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FULL MICRO 0

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You just got your first job at a big company. They offer to match the money you put in a retirement account. Which account is this?

a)
Health Savings Account
b)
IRA account
c)
Brokerage account
d)
401(k) plan
2.

You work for a non-profit hospital. Instead of a 401(k), what retirement savings plan will you likely be offered?

a)
403(b) plan
b)
401(k) plan
c)
Roth IRA
d)
Pension plan
3.

You set up a retirement account on your own (not through an employer). Which account is this?

a)
401(k) Plan
b)
Individual Retirement Account (IRA)
c)
Roth 401(k)
d)
Health Savings Account (HSA)
4.

You want an account where contributions are tax-deductible now and withdrawals in retirement are taxed. Which do you choose?

a)
Traditional IRA
b)
Brokerage Account
c)
Health Savings Account
d)
Roth IRA
5.

You want to pay taxes now but have tax-free withdrawals later. Which do you choose?

a)
Roth IRA
b)
Taxable Brokerage Account
c)
Health Savings Account
d)
Traditional IRA
6.

You want to save money for your child’s education with tax benefits. Which account do you use?

a)
Roth IRA
b)
Traditional Savings Account
c)

529 Plan

d)
Health Savings Account
7.

You’re worried about future healthcare costs and want an account where contributions and growth are tax-free if used for medical expenses. What’s the account?

a)
Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA)
b)
Retirement Account (IRA)
c)
Health Savings Account (HSA)
d)
Flexible Spending Account (FSA)
8.

You put $5,000 into a savings account that pays 2% interest. How much do you earn after one year (ignoring taxes)?

a)
$100
b)
$200
c)
$250
d)
$50
9.

You lock $1,000 into a CD for 3 years at 4% interest. What happens if you withdraw after 1 year?

a)
You may incur an early withdrawal penalty and receive less than the full interest earned.
b)
Your principal amount will double after 1 year.
c)
You can withdraw without any fees after 1 year.
d)
You will receive the full interest earned without penalties.
10.

You buy a U.S. Government Bond for $1,000 that matures in 10 years. What makes it safer than corporate bonds?

a)
Corporate bonds have higher interest rates than government bonds.
b)
U.S. Government Bonds are issued by private companies.
c)
Corporate bonds are guaranteed by insurance companies.
d)
U.S. Government Bonds are safer because they are backed by the U.S. government, reducing the risk of default.
11.

A company issues bonds, but if they go bankrupt you may not get your money back. What bond is this?

a)
Junk bonds
b)
Government bonds
c)
Convertible bonds
d)
Zero-coupon bonds
12.

You buy a share of Apple stock. Apple’s profits rise, and the value of your share increases. What type of investment is this?

a)
Bond investment
b)
Real estate investment
c)
Commodity investment
d)

Stock investment

13.

Instead of picking just one stock, you invest in a fund that spreads your money across 100 companies. What investment is this?

a)
real estate investment trust (REIT)
b)
individual stock
c)
bonds
d)
mutual fund or exchange-traded fund (ETF)
14.

You decide to invest in crypto because you think the price will skyrocket. What kind of investment risk is this?

a)
Market risk
b)
Speculative risk
c)
Credit risk
d)
Liquidity risk
15.

Your car insurance says you must pay the first $500 of damages before insurance covers the rest. What is that $500 called?

a)
deductible
b)
coverage limit
c)
co-payment
d)
premium
16.

You pay $150 per month for car insurance even if you don’t get into an accident. What is this $150 called?

a)
premium
b)
coverage fee
c)
co-pay
d)
deductible
17.

You cause an accident and the other driver sues you for injuries. Which part of your car insurance covers their medical bills?

a)
Bodily injury liability coverage
b)
Personal injury protection
c)
Collision coverage
d)
Comprehensive coverage
18.

Your car is stolen, and you file a claim. Which type of coverage pays you back?

a)
Liability coverage
b)
Collision coverage
c)
Personal injury protection
d)
Comprehensive coverage
19.

You get into a crash and your own medical bills need to be covered (regardless of fault). What coverage helps with this?

a)
Comprehensive Coverage
b)
Liability Coverage
c)
Collision Coverage
d)
Personal Injury Protection (PIP) or Medical Payments Coverage (MedPay)
20.

You’re 22, healthy, and your employer offers health insurance. You choose a plan with low monthly premiums but high deductibles. What type of plan is this?

a)
High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP)
b)
Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
c)
Comprehensive Health Plan
d)
Low Deductible Health Plan (LDHP)
21.

Which health account is only available if you have a high-deductible plan but lets you save money tax-free for medical expenses?

a)
Health Savings Account (HSA)
b)
Flexible Spending Account (FSA)
c)
Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA)
d)
Dependent Care Account (DCA)
22.

You want an account for medical expenses that your employer gives you each year but you lose it if you don’t spend it. Which is it?

a)
Flexible Spending Account (FSA)
b)
Health Savings Account (HSA)
c)
Dependent Care Account (DCA)
d)
Retirement Savings Account (RSA)
23.

A life insurance policy pays only if you die during a certain period (e.g., 20 years). What is it called?

a)
Whole life insurance
b)
Universal life insurance
c)
Variable life insurance
d)
Term life insurance
24.

A life insurance policy covers you for your whole life and builds cash value. What is it called?

a)
variable life insurance
b)
universal life insurance
c)
term life insurance
d)
whole life insurance
25.

You rent an apartment, and a fire damages your furniture. Which insurance protects your belongings?

a)
Health insurance
b)
Auto insurance
c)
Renters insurance
d)
Homeowners insurance
26.

A tree falls on your house during a storm. Which insurance covers repairs?

a)
Auto insurance
b)
Health insurance
c)
Life insurance
d)
Homeowners insurance
27.

Your homeowners insurance won’t cover damage from a flood. What special policy do you need?

a)
Earthquake insurance policy
b)
Homeowners liability policy
c)
Windstorm insurance policy
d)
Flood insurance policy
28.

The most you’ll personally pay in a year before insurance covers 100% of costs.

a)
Deductible
b)
Premium
c)
Co-payment
d)
Out-of-pocket maximum
29.

Your state requires you to have minimum liability insurance for your car. Why?

a)
To provide free car repairs for all drivers.
b)
To increase state revenue from insurance premiums.
c)
To ensure all cars are equipped with GPS tracking.
d)
To protect victims of accidents and ensure drivers can cover damages.
30.

What is the Discount Rate?

a)
The discount rate is the rate at which a company pays its employees.
b)
The discount rate is the fee charged for processing transactions.
c)
The discount rate is the amount of tax applied to sales.
d)
The discount rate is the interest rate used to calculate the present value of future cash flows.
31.

If the Fed lowers the discount rate, what effect does it usually have on borrowing and the economy?

a)
Lowering the discount rate decreases borrowing and slows economic growth.
b)
Lowering the discount rate has no effect on borrowing or the economy.
c)
Lowering the discount rate only affects government borrowing, not consumer borrowing.
d)
Lowering the discount rate usually increases borrowing and stimulates economic growth.
32.

What is the Reserve Requirement?

a)
The reserve requirement is the total amount of money a bank can lend out.
b)
The reserve requirement is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep as reserves.
c)
The reserve requirement is the interest rate set by the central bank.
d)
The reserve requirement is the amount of cash banks must hold in their vaults.
33.

If the Fed raises the reserve requirement, how does that affect the money supply?

a)
The money supply decreases.
b)
The money supply increases.
c)
The money supply remains unchanged.
d)
The money supply fluctuates unpredictably.
34.

What is Interest on Reserves?

a)
Interest on Reserves is a tax imposed on bank profits.
b)
Interest on Reserves is the interest paid by banks to customers for their savings accounts.
c)
Interest on Reserves refers to the fees charged by banks for holding deposits.
d)

Interest on Reserves is the interest rate the Federal Reserve pays to banks on deposits kept with the Fed.

35.

During high inflation, should the Fed raise or lower interest on reserves?

a)
The Fed should lower interest on reserves.
b)
The Fed should keep interest on reserves unchanged.
c)
The Fed should eliminate interest on reserves.
d)
The Fed should raise interest on reserves.
36.

The economy is in a recession with high unemployment. Which monetary policy would the Fed most likely use?

a)
Expansionary monetary policy
b)
Reducing government spending
c)
Increasing interest rates
d)
Tightening monetary policy
37.

What are Open Market Operations (OMO)?

a)
Open Market Operations (OMO) are the buying and selling of government securities by a central bank to control the money supply.
b)
Open Market Operations (OMO) are the regulation of foreign exchange rates.
c)
Open Market Operations (OMO) involve setting interest rates directly.
d)
Open Market Operations (OMO) are a type of tax policy.
38.

If the Fed buys bonds in the open market, what happens to the money supply?

a)
The money supply increases.
b)
The money supply decreases.
c)
The money supply remains unchanged.
d)
The money supply fluctuates unpredictably.
39.

If the Fed sells bonds, what happens?

a)
The money supply decreases and interest rates may rise.
b)
The money supply remains unchanged and interest rates stabilize.
c)
The Fed buys bonds to increase liquidity in the market.
d)
The money supply increases and interest rates may fall.
40.

What is the Federal Funds Rate?

a)
The Federal Funds Rate is the interest rate for long-term loans between banks.
b)
The Federal Funds Rate is the rate at which the government lends money to banks.
c)
The Federal Funds Rate is the interest rate for loans between banks and consumers.
d)
The Federal Funds Rate is the interest rate for overnight loans between banks.
41.

If unemployment is low but inflation is rising quickly, what type of monetary policy should the Fed use?

a)
The Fed should use contractionary monetary policy.
b)
The Fed should maintain current policy without changes.
c)
The Fed should increase government spending.
d)
The Fed should use expansionary monetary policy.
42.

What are some limitations of monetary policy (4 answers)

a)
Increased government spending
b)

Lack of coordination with fiscal policy.

c)

Accuracy of economic forecasts

d)

Trade-offs between unemployment & inflation.

e)

Time lags for policies to work.

43.

The Fed lowers rates to fight a recession, but unemployment remains high for a long time. Which limitation of monetary policy does this show?

a)
The immediate impact of tax cuts on employment.
b)
Monetary policy's time lag in affecting unemployment.
c)
The lack of fiscal policy support during a recession.
d)
Monetary policy's effectiveness in controlling inflation.
44.

If the Fed misreads the economy and thinks growth will be faster than it actually is, what limitation is this?

a)
Overestimation of inflation rates
b)
Incorrect fiscal policy adjustments
c)
Misjudgment of economic conditions
d)
Underestimation of unemployment
45.

How many members are on the Board of Governors and how long is their term?

a)
9 members, 12 years
b)
6 members, 8 years
c)
5 members, 10 years
d)
7 members, 14 years
46.

Who appoints the Chair of the Federal Reserve, and how long is their term?

a)
The President appoints the Chair of the Federal Reserve for a term of four years.
b)
The Secretary of the Treasury appoints the Chair for a term of five years.
c)
The Senate appoints the Chair for a term of two years.
d)
The Vice President appoints the Chair for a term of six years.
47.

How many District Banks are there in the Federal Reserve System, and what do they do?

a)
15 District Banks
b)
10 District Banks
c)
12 District Banks
d)
8 District Banks
48.

A business in Atlanta needs to process a government check. Which part of the Federal Reserve system would handle this?

a)
Federal Reserve Board of Governors
b)
Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta
c)
Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago
d)
Federal Reserve Bank of New York
49.

What does the FOMC (Federal Open Market Committee) do?

a)
The FOMC manages fiscal policy by collecting taxes.
b)
The FOMC oversees the stock market and regulates trading.
c)
The FOMC conducts monetary policy by setting interest rates and regulating the money supply.
d)
The FOMC issues government bonds to fund public projects.
50.

If the Fed decides to sell government bonds to reduce the money supply, which group within the Fed is making that decision?

a)
Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC)
b)
Office of Financial Research
c)
Federal Advisory Council
d)
Federal Reserve Board
51.

The form employees fill out when starting a job that tells employers how much tax to withhold from their paycheck.

a)
1099 form
b)
I-9 form
c)
W-2 form
d)
W-4 form
52.

A tax form for income earned outside of regular employment (like freelance, contract, or side gigs).

a)
Form W-2
b)
Form 1099
c)
Form 1040
d)
Form 1098
53.

The main IRS form individuals use to file their annual income tax return.

a)
Form 1040A
b)
Form 1099
c)
Form W-2
d)
Form 1040
54.

You start a new job and must tell your employer how much to withhold in federal taxes. Which form do you fill out?

a)
Form 1099
b)
Form 1040
c)
Form W-4
d)
Form W-2
55.

Total earnings before taxes and deductions.

a)
Net income
b)
Taxable income
c)
Disposable income
d)
Gross income
56.

Take-home pay after taxes and deductions.

a)
Total earnings including bonuses
b)
Income after expenses and savings
c)

Net

d)

Gross

57.

You earn $3,000 a month. Taxes and deductions total $600. What is your gross pay and what is your net pay?

a)
Gross pay: $2,800, Net pay: $2,200
b)
Gross pay: $3,000, Net pay: $2,400
c)
Gross pay: $3,500, Net pay: $2,900
d)
Gross pay: $2,500, Net pay: $1,900
58.

A payment made by a corporation to its shareholders, usually from profits.

a)
dividend
b)
interest
c)
fee
d)
commission
59.

A way of expressing total return on a $1,000 investment (profit or loss relative to $1,000).

a)

T-1000

b)
Net Profit Margin
c)
Annualized Return Ratio
d)
Investment Growth Rate
60.

A legal document that states how a person’s assets will be distributed after death.

a)
Power of Attorney
b)
Living Will
c)
Will
d)
Trust
61.

A legal arrangement where one party holds and manages assets on behalf of another, often to avoid probate or reduce estate taxes.

a)
Will
b)
Power of Attorney
c)
Trust
d)
Beneficiary Designation
62.

A person or entity legally entitled to receive assets, funds, or benefits from an estate, trust, or insurance policy.

a)
Trustee
b)
Executor
c)
Heir
d)
Beneficiary
63.

A legal document that authorizes someone to act on your behalf in financial or legal matters if you’re unable to.

a)
Legal Guardian
b)
Trust Agreement
c)
Financial Proxy
d)
Power of Attorney
64.

You are in a coma, and your brother uses legal authority to manage your bank accounts and bills. Which estate planning tool gave him that power?

(a)  

65.

A document that outlines a person’s medical treatment preferences and designates someone to make healthcare decisions if they can’t.

a)

Advance Medical Directive

b)
Power of attorney
c)
Healthcare proxy
d)
Living will
66.

Someone writes a document stating that they do not want to be placed on life support if terminally ill. What estate planning tool is this?

(a)  

67.

The person named in a will to carry out the instructions (distribute assets, pay debts, handle legal matters).

a)
Trustee
b)
Beneficiary
c)
Executor
d)
Administrator
68.

The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in one year.

a)
Net National Product (NNP)
b)
Gross National Product (GNP)
c)
Consumer Price Index (CPI)
d)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
69.

People who are employed or actively seeking work (not retired, not under 16, not institutionalized).

a)
Unemployed individuals
b)
Retired workers
c)
Labor force participants
d)
Students not seeking work
70.

In an economy:

  • Employed = 90 million

  • Unemployed = 10 million

  • Total population = 150 million

Find: Labor Force

a)
120 million
b)
80 million
c)
100 million
d)
150 million
71.
  • In an economy:

  • Employed = 90 million

  • Unemployed = 10 million

  • Total population = 150 million

Find: Unemployment Rate

a)
20%
b)
15%
c)
10%
d)
5%
72.

In an economy:

  • Employed = 90 million

  • Unemployed = 10 million

  • Total population = 150 million

Find: Labor Force Participation Rate

a)
70%
b)
80%
c)
60%
d)
66.67%
73.

A person loses their job when the economy goes into recession. What type of unemployment is this?

a)
Structural unemployment
b)
Seasonal unemployment
c)
Frictional unemployment
d)
Cyclical unemployment
74.

A college graduate is looking for their first job. What type of unemployment is this?

a)
Frictional unemployment
b)
Cyclical unemployment
c)
Seasonal unemployment
d)
Structural unemployment
75.

A worker’s job is replaced by a machine. What type of unemployment is this?

a)
Seasonal unemployment
b)
Cyclical unemployment
c)
Frictional unemployment
d)

Structural Unemployment

76.

A measure of the average change in prices paid by consumers for a “market basket” of goods and services.

a)
Producer Price Index (PPI)
b)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
c)
Retail Sales Index (RSI)
d)
Consumer Price Index (CPI)
77.

Base year basket = $100. Current year basket = $120.
Find CPI.

a)
100
b)
130
c)
120
d)
150
78.

CPI last year = 200. CPI this year = 220.
What is the inflation rate?

a)
15%
b)
5%
c)
10%
d)
20%
79.

A worker’s salary = $50,000. Inflation = 5%. If their salary doesn’t change, what happens to real income?

a)
Real income increases to $52,500.
b)
Real income decreases to approximately $47,619.
c)
Real income remains the same at $50,000.
d)
Real income decreases to $45,000.
80.

Nominal GDP = $1,000B. GDP Deflator = 125.
What is Real GDP?

a)
$900B
b)
$800B
c)
$1,250B
d)
$700B
81.

Country A has higher GDP than Country B, but lower GDP per capita. What does this mean?

a)
Country A has a smaller economy but a wealthier population than Country B.
b)
Country A and Country B have the same GDP per capita.
c)
Country B has a larger economy and a less wealthy population than Country A.
d)
Country A has a larger economy but a less wealthy population on average than Country B.
82.

What is the Natural Rate of Unemployment?

a)

4%-6%

b)

0%

c)

5%-8%

d)

1%-4%

83.

A ski instructor is unemployed in the summer but works every winter. What type of unemployment is this?

a)
Structural unemployment
b)
Frictional unemployment
c)
Cyclical unemployment
d)
Seasonal unemployment
84.

Population = 250M
Labor Force = 160M
Employed = 150M

Find:
a) Unemployed
b) Unemployment Rate
c) Labor Force Participation Rate

a)

a) 10M
b) 6.25
c) 64%

b)

a) 5M
b) 6.25
c) 70%

c)

a) 7M
b) 5
c) 76.5%

d)

a) 20M
b) 9.45
c) 94%

85.

Nominal GDP = $5,000B, GDP Deflator = 125.
Find Real GDP.

a)
4000B
b)
3500B
c)
5000B
d)
4500B
86.

Households spend $500B on groceries and clothing.
Businesses spend $200B on new factories.
Government spends $300B on defense.
Exports = $100B, Imports = $150B.
What is GDP?

a)
800B
b)
1,200B
c)
600B
d)
950B
87.

Government spends $400B on infrastructure.
Households spend $700B on services.
Businesses buy $250B in equipment.
Exports = $80B, Imports = $50B.
What is GDP?

a)
$950B
b)
$1380B
c)
$1200B
d)
$500B
88.

Base year basket costs $200.
Current year basket costs $250.
Find CPI.

a)
100
b)
150
c)
200
d)
125
89.

CPI last year = 150.
CPI this year = 165.
Find inflation rate.

a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
15%
d)
5%
90.

The difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports.

a)
Trade balance
b)
Balance of payments
c)
Trade deficit
d)
Trade surplus
91.

If a country exports $600B and imports $800B, does it have a trade surplus or deficit?

a)
trade balance
b)
trade surplus
c)
net export
d)
trade deficit
92.

If exports = $900B and imports = $700B, what’s the BOT?

a)
$100B
b)
$200B
c)
$700B
d)
$300B
93.

When a country exports more than it imports.

a)
Import surplus
b)
Balance of trade
c)
Trade deficit
d)
Trade surplus
94.

When a country imports more than it exports.

a)
Trade surplus
b)
Trade deficit
c)
Balance of trade
d)
Export-led growth
95.

The currency’s value increases compared to another.

a)
Stagnation
b)
Inflation
c)
Appreciation
d)
Depreciation
96.

The currency’s value decreases compared to another.

a)
Stability
b)
Appreciation
c)
Depreciation
d)
Inflation
97.

If $1 = 1 Euro last year, and now $1 = 1.2 Euros, what happened to the U.S. dollar?

a)
The U.S. dollar remains unchanged.
b)
The U.S. dollar has strengthened.
c)
The U.S. dollar has appreciated.
d)
The U.S. dollar has depreciated.
98.

If $1 = 110 Yen last year, and now $1 = 100 Yen, what happened to the U.S. dollar?

a)
The U.S. dollar depreciated.
b)
The U.S. dollar appreciated.
c)
The U.S. dollar remained stable.
d)
The U.S. dollar was replaced by the Euro.
99.

If the U.S. dollar appreciates, what happens to U.S. exports?

a)
U.S. exports become more competitive.
b)
U.S. exports remain unchanged.
c)
U.S. exports increase.
d)
U.S. exports decrease.
100.

The U.S. dollar weakens against foreign currencies. How would this affect tourism in the U.S.?

a)
Tourism in the U.S. would become more expensive.
b)
Tourism in the U.S. would remain unchanged.
c)
Tourism in the U.S. would likely decrease.
d)
Tourism in the U.S. would likely increase.
101.

If the dollar strengthens, what happens to Americans buying European goods?

a)
Americans can buy European goods more cheaply.
b)
Americans will stop buying European goods altogether.
c)
The dollar's strength has no effect on prices.
d)
Americans will pay more for European goods.
102.

Government use of spending and taxation to influence the economy.

a)
Fiscal policy
b)
Regulatory policy
c)
Trade policy
d)
Monetary policy
103.

The government increases spending or cuts taxes to boost demand, create jobs, and fight recession. (expansionary or contractionary?)

a)
contractionary
b)
expansionary
104.

The Government reduces spending or raises taxes to slow the economy and reduce inflation.

(expansionary or contractionary?)

a)
contractionary
b)
expansionary
105.

The economy is in a recession with high unemployment. What fiscal policy might the government use?

a)
Increase interest rates to curb inflation.
b)
Implement stricter regulations on businesses.
c)
Reduce government spending on social programs.
d)
Increase government spending and/or cut taxes.
106.

Inflation is rising quickly. What fiscal policy might the government use?

a)
Increase government spending
b)
Reduce government spending or increase taxes.
c)
Lower interest rates
d)
Implement price controls
107.

When government spending is greater than tax revenue.

a)
Budget surplus
b)
Balanced budget
c)
Tax revenue increase
d)
Budget deficit
108.

When government revenue is greater than government spending.

a)
Excessive spending
b)
Budget deficit
c)
Budget surplus
d)
Balanced budget
109.

The government collects $4T in taxes but spends $5T. Is this a surplus or deficit?

a)
deficit
b)
surplus
110.

The total demand for all goods and services in an economy at different price levels.

a)
Consumer Demand
b)
Aggregate Demand
c)
Market Demand
d)
Total Supply
111.

The total output of goods and services producers are willing and able to supply at different price levels.

a)
Market Supply
b)
Total Revenue
c)
Aggregate Supply
d)
Aggregate Demand
112.

If consumer spending increases because of tax cuts, what happens to Aggregate Demand?

a)
Aggregate Demand fluctuates unpredictably.
b)
Aggregate Demand decreases.
c)
Aggregate Demand remains unchanged.
d)
Aggregate Demand increases.
113.

If wages and resource costs rise sharply, what happens to Aggregate Supply?

a)
AS shifts left
b)
AS remains unchanged
c)
AS shifts right
d)
AS increases sharply
114.

Which curve (AD or AS) is most directly affected if the government raises taxes significantly?

a)
AD
b)
Neither AD nor AS
c)
Both AD and AS
d)
AS
115.

A new technology makes production more efficient. Which curve shifts, and in what direction?

a)
The demand curve shifts to the left.
b)
The supply curve shifts to the left.
c)
The production possibilities curve shifts inward.
d)
The supply curve shifts to the right.
116.

The Fed buys bonds on the open market.
👉 What happens to Aggregate Demand?

a)
Aggregate Demand fluctuates unpredictably.
b)
Aggregate Demand remains unchanged.
c)

Aggregate Demand decreases (shifts left)

d)

Aggregate Demand increases (shifts right)

117.

Congress cuts personal income taxes during a recession.
👉 Which curve shifts?

a)
Short-run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve shifts to the right.
b)
Aggregate Supply (AS) curve shifts to the left.
c)
Phillips Curve shifts to the left.
d)
Aggregate Demand (AD) curve shifts to the right.
118.

The Fed raises the reserve requirement.
👉 What happens to AD and unemployment?

a)
AD increases and unemployment decreases.
b)
AD remains unchanged and unemployment decreases.
c)
AD increases and unemployment remains unchanged.
d)
AD decreases and unemployment increases.
119.

Oil prices spike worldwide, raising production costs.
👉 Which curve shifts?

a)
Demand curve shifts to the right
b)
Supply curve shifts to the left
c)
Supply curve shifts to the right
d)
Demand curve remains unchanged
120.

The government increases infrastructure spending to create jobs.
👉 Which curve shifts, and what happens to unemployment?

a)
The aggregate demand curve shifts to the left, and unemployment remains the same.
b)
The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, and unemployment decreases.
c)
The aggregate supply curve shifts to the left, and unemployment increases.
d)
The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, and unemployment increases.
121.

The economy is at full employment, but the government increases military spending.
👉 What’s the likely result?

a)
Interest rates will drop sharply.
b)
Inflation may increase due to higher demand.
c)
The economy will enter a recession.
d)
Unemployment will decrease significantly.
122.

A natural disaster reduces available resources.
👉 Which curve shifts, and what happens to prices?

a)
The supply curve remains unchanged, and prices stabilize.
b)
The supply curve shifts right, and prices decrease.
c)
The demand curve shifts right, and prices decrease.
d)
The supply curve shifts left, and prices increase.
123.

What are the four phases of the business cycle?

a)
Expansion, Peak, Contraction, Trough
b)
Inflation, Deflation, Stabilization, Growth
c)
Stagnation, Boom, Recession, Recovery
d)
Recession, Growth, Recovery, Decline
124.

Unemployment is low, GDP is rising, and inflationary pressures are building. Which stage of the business cycle is this?

a)
Recession
b)
Expansion
c)
Peak
d)
Trough
125.

Businesses are cutting back production, unemployment is rising, and GDP is falling. Which stage is this?

a)
Recession
b)
Boom
c)
Stagnation
d)
Expansion
126.

GDP has been shrinking for six months straight. What stage is the economy officially in?

a)
Boom
b)
Expansion
c)
Stagnation
d)
Recession
127.

GDP begins to grow again, unemployment falls, and consumer confidence rises. Which stage is this?

a)
Stagnation
b)
Economic recession
c)
Economic recovery
d)
Boom
128.

Name two things GDP does not measure.

a)

Inflation rates & Employment levels

b)

Government spending & Consumer confidence

c)
Income distribution and non-market transactions.
129.

A parent stays home to care for their kids instead of paying for daycare. Does this activity show up in GDP?

a)
No, but it affects GDP indirectly.
b)
Yes, it is counted as a service in GDP.
c)
No, it does not show up in GDP.
d)
Yes, it contributes positively to GDP.
130.

Pollution from a factory increases even though GDP grows. Why might GDP be misleading here?

a)
GDP measures only economic output, ignoring social factors.
b)
GDP accounts for pollution as a positive contribution to growth.
c)
GDP reflects the distribution of wealth among the population.
d)
GDP does not reflect environmental degradation or quality of life.
131.

What is two major limitation of Fiscal Policy?

a)

Political pressures

b)
Reduction in public debt.
c)
Increased government revenue.
d)
Immediate impact on the economy.
e)

Time lags

132.

Congress debates stimulus spending for six months while unemployment rises. What limitation is this?

a)
Increased government spending
b)
Delay in economic recovery
c)
Bureaucratic inefficiency
d)
Inefficiency in legislative response
133.

What is one limitation of Monetary Policy?

a)
Limited effectiveness in low interest rate environments.
b)
Monetary policy has no impact on employment rates.
c)
Monetary policy is the only tool for economic growth.
d)
Monetary policy can always control inflation effectively.
134.

The Fed lowers interest rates, but businesses are too nervous to borrow and invest. What limitation is this?

a)
Lack of business confidence in the economy.
b)
High inflation rates affecting borrowing
c)
Increased competition in the market
d)
Government regulations on lending
135.

A federal health insurance program for people 65+ or with certain disabilities.

a)
Medicare
b)
Affordable Care Act
c)
Medicaid
d)
Social Security
136.

A joint federal–state program providing health coverage for low-income individuals and families.

a)
Medicare
b)
Medicaid
c)
Private Insurance
d)
CHIP
137.

What was the purpose of the Affordable Care Act (Obamacare)?

a)
To increase taxes on healthcare providers.
b)
To eliminate all private health insurance plans.
c)
To increase health insurance coverage and improve healthcare quality in the U.S.
d)
To reduce the number of hospitals in the U.S.