kidney; Common site for abscess

c)

Between bladder and uterus; Site for ectopic pregnancy

d)

Between pancreas and duodenum; Site for pseudocyst formation

21.

What is Glisson’s capsule?

a)

Surrounds the liver

b)

Surrounds the heart

c)

Surrounds the kidney

d)

Surrounds the spleen

22.

Describe fatty infiltration.

a)

Increased accumulation of lipids within liver cells; Acquired and reversible

b)

Decreased lipid content in liver cells; Congenital and irreversible; Causes: malnutrition, acute infection, and vitamin deficiency

c)

Increased protein accumulation in liver cells; Acquired and reversible; Causes: excessive protein intake, chronic infection, and autoimmune disorders

d)

Decreased accumulation of carbohydrates in liver cells; Acquired and reversible; Causes: fasting, dehydration, and excessive exercise

23.

What are the signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Severe epigastric pain that radiates to back, nausea and vomiting, malaise, abdominal distension, fever, jaundice, and history of gallstones and alcohol abuse

b)

Mild right lower quadrant pain, constipation, and weight gain

c)

Chronic cough, hemoptysis, and night sweats

d)

Intermittent chest pain relieved by rest, palpitations, and syncope

24.

Which structures divide the liver into right and left lobes?

a)

Middle hepatic vein and falciform ligament

b)

Round ligament and ligamentum venosum

c)

Inferior vena cava and gallbladder fossa

d)

Right hepatic vein and caudate lobe

25.

What does amylase do?

a)

Breaks down a complex carbohydrate, into simpler sugars like glucose, which the body can then use for energy

b)

Transports oxygen in the blood

c)

Breaks down proteins into amino acids

d)

Helps in the clotting of blood

26.

The risk factors for pancreatic carcinoma are:

a)

Blacks, Males, Diet high in fat, smoking, Family history correlation, Chronic pancreatitis, and more common after 60

b)

Young age, vegetarian diet, regular exercise, and low BMI

c)

Females, low-fat diet, non-smokers, and no family history

d)

Children, high fiber diet, absence of chronic diseases, and early diagnosis

27.

What does glucagon do in the body?

a)

Increase blood glucose levels, counteracts insulin

b)

Decrease blood glucose levels, mimics insulin

c)

Promotes fat storage, lowers metabolism

d)

Suppresses appetite, increases insulin secretion

28.

Which lab values are associated with HCC?

a)

LFT normal or elevated and AFP may be elevated

b)

LFT always decreased and AFP always normal

c)

LFT normal and AFP always decreased

d)

LFT always elevated and AFP always decreased

29.

What landmark can be used to identify the caudate lobe of the liver?

a)

Located posterior superior surface of the right lobe; Landmarks include: IVC, ligamentum venosum, and left lobe

b)

Located anterior to the gallbladder; Landmarks include: portal vein and hepatic artery

c)

Located inferior to the left lobe; Landmarks include: falciform ligament and round ligament

d)

Located adjacent to the spleen; Landmarks include: splenic vein and pancreatic tail

30.

Describe an amoebic abscess and what you might see on ultrasound.

a)

Contracted by ingestion of ameba in food or water; Subcapsular, low amplitude cyst fill in, thickened irregular walls, and good through transmission

b)

Caused by viral infection; Appears as a solid mass with calcifications and shadowing

c)

Results from bacterial infection; Presents as multiple small hyperechoic nodules with no through transmission

d)

Due to fungal infection; Shows a well-defined anechoic lesion with posterior shadowing

31.

31. An intercostal image of the main portal vein is taken to:

a)

Avoid bowel gas interference

b)

Enhance color Doppler signals

c)

Reduce patient discomfort

d)

Increase image magnification

32.

The ligamentum teres used to be UMBILICAL VEIN in fetal life, and it can be found in the ___________ in the adult.

a)

liver

b)

ligamentum venousm

c)

falciform ligament

d)

body

33.

The ultrasound appearance of a cavernous hemangioma is:

a)

A well-defined, hyperechoic lesion with possible posterior acoustic enhancement

b)

A poorly defined, hypoechoic mass with irregular borders

c)

classically round, highly echoic, well defined, solid mass, posterior enhancement, homogenous, and avascular

d)

A solid, hypoechoic mass with calcifications

34.

The _____________ is an echogenic line that connects the GB and the PV on ultrasound.

a)

main lobar fissure

b)

ligamentum teres

c)

porta hepatis

d)

hepatic vein

35.

The vessels that are part of the portal triad include:

a)

hepatic artery, portal vein, bile duct

b)

hepatic vein, portal vein, bile duct

c)

hepatic artery, hepatic vein, bile duct

d)

hepatic artery, portal vein, lymphatic vessel

36.

What does the ligamentum terms look like on US

a)

It appears as a hyperechoic linear structure and is found by identifying the falciform ligament.

b)

It appears as a hypoechoic round mass and is found near the gallbladder.

c)

Triangle in LL inferior to LPV

d)

It appears as a hyperechoic dot and is found in the spleen.

37.

The direction in which blood should be flowing in the portal vein is:

a)

From the gastrointestinal tract to the liver

b)

Towards the liver (hepatopetal)

c)

From the heart to the portal vein

d)

From the kidneys to the liver

38.

What is the normal measurement for the liver?

a)

13-15 cm

b)

8-10 cm

c)

18-20 cm

d)

20-25 cm

39.

What is the normal measurement for the portal vein?

a)

No greater than 13 mm

b)

No greater than 20 mm

c)

No greater than 8 mm

d)

No greater than 18 mm

40.

What is the normal measurement for the splenic vein?

a)

No greater than 10 mm

b)

No greater than 20 mm

c)

No greater than 5 mm

d)

No greater than 15 mm

41.

What is the normal measurement for the SMA?

a)

No greater than 10 mm

b)

No greater than 20 mm

c)

No greater than 5 mm

d)

No greater than 15 mm

42.

What is the normal measurement for the GB wall?

a)

Less than 3 mm

b)

Less than 5 mm

c)

More than 3 mm

d)

More than 5 mm

43.

What is the normal measurement for the pancreas head?

a)

3.5 cm or less AP

b)

5.0 cm or less AP

c)

2.0 cm or less AP

d)

4.5 cm or less AP

44.

What is the normal measurement for the pancreas neck?

a)

1.0-2.0 cm or less AP

b)

2.5-3.5 cm AP

c)

0.2-0.5 cm AP

d)

3.0-4.0 cm AP

45.

What is the normal measurement for the pancreas body?

a)

2.5 cm or less AP

b)

4.0 cm or less AP

c)

1.0 cm or less AP

d)

3.5 cm or less AP

46.

What is the normal measurement for the pancreas tail?

a)

2.5 cm or less AP

b)

4.0 cm or less AP

c)

1.0 cm or less AP

d)

3.5 cm or less AP

47.

What is the normal measurement for the pancreatic duct?

a)

3 mm for head, 2 mm for body

b)

5 mm for head, 4 mm for body

c)

1 mm for head, 0.5 mm for body

d)

6 mm for head, 3 mm for body

48.

What is the normal measurement for the spleen?

a)

8-13 cm

b)

2-5 cm

c)

15-20 cm

d)

20-25 cm

49.

What is the normal measurement for the appendix?

a)

2-20 cm in length

b)

5-30 cm in length

c)

0.5-1 cm in length

d)

10-50 cm in length

50.

The structures that divide the liver into segments are:

a)

Hepatic veins

b)

Hepatic and Portal Veins

c)

Bile ducts

d)

Central veins

51.

Acute hepatitis shows which ultrasound sign?

(a)  

52.

What is a porcelain GB?

a)

Rare, calcium incrustation of the GB wall

b)

Form of chronic cholecystitis

53.

What is the ultrasound appearance of fatty infiltration?

a)

hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity, granular texture, obscurity of portal veins, paucity of hepatic vessels, liver/kidney echo brightness disparity, and difficulty in penetration

b)

hypoechoic liver with prominent hepatic veins and normal kidney-liver contrast

c)

multiple cystic lesions scattered throughout the liver parenchyma

d)

well-defined hyperechoic mass with posterior acoustic shadowing

54.

What is the ultrasound sign associated with choledochal cysts?

a)

string of beads with type 5

b)

The ultrasound image shows multiple gallstones within the gallbladder.

c)

The ultrasound image shows a thickened gallbladder wall with pericholecystic fluid.

d)

The ultrasound image shows a dilated pancreatic duct with no cystic structure.

55.

Which liver pathology is associated with oral contraceptive use?

a)
Hepatic adenoma
b)

Liver cell adenoma and focal nodular hyperplasia

c)
Cirrhosis
d)
Fatty liver disease
56.

Which lab value is most associated with bile duct obstruction?

a)
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
b)
Albumin
c)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
d)
Bilirubin
57.

When the main portal vein is dilated, what pathology should you be suspicious of?

a)

Portal hypertension

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Renal artery stenosis

d)

Pancreatitis

58.

A TIPS shunt on ultrasound appears as which of the following?

a)

A hyperechoic tubular structure connecting the portal and hepatic veins

b)

A cystic lesion in the liver parenchyma

c)

A solid mass with irregular borders

d)

A hypoechoic area in the gallbladder wall

59.

What is hepatic candidiasis?

a)

Liver complication in HIV or other immunocompromised patients

b)

A type of lung infection caused by bacteria

c)

A genetic disorder affecting the kidneys

d)

A neurological disorder causing seizures

60.

What do the acinar cells of the pancreas do?

a)

Secrete digestive enzymes (exocrine)

b)

Produce insulin (endocrine)

c)

Store bile

d)

Filter blood

61.

In a sagittal view of the pancreas, which blood vessel should you see open fully in a horizontal plane?

a)

Splenic vein

b)

Superior mesenteric vein

c)

Portal vein

d)

Inferior vena cava

62.

What do the Islets of Langerhans cells of the pancreas do?

a)

Allows hormones to be distributed throughout the body to stimulate other organs or functional units (endocrine)

b)

Produce digestive enzymes for the breakdown of food (exocrine)

c)

Store bile for fat emulsification

d)

Absorb nutrients from digested food

63.

How is the biliary tree affected by a pancreatic head mass?

a)

Obstructing flow through CBD

b)

Causing dilation of the pancreatic duct only

c)

Increasing bile production

d)

Reducing blood supply to the liver

64.

What are the other names of the pancreatic ducts?

a)

Wirsung - main

b)

Santorini - accessory

c)

Oddi - sphincter

d)

Luschka - minor

65.

What is the most common variant of the GB (gallbladder)?

a)

Junctional fold (Hartmann's pouch) - body and infundibulum

b)

Phrygian cap - fundus

c)

Septate gallbladder

d)

Double gallbladder

66.

What are the causes of GB wall thickening? Bile duct wall thickening?

a)

Obstruction causes back up of bile, inflammation, infection, then thickened walls

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Diabetes Insipidus

d)

Asthma

67.

Describe the Murphy sign.

a)

Rebound tenderness over the GB area

b)

Pain relieved by eating fatty foods

c)

Jaundice with pruritus

d)

Palpable mass in the left lower quadrant

68.

Describe the WES sign.

a)

Wall echo shadow or double arc shadow sign; 2 parallel curved echogenic lines separated by thin anechoic space with distal shadowing; Contract GB containing stones

b)

Well-defined hypoechoic mass in the liver with central scar

c)

Multiple cystic lesions in the kidney with thin septations

d)

Thickened gallbladder wall with pericholecystic fluid

69.

What is adenomyomatosis? What does it look like on ultrasound?

a)

Benign proliferation of GB wall tissue; Comet tail

b)

Malignant tumor of the pancreas; Hypoechoic mass

c)

Inflammation of the liver; Increased echogenicity

d)

Gallstone formation; Acoustic shadowing

70.

Where would you find a Klatskin tumor?

a)

Bifurcation where the left and right hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct

b)

Head of the pancreas

c)

Lower esophagus

d)

Ileocecal valve

71.

Where is the proximal and distal most portions of the biliary tree?

a)

Proximal: intrahepatic bile ducts; Distal: Distal CBD near the Ampulla of Vater

b)

Proximal: gallbladder; Distal: hepatic ducts

c)

Proximal: cystic duct; Distal: common hepatic duct

d)

Proximal: pancreatic duct; Distal: intrahepatic bile ducts

72.

Describe the ultrasound appearance of cholelithiasis.

a)

Echogenic material within bile duct, shadowing, can be mobile or nonmobile; Dilated bile ducts.

b)

Anechoic cystic structure with thin walls and posterior enhancement.

c)

Homogeneous hypoechoic mass with increased vascularity.

d)

Irregular hyperechoic lesion with no shadowing and no mobility.

73.

What is a Phrygian cap?

a)

Fold between fundus and body of gallbladder.

b)

Congenital absence of the gallbladder.

c)

A type of liver cyst.

d)

A fold in the duodenum.

74.

What is a thickened substance that is found in the GB which may create a fluid/fluid level appearance?

a)

Sludge.

b)

Gallstones.

c)

Bile duct stricture.

d)

Polyp.

75.

What are the valves of Heister and where would you find them?

a)

Found within cystic duct; Keep duct from kinking.

b)

Located in the hepatic artery; Regulate blood flow to liver.

c)

Present in the common bile duct; Prevent backflow of bile.

d)

Found in the pancreatic duct; Control enzyme release.

76.

The ultrasound appearance of pneumobilia is best described as:

a)

Echogenic foci with dirty shadowing and reverberation artifacts in the biliary tree

b)

Anechoic tubular structures within the liver

c)

Homogeneous hypoechoic areas in the gallbladder wall

d)

Multiple cystic lesions in the liver parenchyma

77.

Describe white and red pulp of the spleen.

a)

Red- more abundant than white, consists of branching venous sinuses, contains lymphocytes, macrophages, and RBC. White- round masses are scattered through red pulp, surrounds an arteriole, composed of malpighian corpuscles and lymphatic follicles, and large numbers do not contain RBC.

b)

Red- less abundant than white, contains only lymphocytes, no venous sinuses. White- forms the outer capsule of spleen, contains only RBC.

c)

Red- forms the capsule of spleen, contains only connective tissue. White- found only in the center, contains only plasma cells.

d)

Red- contains only arteries and veins, no lymphatic tissue. White- consists of adipose tissue and fibroblasts.

78.

What is an ectopic spleen called?

a)

Wandering spleen, aberrant spleen, and floating spleen.

b)

Accessory spleen, horseshoe spleen, and splenunculus.

c)

Splenomegaly, hypersplenism, and asplenia.

d)

Polysplenia, hyposplenia, and splenic infarct.

79.

Describe a pancreatic phlegmon.

a)

An inflammatory process that spreads along fascial pathways.

b)

A benign tumor of the pancreas.

c)

A cystic lesion filled with pancreatic enzymes.

d)

A congenital abnormality of the pancreatic duct.

80.

Which pathologies would you see the starry sky sign with?

a)

Pneumocystis carinii

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Hepatitis

d)

Emphysema

81.

What is an accessory spleen?

a)

Variant; More common and can be found throughout body, usually in hilum of spleen (30% of patients).

b)

Congenital absence of the spleen.

c)

A malignant tumor of the spleen.

d)

A cystic lesion found only in the liver.

82.

What is another term for elevated white blood cells?

a)

Leukocytosis.

b)

Anemia.

c)

Thrombocytopenia.

d)

Erythrocytosis.

83.

What might be the cause of a splenic infarct?

a)

Emboli usually originates in heart (ventricular fibrillation).

b)

Vitamin B12 deficiency.

c)

Gallstones in the bile duct.

d)

Chronic pancreatitis.

84.

How could splenic torsion happen?

a)

Wandering or ectopic spleen (migrates); Due to lacking normal peritoneal attachments.

b)

Excessive iron accumulation in the spleen.

c)

Direct trauma to the spleen only.

d)

Congenital absence of the spleen.

85.

Describe an angiosarcoma.

a)

Rare, large; Malignant; Anemia usually present, mets to liver; US appearance similar to hemangioma

b)

Common, small; Benign; No anemia, no metastasis; US appearance always cystic

c)

Always benign; Associated with high WBC count; Never metastasizes; US appearance is hyperechoic

d)

Frequently found in children; Always causes jaundice; US appearance is calcified

86.

What is the greater omentum?

a)

a large apron-like fold of visceral peritoneum that hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach and the transverse colon

b)

a muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities

c)

a ligament connecting the liver to the diaphragm

d)

a membrane covering the lungs

87.

Which ultrasound signs might be seen with biliary obstruction?

a)

Antler or stellate branching, parallel channel sign, shotgun sign, and too many tubes sign

b)

Double bubble sign, target sign, and coffee bean sign

c)

String of pearls sign, whirlpool sign, and crescent sign

d)

Snowstorm appearance, comet tail artifact, and ring-down artifact

88.

What is the difference between a thoracentesis and a paracentesis?

a)

Thoracentesis involves removing fluid from the pleural space (around the lungs), while paracentesis removes fluid from the abdominal cavity (ascites)

b)

Thoracentesis is used to treat kidney stones, while paracentesis is used to treat gallstones

c)

Thoracentesis removes air from the stomach, while paracentesis removes air from the lungs

d)

Thoracentesis and paracentesis are both procedures to remove blood clots from arteries

89.

What is cirrhosis?

a)

Cirrhosis is a diffuse process in which liver parenchyma is replaced by fibrous and abnormal nodules. It is irreversible and progressive

b)

Cirrhosis is an acute infection of the liver caused by a bacterial pathogen, leading to rapid liver enlargement and high fever.

c)

Cirrhosis is a benign tumor of the liver that is usually asymptomatic and does not affect liver function.

d)

Cirrhosis is a temporary inflammation of the liver that resolves without any long-term effects.

90.

What is the most common form of glycogen storage disease?

a)

Von Gierke’s disease

b)

Pompe disease

c)

Cori disease

d)

Andersen disease

91.

Which ligaments attach the spleen to the stomach and the left kidney?

a)

Gastrosplenic attaches the spleen to the greater curvature of the stomach; Splenorenal to left kidney

b)

Falciform attaches the spleen to the diaphragm; Hepatogastric to left kidney

c)

Round ligament attaches the spleen to the pancreas; Splenocolic to left kidney

d)

Lienorenal attaches the spleen to the liver; Gastrophrenic to left kidney

92.

What is Budd Chiari syndrome?

a)

Segmental obstruction of hepatic portion of IVC and dilated hepatic veins

b)

Budd Chiari syndrome is a condition caused by obstruction of the renal arteries.

c)

Budd Chiari syndrome is a condition caused by infection of the gallbladder.

d)

Budd Chiari syndrome is a condition caused by inflammation of the pancreas.

93.

Where is the appendix usually found on the body? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Right lower quadrant/ right iliac-Abdominal wall under McBurney’s point- between umbilicus and anterior iliac crest

b)

Left upper quadrant- below the rib cage

c)

Right upper quadrant- near the liver

d)

Left lower quadrant- near the sigmoid colon

94.

Causes of fatty infiltration

a)

obesity, chronic ETHO abuse, hyperlipidemia

b)

diabetes, excess corticosteroids, pregnancy

c)

sever hepatitis, glycogen storage disease, CF, and pharmaceutical

d)

epigastric pain, gas, jaundice

e)

weight loss, nausea, and vomiting