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General & Ocular Pharmacology Quiz2

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Drug of choice for common viral flu:

a)

idoxuridine

b)

rimanLdine

c)

amanLdine

d)

ribavirine

2.

First approved anL-viral agent by the government agency:

a)

trifluridine

b)

idoxuridine

c)

vidarabine

d)

sorivudine

3.

The most common side effect of chlorampheniol

a)

yellowish tooth discoloraLon

b)

episgastric discomfort

c)

aplastic anemia

d)

ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity

4.

NOT the first line of drugs for PTB:

a)

isoniazid

b)

rifampicin

c)

streptomycin

d)

ethambutol

5.

Which of the following produces nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

ofloxacin

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

6.

The second line of drug given IM for PTB:

a)

specLnomycin

b)

streptomycin

c)

kanamycin

d)

neomycin

7.

Vitamin B combined with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuriLs:

a)

riboflavin

b)

folic acid

c)

pyridoxine

d)

bioLn

8.

Used for resistant strain of Mycobacterium leprae:

a)

clofazimine

b)

rifampicin

c)

ethambutol

d)

amithiozone

9.

Used for resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

a)

clofazimine

b)

rifampicin

c)

ethambutol

d)

amithiozone

10.

Which of the following routes follows the first-pass drug metabolism?

a)

clonidine 75mcg sublingual

b)

cefuroxime 500mg IV

c)

amoxicillin 125mg oral suspension

d)

paracetamol suppository

11.

Which of the following does not belong to the narcoLc analgesic group?

a)

naproxen

b)

morphine

c)

methadone

d)

hydrocodone

12.

Which of the following is not the effect of cocaine?

a)

local ester anesthesia

b)

CNS sLmulant

c)

mydriaLc agent

d)

sympathomimeLc agent

13.

Safer to use as anL-anxiety maintenance:

a)

diazepam

b)

heroin

c)

phenobarbital

d)

naloxone

14.

The rate, fracLon, or percentage of the administered dose of the drug that reaches the general circulaLon:

a)

absorpLon

b)

eliminaLon

c)

bioavailability

d)

biotransformaLon

15.

HepaLc microsomal enzymes to metabolized drugs taken orally:

a)

cytochrome P-450

b)

alanine transaminase

c)

acethylcholinesterase

d)

gamma glutamyl transferase

16.

The following are the procedures for insLlling ophthalmic anestheLc soluLons except:

a)

ask the paLent to look upward

b)

pinch the lower eyelids

c)

insLll only 1 drop of the medicaLon

d)

ask the paLent to blink acer insLllaLon

17.

What is the purpose of insLlling only 1 drop of the medicaLon in the lower eyelid before the next drop?

a)

prevent overflow of medicaLon

b)

increase the contact Lme of the anesthesia

c)

prevent egress of the anesthesia at puncta lacrimalis

d)

enhances drug absorpLon

18.

Drug used for oral candidiasis:

a)

mebendazole

b)

miconazole

c)

methisazole

d)

metronidazole

19.

Drug used for amoebiasis:

a)

mebendazole

b)

miconazole

c)

methisazole

d)

metronidazole

20.

Drug used for ascariasis:

a)

mebendazole

b)

miconazole

c)

methisazole

d)

metronidazole

21.

AnLbioLcs that can inhibit the growth or kill wide variety of microorganisms that cause the disease:

a)

bactericidal

b)

narrow spectrum

c)

bacteriostaLc

d)

broad spectrum

22.

AnLbioLc of choice for paLents with typhoid fever:

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

fluoroquinolone

c)

tetracycline

d)

erythromycin

23.

Aminoglycoside which has no systemic route of administraLon due to its high nephrotoxicity:

a)

gentamicin

b)

neomycin

c)

bacitracin

d)

polymyxin B

24.

The most common side effect of aminoglycosides thus given only for less than 7 days:

a)

yellowish tooth discoloraLon

b)

episgastric discomfort

c)

aplasLc anemia

d)

ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity

25.

Tetracyline should NOT be given during pregnancy, neonates, and children below 12 y/o due to this side effect:

a)

yellowish tooth discoloraLon

b)

hypersensiLvity reacLon

c)

aplasLc anemia

d)

ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity

26.

What is the meaning of PDEA?

a)

Professional Drug Enforcement Agent

b)

Police Dependent Enforcing Agency

c)

Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency

d)

Professional Drug Enforcement Agent

27.

Drug used for the treatment of leprosy:

a)

sulfone or dapsone

b)

mebendazole

c)

itraconazole

d)

metronidazole

28.

Classify meformin for hyperglycemia:

a)

palliaLve drug

b)

prophylacLc drug

c)

protecLve drug

d)

curaLve medicaLon

29.

Classify mefenamic acid for headache due to uncorrected EOR:

a)

palliaLve drug

b)

prophylacLc drug

c)

protecLve drug

d)

curaLve medicaLon

30.

Drug of choice for varicella:

a)

inosiplex

b)

amantadine

c)

methisoprinol

d)

acyclovir

31.

Ocular side effect of chloramphenicol:

a)

opLc neuriLs

b)

cataract

c)

glaucoma

d)

uveiLs

32.

Drug used for the treatment of uncomplicated Plasmodium ovale:

a)

sulfone

b)

quinine

c)

chloroquine

d)

clafazimine

33.

Drug used for the treatment of complicated Plasmodium falciparum:

a)

sulfone

b)

quinine

c)

chloroquine

d)

clafazimine

34.

What does S2# means in PO?

a)

MD can prescribe controlled substance 2 prohibited drugs

b)

MD can prescribe all controlled substances prohibited drugs

c)

MD can prescribe controlled substance 2-5 prohibited drugs

d)

MD can prescribe all controlled substances prohibited drugs even without prescripLon

35.

Ante cibus means:

a)

before meals

b)

when needed

c)

at bed Lme

d)

by mouth

36.

Hora somni means:

a)

before meals

b)

when needed

c)

at bed Lme

d)

by mouth

37.

Pro re nata means:

a)

as desired

b)

by mouth

c)

when needed

d)

at night

38.

Per os means:

a)

as desired

b)

by mouth

c)

when needed

d)

at night

39.

Nocte means:

a)

as desired

b)

by mouth

c)

when needed

d)

at night

40.

The following are funcLons of the FDA except:

a)

take care of users of prohibited drugs

b)

approved newly discovered drugs

c)

monitor exisLng drugs on the market

d)

regulate and control prohibited drugs

41.

Legal concept where the prescribers educate the paLent all about the medicaLon prior to its use:

a)

doctrine of respond superior

b)

doctrine of informed consent

c)

doctrine of liability

d)

minors and incompetent

42.

Which of the following should not be present at the transcripLon?

a)

frequency of giving the medicaLon

b)

route of giving the medicaLon

c)

duraLon of taking the medicaLon

d)

dosage/concentraLon of the medicaLon

43.

Which of the following should not present in the inscripLon?

a)

brand name of medicaLon

b)

generic name

c)

dosage of the drug

d)

preparaLon of the drug

44.

What is the reason why prescriber should write the date on the prescripLon?

a)

regulated medicaLon has expiraLon

b)

prescriber will remember when the paLent took the medicaLon

c)

important for senior ciLzen acquiring 20% discount

d)

all of the above

45.

Legal concept wherein the prescribers educate parents of ADD all about the medicaLons:

a)

doctrine of respond superior

b)

doctrine of informed consent

c)

doctrine of liability

d)

minors and incompetent

46.

Body of the PO:

a)

superscripLon

b)

subscripLon

c)

inscripLon

d)

transcripLon

47.

Part of prescripLon order which means “you write”:

a)

superscripLon

b)

subscripLon

c)

inscripLon

d)

transcripLon

48.

What is meaning of PTR in PO?

a)

Philippines Tax Reform

b)

Professional Tax RegulaLon

c)

Professional Tax Receipt

d)

Pharmacy Tariff Receipt

49.

Which of the following is not DPAs for opto

a)

cyclopentolate

b)

fluorescein

c)

pilocarpine

d)

tropicamide

50.

Which of the following is not the specific receptor theory-mechanism of acLon of proparacaine?

a)

block the internal opening of sodium channels

b)

incorporate and becomes part of cell membrane

c)

block the external opening of sodium channels

d)

compete with calcium guarding Na+ channels

51.

The following are ester anesthetic agents except:

a)

proparacaine

b)

cocaine

c)

tetracaine

d)

prilocaine

52.

At what time will full cornea sensitivity return after installation of benoxinate?

a)

30 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

15 seconds

d)

20 minutes

53.

Only natural occurring local-acting anesthesia:

a)

proparacaine

b)

cocaine

c)

tetracaine

d)

prilocaine

54.

What is the Latin of urgent?

a)

hora somni

b)

debus alternis

c)

SOS

d)

Stat

55.

English meaning of 'gutta

a)

help

b)

apply

c)

drop

d)

every

56.

Equivalent of 1 tablespoon full in ml?

a)

1 ml

b)

15 ml

c)

5 ml

d)

10 ml

57.

Enzyme which degrade the neurotransmitter of adrenergic neurons:

a)

monoamine oxidase

b)

cathecol-o-methyl transferase

c)

acetylcholinesterase

d)

A & B only

58.

Enzyme which degrade the neurotransmitter of cholinergic neurons:

a)

monoamine oxidase

b)

cathecol-o-methyl transferase

c)

acetylcholinesterase

d)

A & B only

59.

Metabolite of neurotransmitter of adrenergic neurons acted upon by the enzyme MAO & COMT:

a)

mandelic acid

b)

adrenalin

c)

acetate + choline

d)

amphetamine

60.

Metabolite of neurotransmitter of cholinergic neurons acted upon by the enzyme AchE:

a)

mandelic acid

b)

adrenalin

c)

acetate + choline

d)

amphetamine

61.

Most common ocular side effect of Pilocarpine on accommodation:

a)

ciliary spasms

b)

cataract formation

c)

allergy

d)

leukoma

62.

Which of the following indirect acting parasympathomimetic agent is not used for glaucoma?

a)

physostigmine

b)

demecarium

c)

echothiopate

d)

pyridostigmine

63.

Effect of physostigmine at the pupil:

a)

dilate

b)

constrict

c)

no effect

d)

all of the above

64.

Effect of Carbachol at the pupil?

a)

dilate

b)

constrict

c)

no effect

d)

all of the above

65.

Added to Carbachol if this is instilled topically and enhance its absorption:

a)

thimerosal

b)

hyaluronidase

c)

benzalkonium chloride

d)

epinephrine

66.

Classify Carbachol:

a)

adrenomimetic agent

b)

adrenolytic agent

c)

direct-acting cholinomimetic agent

d)

indirect-acting cholinomimetic agent

67.

Pupils after exposure to nerve gases:

a)

dilate

b)

constrict

c)

no effect

d)

all of the above

68.

Antidote for physostigmine and insecticides poisoning:

a)

phenylephrine

b)

lidocaine

c)

atropine

d)

activated charcoal

69.

Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis:

a)

neostigmine

b)

physostigmine

c)

edrophonium

d)

ambenonium

70.

Diagnostic agent used to confirm myasthenia gravis:

a)

neostigmine

b)

physostigmine

c)

edrophonium

d)

ambenonium

71.

How long will it take to reverse the mydriatic effect tropicamide?

a)

30 minutes

b)

1.5 hours

c)

4-6 hours

d)

none of the above

72.

Antagonist of sympathetic nerve at alpha-2 receptor:

a)

yohimbine

b)

metoprolol

c)

phentolamine

d)

cyclopentolate

73.

Acetylcholine at bronchial smooth muscles

a)

contract resulting to bronchoconstriction

b)

relax resulting to bronchodilation

c)

no effect

d)

all of the above

74.

Beta-blockers at bronchial smooth muscles

a)

contract resulting to bronchoconstriction

b)

relax resulting to bronchodilation

c)

no effect

d)

all of the above

75.

Method of giving Trypan Blue during phacoemulsification:

a)

intravitreal injection

b)

topical

c)

posterior retrobulbar injection

d)

intracameral injection

76.

Use of boric acid as one of the ingredients of Fluress:

a)

chelation agent

b)

wetting agent

c)

preservative

d)

buffering agent

77.

Use of EDTA combined with thimerosal:

a)

chelation agent

b)

wetting agent

c)

preservative

d)

buffering agent

78.

Use of thimerosal as one of the components in CL solution:

a)

chelation agent

b)

wetting agent

c)

preservative

d)

buffering agent

79.

Use of benzalkonium chloride added to carbachol:

a)

chelation agent

b)

wetting agent

c)

preservative

d)

buffering agent

80.

Added to Fluress ophthalmic solution to prevent growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa:

a)

benzalkonium chloride

b)

ethylene diamine tetra acetate

c)

benoxinate

d)

bicarbonate

81.

Which dye for angiography will show not only the retinal vessels but also the choroidal vessels?

a)

Fluorescein dye

b)

Lissamine green dye

c)

Trypan blue dye

d)

Indocyanine green dye

82.

Commonly used dye for phacoemulsification:

a)

Fluorescein dye

b)

Lissamine green dye

c)

Trypan blue dye

d)

Indocyanine green dye

83.

Purpose of using trypan blue during phacoemulsification:

a)

stains the anterior lens capsule

b)

stains the anterior lens capsule

c)

stains the corneal endothelium

d)

stains the lens epithelium

84.

The following are the indications of using fluorescein dye in strip except:

a)

fitting of hard contact lens

b)

TBUT

c)

angiography

d)

Jones test I

85.

Indication of using fluorescein dye in TBUT:

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhage

d)

measures intraocular pressure

86.

Indication of using fluorescein dye during angiography:

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhage

d)

measures intraocular pressure

87.

Indication of using fluorescein dye in Jons Test I:

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhage

d)

measures intraocular pressure

88.

Indication of using fluorescein dye using applanation tonometer

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhage

d)

measures intraocular pressure

89.

What is the importance of doing Seidel test using fluorescein dye?

a)

determine aqueous leakage post-intraocular operations

b)

determine epithelial breaks wherein dye is located at A.H chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet Mosaic pattern of tear film

90.

Use of fluorescein dye in Herpes keratitis:

a)

determine aqueous leakage post-intraocular operations

b)

determine epithelial breaks wherein dye is located at A.H chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet Mosaic pattern of tear film

91.

Which of the following characteristic of fluorescein dye wherein the fluorescence or luminosity losses as the pH of the dye increases to >10 pH?

a)

Seidel test

b)

Fisher-Schweizer’s corneal mosaic

c)

Quenching phenomenon

d)

Pseudoflare

92.

Which of the following characteristic of fluorescein dye wherein the fluorescence or luminosity losses as the concentration is increased >0.010?

a)

Seidel test

b)

Fisher-Schweizer’s corneal mosaic

c)

Quenching phenomenon

d)

Pseudoflare

93.

The following are the indications of using the ICG instead of Fluorescein dye IV for angiography except:

a)

has allergy to iodofluorescein

b)

need to visualize choroidal neovascularization

c)

patient cannot afford ICG since it is expensive

d)

can still visualize retinal and choroidal vessels even with media opacities

94.

Dye used to assess lid wiper underneath the upper lid after using RGP contact lens with high myope and astigmatism:

a)

indocyanine green

b)

methylene blue

c)

trypan blue

d)

lissamine green

95.

Color code/cap of dorzolamide:

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

green

d)

turquoise

96.

Color code/cap of travaprost:

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

green

d)

turquoise

97.

Color code/cap of pilocarpine:

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

green

d)

turquoise

98.

Color code/cap of topical antibiotic:

a)

yellow

b)

orange

c)

blue

d)

brown

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