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National Portion Mock Test 2

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The reduction in value from everyday wear and use is known as:

a)

FUNCTIONAL OBSOLESCENCE

b)

EXTERIOR DETERIORATION

c)

PHYSICAL DETERIORATION

d)

ECONOMIC OBSOLESCENCE

2.

The illegal practice by a real estate agent of blending personal finances with client funds is called:

a)

QUIET TITLE ACTION

b)

COMMINGLING

c)

CONVERSION

d)

ESCHEAT

3.

A document detailing a company's financial performance, including earnings and expenditures over a specific period, is:

a)

REVENUE REPORT

b)

BALANCE SHEET

c)

PROFIT AND LOSS STATEMENT

d)

NET DIFFERENTIAL STATEMENT

4.

Rights concerning the use of flowing water from rivers or streams are:

a)

LITTORAL RIGHTS

b)

RIPARIAN RIGHTS

c)

DUE PROCESS

d)

BUNDLE OF RIGHTS

5.

Fixtures within a business premise, considered personal property, are:

a)

Business lien

b)

Trade fixture

c)

Trade source

d)

Business item

6.

A wall that carries not only its own weight but also the load from other parts of the building is:

a)

Support wall

b)

Hip wall

c)

Load-bearing wall

d)

Foundation wall

7.

Property rights for land adjacent to oceans and lakes are termed:

a)

Avulsion

b)

Riparian

c)

Littoral

d)

Accretion

8.

A type of lease where the tenant covers the rent plus property expenses like taxes, insurance, and maintenance is:

a)

SANDWICH LEASE

b)

NET LEASE

c)

GROSS LEASE

d)

PERCENTAGE LEASE

9.

Value growth in property due to external community or area developments rather than direct improvements to the property itself is called:

a)

WAIVER

b)

VALUE

c)

YIELD

d)

UNEARDED INCREMENT

10.

A provision that allows a later mortgage to become more important than an existing one is:

a)

Open-end clause

b)

Acceleration clause

c)

Release clause

d)

Subordination clause

11.

Under the Federal Truth-in-Lending Law, credit cost on certain loans are expressed as:

a)

A. A monthly rate

b)

B. An annual percentage rate

c)

C. The highest possible rate

d)

D. The lowest possible rate

12.

A mortgage requiring $875.70 monthly for 20 years with a large final payment is identified as:

a)

Accelerated

b)

Variable

c)

Balloon

d)

Wraparound

13.

The primary purpose of the FHA is to:

a)

Guarantee qualified borrowers against default

b)

Create a secondary market for mortgages

c)

Provide insurance for home loans made by approved lenders

d)

Insure all home equity loans for qualified borrowers

14.

Denying a Savings & Loan application from Mr. and Mrs. Sparks would breach the Federal Fair Housing Act if based on:

a)

Insufficient income

b)

Age

c)

Minority background

d)

Excessive borrowing history

15.

Jones has a mortgage payment plan that allows him to pay less than the real amount required to pay off the debt and interest. He is at risk for:

a)

Shared equity

b)

Scaled payments

c)

Negative amortization

d)

Mortgage modification

16.

The mortgage clause allowing the lender to demand full repayment upon default is termed:

a)

An acceleration clause

b)

Legal action clause

c)

Loss clause

d)

Step-up clause

17.

A mortgage with steady payments not covering the full balance, resulting in a remaining sum, refers to:

a)

Final settlement payment

b)

Quick repayment

c)

Escalation payment

d)

Balloon payment

18.

What is a Purchase Money Mortgage?

a)

A release of the primary mortgage

b)

Financing on bought personal property

c)

A mortgage given from buyer to seller to secure the purchase price

d)

Part of a payment plan sale

19.

The Federal Reserve Board raises cash reserve requirements to:

a)

Market securities

b)

Stimulate borrowing

c)

Increase taxes

d)

Decrease loan activity

20.

Which of the following types of loans were most likely obtained by buyers who bought a home for $142,500 and received a loan for 100% of the purchase price?

a)

VA-guaranteed

b)

FHA-insured

c)

Wraparound

d)

Conventional

21.

All the following are required in an exclusive listing contract, except:

a)

The final contract price

b)

All relevant parties' signatures

c)

Detailed property description

d)

A defined termination date

22.

A verbal agreement to buy a house, accompanied by a $500 earnest money check, is considered:

a)

Finalized

b)

Unenforceable

c)

Invalid

d)

Legally binding

23.

The legal action that forces a seller to complete a sale is known as:

a)

Specific performance

b)

Property repossession

c)

Execution order

d)

Eviction order

24.

Essentially, a listing agreement is a/an:

a)

Employment contract

b)

Purchase agreement

c)

One-sided contract

d)

Selling option

25.

All listing types except one require the broker to directly facilitate the sale to earn a commission. The exception is:

a)

A. A non-exclusive listing

b)

B. An exclusive-right-to-sell listing

c)

C. There are no exceptions; all require direct facilitation

d)

D. An exclusive agency listing

26.

Which of the following is not essential for creating a contract?

a)

A. Proposal

b)

B. Exchange of value

c)

C. Performance

d)

D. Agreement

27.

Each party is obliged to a certain date for performance if a real estate sales contract includes:

a)

A due-on-sale requirement

b)

A provision that time is of the essence

c)

A celebratory acknowledgment

d)

A deadline for mortgage approval

28.

If a buyer retracts an offer before the seller accepts it:

a)

The broker can demand the buyer complete the purchase

b)

The seller can successfully demand contract completion

c)

The seller keeps half the earnest money deposit

d)

The buyer is entitled to a refund of the earnest money deposit

29.

The legal principle requiring real estate contracts to be in writing is the:

a)

Statute of frauds

b)

Time-limit statute

c)

Spoken evidence regulation

d)

Inheritance and property law

30.

A verbal agreement is made by a tenant to rent a home for six months. The renter informs the owner that he would be moving out the next month because he has discovered a more appealing apartment. The agreement is:

a)

Void

b)

Invalid due to lack of writing

c)

Not legally binding

d)

Enforceable

31.

Once a purchase contract is signed by both Joe (buyer) and Stephen (seller), what type of title interest does Joe have?

a)

Revocable interest

b)

Title insurance interest

c)

Legal title interest

d)

Equitable

32.

When an owner gives a life estate to her grandson, specifying that it passes to her son-in-law upon her death, the son-in-law holds:

a)

A. A statutory life estate

b)

B. Remainder interest

c)

C. An interest in reverting

d)

D. A fixed-term estate

33.

A fee simple estate is best described as:

a)

A fixed-term estate

b)

Unrestricted ownership

c)

The most interest that one can hold in land

d)

A lifetime ownership

34.

A vacant lot near a hospital was owned in fee simple. She chose to make the lot accessible to the hospital. Her attorney drafted a deed transferring title of the lot to the hospital 'so long as it is used for medical purposes.' After the gift is complete, the hospital will own:

a)

A. A fee simple defeasible estate

b)

B. A fixed-term lease

c)

C. A perpetual care estate

d)

D. A renewable lease

35.

A municipality's regulatory powers do not extend to:

a)

Restrictive covenants

b)

Minimum parcel sizes

c)

Construction types

d)

Building heights

36.

Oscar, Andrew, and Douglas are co-tenants who jointly own a piece of property. Douglas tells his friend Joe that he's interested. Following the transfer, Oscar and Andrew:

a)

Jointly include Joe

b)

Retain joint tenancy without Douglas

c)

Remain joint tenants owning a two-thirds interest

d)

Share ownership equally with Joe

37.

A specific, involuntary lien refers to:

a)

Federal income tax obligations

b)

A real estate property tax lien

c)

Estate taxes due

d)

Court-awarded debt claims

38.

Oscar and Susan reside next door. Oscar is told by Susan that he can keep his camper in her yard until she needs the space, which should be a few weeks. Oscar was not charged rent by Susan for using her yard. Oscar has received what from Susan?

a)

License

b)

Required access right

c)

Land use right

d)

Temporary use permission

39.

Which item is not traditionally considered an appurtenance?

a)

A built-in swimming facility

b)

Trade Fixture

c)

A right-of-way agreement

d)

Natural features like trees

40.

If one has a permanent right to access their home through another's property, their property is

a)

Individually burdened

b)

A dominant tenement

c)

Temporarily permitted

d)

Burdened by the easement

41.

When evaluating a/an ________, the income capitalization method to value would be the most crucial.

a)

office building

b)

vacant residential lot

c)

condominium

d)

single-family residence

42.

When there is a decline in supply and no change in demand,

a)

demand tends to decline

b)

price tends to decline

c)

price tends to rise

d)

demand tends to rise

43.

Susan recently found out that the city wants to demolish three houses across the street and replace them with a multi-unit apartment complex. She wishes to get rid of her house quickly to avoid a drop in value. Here's an illustration of:

a)

Anticipation

b)

Participation

c)

Conformance

d)

Rivalry

44.

The appraiser uses the following when applying the cost approach to value:

a)

Prices paid for comparable local buildings

b)

The building's estimated current replacement cost

c)

Evaluated building value

d)

The building's initial cost to the owner

45.

A home with four bedrooms and a single-car garage would be an example of:

a)

Functional obsolescence

b)

Financial obsolescence

c)

Environmental obsolescence

d)

Physical degradation

46.

Which item is not traditionally considered an appurtenance?

a)

A built-in swimming facility

b)

Trade fixture

c)

A right-of-way agreement

d)

Natural features like trees

47.

If one has a permanent right to access their home through another's property, their property is

a)

Individually burdened

b)

A dominant tenement

c)

Temporarily permitted

d)

Burdened by the easement

48.

When evaluating a/an ________, the income capitalization method to value would be the most crucial.

a)

office building

b)

vacant residential lot

c)

condominium

d)

single-family residence

49.

When there is a decline in supply and no change in demand,

a)

demand tends to decline

b)

price tends to decline

c)

price tends to rise

d)

demand tends to rise

50.

Susan recently found out that the city wants to demolish three houses across the street and replace them with a multi-unit apartment complex. She wishes to get rid of her house quickly to avoid a drop in value. Here's an illustration of:

a)

Anticipation

b)

Participation

c)

Conformance

d)

Rivalry

51.

The appraiser uses the following when applying the cost approach to value:

a)

Prices paid for comparable local buildings

b)

The building's estimated current replacement cost

c)

Evaluated building value

d)

The building's initial cost to the owner

52.

A home with four bedrooms and a single-car garage would be an example of:

a)

Functional obsolescence

b)

Financial obsolescence

c)

Environmental obsolescence

d)

Physical degradation

53.

To alienate the title of property, one:

a)

Conveys title

b)

Clouds the title

c)

Records a homestead

d)

Encumbers the title

54.

If Joe dies without leaving a will, it is claimed to be:

a)

Intestate

b)

A Testator

c)

In Probate

d)

A Testate

55.

In real estate, 'tax shelter' refers to:

a)

Income tax

b)

Net earnings from investments

c)

Taxes levied on real estate

d)

Principal amounts paid on loans

56.

What happens to a lease under an 'estate for years' agreement when the leased real estate is sold?

a)

The lease can be ended with appropriate notice

b)

The lease concludes upon the property's sale

c)

The lease remains valid but cannot be enforced

d)

It binds the new owner

57.

Which of the following is not typically taxable?

a)

Patents and trademarks

b)

Watercraft

c)

Earned income

d)

Residential property

58.

In a sale/leaseback transaction for a commercial building, the buyer's least concern is:

a)

The building's physical state

b)

The depreciated book value of the building

c)

The property's location within the broader community

d)

The financial credibility of the seller

59.

Once a judgment has been properly recorded, those who buy the property later or those unaware of the judgment have received:

a)

Indirect notice

b)

Constructive notice

c)

Direct legal notice

d)

First-hand notice

60.

A bill of sale is utilized to transfer ownership of:

a)

Fixtures

b)

Personal property

c)

Real property

d)

Appurtenances

61.

When a market experiences a significant lack of homes, leading to increased construction, this scenario illustrates:

a)

Supply surpassing demand

b)

Demand surpassing the market value

c)

Consumer confidence

d)

The market moving toward a state of equilibrium

62.

In a burgeoning town where all prime vacant lots are already developed, the expectation for the prices of existing homes in that premium area is that they:

a)

Will stabilize due to inevitable population stabilization

b)

Are likely to rise

c)

Will decrease due to the impossibility of further construction

d)

Cannot be predicted with any consistency

63.

The four core factors determining the value of a product include:

a)

Endurance, practicality, transferability, and geographic setting

b)

Desire, utility, scarcity, and purchasing power

c)

Public perception, recognition, marketing efforts, and discounts

d)

Exchangeability, cost factors, accessibility, and distinctiveness

64.

A decrease in vacancies within the real estate sector typically leads to:

a)

Increasing prices

b)

Decreasing prices

c)

Reduced construction activities

d)

Lower rates of property being rented or sold

65.

“Absorption” in the context of real estate market analysis is defined as:

a)

The addition of new space to the market within a certain timeframe

b)

The construction of residential units over a specified period

c)

The total occupied space at any moment

d)

The number of available units that become occupied over a period of time

66.

When a property owner merges two adjacent lots into a single, more valuable entity, this value-increasing strategy is known as:

a)

Assemblage

b)

Natural growth

c)

Enhancement through proximity

d)

Division for increased value

67.

The measurement of a property's gross living area is typically taken:

a)

Excluding the footprint of any structures on the property

b)

From the exterior dimensions of above-grade spaces, omitting open areas

c)

By calculating the total interior living spaces

d)

Excluding basements and attics from the total enclosed spaces

68.

Real estate stands out as an economic good due to:

a)

Its standardized nature

b)

Its diversity

c)

Each property's uniqueness

d)

Its propensity for value appreciation over time

69.

When a market reaches equilibrium, it means that:

a)

A. New competitors will lower the price by entering the market

b)

B. Demand will gradually decrease, reducing prices

c)

C. Unfulfilled demand shifts towards alternative products

d)

D. Supply matches demand, stabilizing prices and values equally

70.

An increase in the price of a product typically indicates that:

a)

A. Demand for the product is falling relative to its supply

b)

B. Demand for the product is increasing in relation to supply of the product

c)

C. There is more of the product available

d)

D. Both the product's demand and supply are rising

71.

After purchasing their home, the Jacksons discovered a leaky roof during rainstorms. The seller had informed Bankers Agency's broker of the issue, but Bankers claims the Jacksons didn't inquire about it. What is the Jacksons' recourse?

a)

They can initiate legal action against the broker for non-disclosure

b)

They have no recourse as the inspection should have identified the leak

c)

They cannot pursue legal action against the broker according to license law

d)

They have the option to sue the seller under license law provisions

72.

The typical lease format for an apartment in a residential complex is:

a)

A net lease

b)

A lease based on a percentage of sales

c)

A gross lease

d)

A lease concerning the land itself

73.

Redlining is defined as:

a)

Denying loans based strictly on sound economic reasons

b)

The refusal to offer loans or insurance in certain areas, not based on applicants' financial reliability

c)

The absence of financial institutions in neighborhoods solely due to non-economic considerations

d)

Invalidating mortgage documents through selective editing

74.

What is RESPA?

a)

A law aimed at preventing discrimination

b)

A set of regulations for accommodating disabilities

c)

A standard for closing procedures

d)

A program designed to assist low-income housing

75.

In which scenario should an agent NOT suggest hiring an external inspector?

a)

When noticing a toilet with slow drainage

b)

When a door hinge is detached

c)

Observing sawdust in kitchen cabinets

d)

Detecting a gas smell in the basement

76.

When presenting offers to sellers, agents should always be:

a)

Suspicious and confrontational

b)

Enthusiastic and straightforward

c)

Careful and responsible

d)

Aggressive and combative

77.

Which action could lead to a salesperson's license being revoked by the real estate commission?

a)

Signing an exclusive listing agreement with a seller

b)

Showing a property listed by an unaffiliated broker

c)

Attempting to act on behalf of a buyer

d)

Depositing a buyer's earnest money into a personal account

78.

What does it mean if a licensee claims a property near a large park is 'in the best part of town'?

a)

Puffing

b)

Overstating

c)

Misrepresenting

d)

Committing fraud

79.

How long does an individual have to file a Fair Housing complaint with the Department of Housing and Urban Development after an alleged violation?

a)

6 months

b)

2 years

c)

1 year

d)

5 years

80.

The permission to perform specific acts on another's land without holding any estate therein is defined as:

a)

A license

b)

An option

c)

An encroachment

d)

An easement

81.

The trust and obligation the broker holds as an agent for the client is best described as:

a)

A trustor bond

b)

A trustee association

c)

A confidential connection

d)

A fiduciary relationship

82.

When presenting offers to sellers, agents should always be:

a)

Suspicious and confrontational

b)

Enthusiastic and straightforward

c)

Careful and responsible

d)

Aggressive and combative

83.

Which action could lead to a salesperson's license being revoked by the real estate commission?

a)

Signing an exclusive listing agreement with a seller

b)

Showing a property listed by an unaffiliated broker

c)

Attempting to act on behalf of a buyer

d)

Depositing a buyer's earnest money into a personal account

84.

What does it mean if a licensee claims a property near a large park is "in the best part of town"?

a)

Puffing

b)

Overstating

c)

Misrepresenting

d)

Committing fraud

85.

How long does an individual have to file a Fair Housing complaint with the Department of Housing and Urban Development after an alleged violation?

a)

6 months

b)

2 years

c)

1 year

d)

5 years

86.

The permission to perform specific acts on another's land without holding any estate therein is defined as:

a)

A. A license

b)

B. An option

c)

C. An encroachment

d)

D. An easement

87.

The trust and obligation the broker holds as an agent for the client is best described as:

a)

A trustor bond

b)

A trustee association

c)

A confidential connection

d)

A fiduciary relationship

88.

Upon issuing a new counter-offer:

a)

The offer terms remain unchanged

b)

The counter-offer becomes the counter-offeree

c)

None of the other statements are accurate

d)

The offeror may unilaterally alter the offer’s conditions

89.

An agency relationship cannot be established through:

a)

A verbal agreement

b)

A documented agreement

c)

An implied agreement

d)

A voluntary offer by the agent

90.

What is the annual interest rate if 150ispaidininterestevery8monthsona150 is paid in interest every 8 months on a 2,500 straight note?

a)

7%

b)

2%

c)

9%

d)

11%

91.

An individual who earns $225 per month on a money market savings account that yields 7 1/2% per year, has invested which amount?

a)

$42,000

b)

$36,000

c)

$48,000

d)

$18,000

92.

If a $350,000 investment yields a 12% yearly return, how much income does it generate?

a)

$42,000

b)

$29,200

c)

$42,800

d)

$30,450

93.

What is the annual tax on a 20,000propertyassessedat20,000 property assessed at 4.00 per $100?

a)

$800

b)

$500

c)

$450

d)

$225

94.

What is the estimated worth of a building with a capitalization rate of 10% and an annual income of $20,000?

a)

$400,000

b)

$200,000

c)

$222,200

d)

$22,400

95.

Selwyn owned a straight note with a yearly interest rate of 8.4 percent. In five years, he earned $5,460 in interest. What was the principle amount on the note?

a)

$13,000

b)

$12,092

c)

$10,500

d)

$5,000

96.

A property sells for $495,000, yielding a 10% profit for the owner. What was the property's original cost?

a)

$400,000

b)

$300,000

c)

$450,000

d)

$500,000

97.

$140 is 3.5% of what amount?

a)

$4,000

b)

$3,500

c)

$2,000

d)

$5,000

98.

Find the capitalization rate for a building worth 430,000andrentingfor430,000 and renting for 1,500 per month.

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

2%

d)

4%

99.

An guy borrowed 7,000onastraightnotewith97,000 on a straight note with 9% interest. If the total interest paid on the note was 945, what was the loan's term?

a)

6 months

b)

10 months

c)

12 months

d)

18 months