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Grade 12 Chemistry Model Examination

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following branches of chemistry involves separating, identifying and determining the relative amount of a sample of matter?

a)

Analytical chemistry

b)

Physical chemistry

c)

Organic chemistry

d)

Inorganic chemistry

2.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

10L=1dm3

b)

1L=10dm3

c)

1L=1dm3

d)

1L=1m3

3.

A piece of silver metal weighing 160 g is placed in graduated cylinder containing 220 ml of water. The volume of water now reads 240 ml. What is the density of the silver metal?

a)

8.5 g/ml

b)

8.0 g/ml

c)

0.73 g/ml

d)

0.35 g/ml

4.

What is the first step of the scientific method?

a)

Performing an experiment

b)

Forming a hypothesis

c)

Predicting the result of an experiment

d)

Making observation

5.

A student uses a digital balance (± 0.01), a thermometer (± 0.02), a measuring cylinder (± 0.03) and a beaker (± 0.04) during an experiment. Which of the above instrument is more precise?

a)

The beaker

b)

The digital balance

c)

The thermometer

d)

The measuring cylinders

6.

Which of the following postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory is disproved by the modern atomic theory?

a)

Atoms combine in small whole numbers to form compounds

b)

Elements are made up of small particles called atoms

c)

Atoms of different elements have different masses and size

d)

All atoms of the same elements are identical and have the same mass

7.

The main purpose of Robert Millikan’s oil drop experiment is to determine

a)

the ratio of mass of electron to charge of electron

b)

the speed of electron

c)

the magnitude of charge of electron

d)

the mass of electron

8.

Pb has an average atomic mass of 207.19 amu. The three major isotopes of Pb-206 (205.98 amu), Pb-207 (206.98 amu) and Pb-208 (207.98 amu). If the isotopes of Pb-207 and Pb-208 are present in equal amounts, what is the percent abundance of Pb-206, Pb-207 and Pb-208 respectively?

a)

19.34 %, 40.33 % and 40.33 %

b)

24.16 %, 37.92 % and 37.92 %

c)

15.22 %, 42.39 % and 42.39 %

d)

34.08 %, 32.96 % and 32.96 %

9.

Which region of electromagnetic spectrum is capable of inducing electron transition with the greatest energy?

a)

Orange

b)

Red

c)

Violet

d)

Green

10.

What is the wavelength of the yellow sodium emission, which has a frequency of 5. 09 x 10 14 s-1? (C = 3 x 10 8 m/s)

a)

400nm

b)

589nm

c)

670nm

d)

890nm

11.

What are the possible values of the azimuthally quantum number for an electron in the 4f sub shell?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

12.

How many 3d electrons are present in the ground state of Cr 24 52?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

4

d)

10

13.

All of the following properties of an element increases across a period. EXCEPT;

a)

Electron affinity

b)

Electronegativity

c)

Atomic size

d)

Ionization energy

14.

All of the following is the properties of ionic compounds in the solid phase. EXCEPT;

a)

High electrical conductivity

b)

High melting point

c)

High density

d)

Soluble in water

15.

Which of the following ionic compounds has the highest lattice energy?

a)

NaCl

b)

NaF

c)

MgO

d)

AlN

16.

Which one of the substances contains ionic, covalent and dative bonds between their atoms?

a)

KI

b)

NH4CN

c)

Mg3N2

d)

CH3OH

17.

All of the following molecules is an example polar covalent compound. EXCEPT;

a)

NH3

b)

SF4

c)

SO2

d)

CS2

18.

Which one of the following is non-polar molecule with individual bonds are Polar?

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

Cl2

d)

SO2

19.

Which bond between the following groups of elements will be the most polar?

a)

S-I

b)

S-Cl

c)

S-F

d)

S-Br

20.

Which one of the following is the geometry of ICl4?

a)

Octahedral

b)

Trigonal planar

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Square planar

21.

Which one of the following is NOT true of metallic bonding?

a)

It gives rise to excellent electrical conductivity

b)

Electrons are free to move throughout the structure

c)

The strength of metallic bonds increases down a group

d)

The strength of metallic bonding affects the boiling points of metals

22.

What type of hybridization is used by carbon in C2H2 (acetylene)?

a)

sp

b)

sp3

c)

sp2

d)

sp2d

23.

Which molecule listed below has two sigma (δ) and two pi (π) bonds?

a)

C2H4

b)

HCN

c)

N2F2

d)

N2

24.

Which of the following is the correct rate equation for the given elementary reaction?

a)

2A → P, Rate = K[A]

b)

A + 2B → P, Rate = K[A]2

c)

A + B + C → P, Rate = K[A][C]

d)

A + B → P, Rate = K[A][B]

25.

Given the reaction: 2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g), Rate = K[NO]2[O]. Which of the following is true if the pressure of NO is doubled?

a)

The reaction rate increases by a factor of four

b)

The reaction rate increases by a factor of two

c)

The reaction rate increases by a factor of three

d)

The reaction rate increases by a factor of eight

26.

Which conditions generally will increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

Decreasing temperature and increasing concentration of the reactants.

b)

Decreasing temperature and decreasing concentration of the reactants.

c)

Increasing temperature and increasing concentration of the reactants.

d)

Increasing temperature and decreasing concentration of the reactants.

27.

What is the value of rate constant (K) for first order reaction with half-life 3000 second?

a)

2. 31 x 10−3

b)

2. 31 x 10−4

c)

2079

d)

207.9

28.

For a certain reaction, rate = k[A]3/2 if the rate is 0.020 M/s when [A] = 1.0 M. What is the rate when [A] = 0.60 M?

a)

0.0033M/s

b)

0.04M/s

c)

0.033M/s

d)

0.0093M/s

29.

Which of the following is termolecular reaction?

a)

PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2

b)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

c)

2HI → H2 + I2

d)

2CO + O2 → 2CO2

30.

Which one of the following indicates the correct expression for the equilibrium constant (K)? PCl5(s) ⇌ PCl3(l) + Cl2(g)

a)

[PCl3][Cl2]/[PCl5]

b)

[Cl2]

c)

[PCl3][Cl2]

d)

[PCl5]/[PCl3][Cl2]

31.

In the reaction; 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌2SO3(g), K=100. What is the [O2], if the [SO2] = [SO3]?

a)

0.01

b)

0.1

c)

100

d)

0.001

32.

The relation between the equilibrium constant in terms of concentration and pressure for the given reaction; 2NaHCO3(s) ⇌ Na2CO3(s) + H2O (g) + CO2(g)

a)

KP = KcRT

b)

Kp = Kc(RT)2

c)

Kc = Kp(RT)2

d)

Kc = KpRT

33.

Which of the following statement correctly describes a chemical reaction at equilibrium?

a)

The concentrations of the products and reactants are equal

b)

The rate of the forward reaction is less than the reverse reaction

c)

The rate of the forward reaction is equal the reverse reaction

d)

The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the reverse reaction

34.

What is the degree of freedom, F for water, water vapor and ice in equilibrium?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

35.

What is the chemical name for Aspirin?

a)

Sodium salicylate

b)

Salicylic acid

c)

Methyl salicylate

d)

Acetyl salicylic acid

36.

What is the common name of the following structure?

a)

Formic acid

b)

Butyric acid

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Oxalic acid

37.

What is the IUPAC name of CH3COOCH2CH3?

a)

Ethylbutanoate

b)

Ethylethanoate

c)

Ethylpropanoate

d)

Ethylmethanoate

38.

Hydrolysis of propyl butanoate produces;

a)

Propanol and butanoic acid

b)

Butanol and propanoic acid

c)

Butanol and Propanoic acid

d)

Ethanol and Butanoic acid

39.

Which of the following statements concerning fats and oils is incorrect?

a)

They are glycerol triesters

b)

They are also called triacyl glycerols

c)

They are also called triglycerides

d)

They are fatty acid salts

40.

Which of the following types of compounds are expected products from the saponification of a fat?

a)

Glycerol, fatty acids and fatty acid salts

b)

Fatty acid salts and fatty acid

c)

Glycerol and fatty acid salts

d)

Glycerol and fatty acids

41.

One of the following is true about acid and base?

a)

Base is the substance when dissolved in water increases the [H3O+]

b)

Acid is the substance when dissolved in water increases the [OH-]

c)

Base is proton acceptor

d)

Acid is electron donor

42.

What are the products in the self-ionization of water molecules?

a)

H2O & OH-

b)

H3O+ & H2O

c)

H3O+ & O2-

d)

H3O+ & OH-

43.

The conjugate base of H3O+ is;

a)

OH-

b)

H2O

c)

NH3

d)

H+

44.

Given the reaction: H2PO4− + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + HPO42−. Which of the following represents a conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

H2PO4− and HPO42−

b)

H2PO4− and H3O+

c)

H2PO4− and H2O

d)

H2O and HPO42−

45.

The POH of a 0.00008 M NaOH aqueous solution is;

a)

3.1

b)

4.1

c)

5.1

d)

2.1

46.

What is the PH of an aqueous solution in which [OH-] =10000 [H3O+] at 25 °C?

a)

4

b)

12

c)

8

d)

9

47.

What is the percent dissociation in 1M solution of HF containing the concentration of [H3O+] = 2.7 × 10-2 M?

a)

37 %

b)

3.7 %

c)

2.7 %

d)

27 %

48.

The concentration of H3O+ and OH− respectively with POH = 3 at 25 °C are

a)

1.0× 10-11 M and 1.0 × 10-3 M

b)

1.0 × 10-3 M and 1.0× 10-11 M

c)

1.0 × 10-2 M and 1.0 × 10-12 M

d)

1.0 × 10-10 M and 1.0× 10-4 M

49.

Which of the following is a property of 1.0 M HCl but not a property of 1.0 M CH3COOH?

a)

Turns litmus red

b)

Ionizes completely

c)

Has a PH less than 7

d)

Produces H3O+ in solution

50.

What is the PH and POH of an aqueous solution at 25 °C if [H3O+] = 0.0004 M respectively

a)

3.4 and 10.6

b)

2.6 and 11.4

c)

8.6 and 5.4

d)

7.6 and 6.4

51.

What is the effect if 0.3 M of CH3COONa is added into aqueous solution of 0.2 M CH3COOH?

a)

CH3COOH becomes more acidic

b)

The concentration H3O+ will increase

c)

The equilibrium shifts to the left

d)

PH value will decrease

52.

How is a buffer solution prepared?

a)

By mixing a weak acid and a strong acid

b)

By mixing a strong base and a weak base

c)

By mixing a weak acid and its conjugate base

d)

By mixing a strong acid and its conjugate base

53.

How is a buffer solution prepared?

a)

By mixing a weak acid and a strong acid

b)

By mixing a strong base and its conjugate acid

c)

By mixing a strong acid and its conjugate base

d)

By mixing a weak acid and its conjugate base

54.

The POH of an aqueous solution which is created by adding 0.5 M NH3 and 0.5 M NH4Cl (Kb NH3 = 1.8x10−5)

a)

9.26

b)

10.26

c)

4.74

d)

3.74

55.

In which of the following combination buffer solution possibly formed?

a)

CH3COOH/HCl

b)

NaOH/HNO3

c)

HCl/NaOH

d)

CH3COOH/CH3COONa

56.

The Ka of benzoic acid is 6. 30 x 10−5. What is the pH of a buffer prepared by combining 50 ml of 1.0 M potassium benzoate and 50 ml of 1.0 M benzoic acid?

a)

4.2

b)

3.7

c)

3.4

d)

1.7

57.

Which of the following is basic salt?

a)

NH4NO3

b)

HCOOK

c)

NaCl

d)

NH4Cl

58.

Which one of the following hydrolysis of salt result acidic solution?

a)

Weak acid and strong base

b)

Strong acid and Strong base

c)

Weak base and strong acid

d)

Weak acid and Salt of the week acid

59.

The acid-base indicator methyl orange has a Ka of 1 x 10−6. Its acidic form is red while its basic form is yellow. If methyl orange is added to a solution with a pH = 5, the color will be;

a)

Pink

b)

Orange

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

60.

Which of the following titration will have an equivalence point at a pH > 7?

a)

Weak acid with weak base

b)

Weak acid with strong base

c)

Strong acid with weak base

d)

Strong acid with strong base

61.

What volume of 0.2 M KOH is required to neutralize completely 50 mL of 1.5 M H2SO4?

a)

750 mL

b)

375mL

c)

250mL

d)

50mL

62.

What is the normality of 0.3 M solution of Al2(SO4)3?

a)

0.9

b)

1.8

c)

0.6

d)

0.9

63.

What is the molarity from complete ionization of 1.5N H2SO4?

a)

3 M

b)

1.5M

c)

2 M

d)

0.75m

64.

Which of the following can conduct electricity?

a)

Salt solution

b)

Sugar solution

c)

Ethanol solution

d)

Nonpolar solution

65.

Which of the following is not correct about electrolytic cells?

a)

Cathode is negative electrode

b)

Oxidation occurs at the anode

c)

Convert chemical to electrical energy

d)

Redox reaction takes place in the cells

66.

The oxidation number of phosphorous is PO43− is;

a)

-5

b)

-3

c)

+5

d)

+1

67.

In the reaction H2S(aq) + I2(aq) ⇌ S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2I−(aq) the reducing agent is:

a)

S (s)

b)

H2S (aq)

c)

2I−(aq)

d)

I2(aq)

68.

One of the following is true in the electrolysis of Brine solution?

a)

NaOH is formed in the cell

b)

Cl2 is formed at cathode

c)

H2 is formed at anode

d)

Na is formed at cathode

69.

The products for the electrolysis of molten CuCl2

a)

O2 at anode and Cl2 at cathode

b)

Cu at anode and O2 at cathode

c)

Cl2 at anode and H2 at cathode

d)

Cl2 at anode and Cu at cathode

70.

For the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of Na2SO4

a)

O2 at cathode & H2 at anode are formed

b)

Na at cathode & S2 at anode are formed

c)

H2 at cathode & O2 at anode are formed

d)

SO2 at cathode & Na at anode are formed.

71.

From the electrolysis of aqueous solution of AgNO3

a)

H2 is formed at cathode

b)

Ag is formed at cathode

c)

O2 is formed at Cathode

d)

NaOH is formed in the cell

72.

In the electrolysis of aqueous solution of copper sulphate using active copper electrode;

a)

Cu (s) →Cu2+(aq) + 2e

b)

2H+(aq) + 2e →H2(g)

c)

4OH−(aq) →O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e

d)

Cu (s) + H2O(l) → Cu(OH)2 + H2(g)

73.

What mass of Mg is formed by passing a current of 0.965 A through molten MgCl2 for a period of 100 seconds (Mg 12 24, F=96500 C mol)?

a)

10.2 g

b)

0.024 g

c)

34.05 g

d)

0.012 g

74.

What is the mass of Aluminium deposited by the electrolysis of aqueous solution Al2(SO4)3 placed in series with AgNO3 aqueous solution when 10.8 g of Ag is deposited? (Molar mass of Ag=108, Al=27)

a)

0.9g

b)

27g

c)

2.7g

d)

9g

75.

The volume of O2 formed at STP when OH− is oxidized by passing 100A in 965 seconds?

a)

9.6 L

b)

22.4 L

c)

5.6 L

d)

0.25 L

76.

All of the following is the uses of electrolysis. Except;

a)

Purification of metals

b)

Electroplating of metals

c)

Production of metals

d)

Production of electricity

77.

All of the following is the uses of electroplating. Except;

a)

Prevent corrosion

b)

Increase the beauty of the metals

c)

Increase the reaction at the cathode

d)

Increase the strength of the metals

78.

Consider the standard voltaic cell, which answer identifies the cathode and gives the E0? Given E0red(Au+3/Au=1.50 v, Fe+2/Fe= - 0.44v)

a)

Fe, -0.44v

b)

Au, 1.94v.

c)

Au,1.06v

d)

Fe,1.94v

79.

Which one of the following is true about Galvanic cell?

a)

Anode is positive terminal and the place where oxidation occurs

b)

Cathode is the negative terminal and the place where reduction occurs

c)

Electron flows from cathode terminal to anode terminal

d)

Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy

80.

Given the reaction: x(s) + y2+(aq) → x2+(aq) + y(s). What is the correct representation of the cell notation?

a)

x(s) / x2+(aq) // y2+(aq) / y(s)

b)

y(s) / y2+(aq) // x2+(aq) / x(s)

c)

x2+(aq) / x(s) // y(s) / y2+(aq)

d)

y2+(aq) / y(s) // x2+(aq) / x(s)

81.

Which of the following is correct about automobile batteries?

a)

Lead is used as cathode

b)

PbO2 is used as anode

c)

H2SO4 is used as electrolyte

d)

It is an example of primary cells

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