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CUET LEVEL I NEET MOCK TEST -1 Zoology (2025-2026)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the estimated range of the number of species known and described, reflecting Earth's biodiversity?

a)

0.5 - 1 million

b)

1.7 - 1.8 million

c)

5 - 10 million

d)

Over 100 million

2.

The process by which living organisms are named such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the world is called:

a)

Identification

b)

Classification

c)

Nomenclature

d)

Systematics

3.

Identification is a necessary step before naming an organism. Which of the following best describes identification?

a)

Grouping organisms into convenient categories

b)

Assigning a scientific name based on evolutionary relationships

c)

Standardizing names globally

d)

Describing an organism correctly and knowing what name is attached to it

4.

For plants, scientific names are based on principles and criteria provided in which international code?

a)

ICBN

b)

ICZN

c)

IUCN

d)

ICNV

5.

The system of providing a scientific name with two components, known as Binomial Nomenclature, was introduced by:

a)

Aristotle

b)

R.H. Whittaker

c)

Ernst Mayr

d)

Carolus Linnaeus

6.

In the scientific name Mangifera indica,'Mangifera' represents the:

a)

Specific epithet

b)

Species

c)

Family

d)

Genus

7.

Which rule of nomenclature states that the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter, while the specific epithet starts with a small letter?

a)

Rule 4

b)

Rule 1

c)

Rule 3

d)

Rule 2

8.

According to the universal rules of nomenclature, how should biological names be presented when handwritten?

a)

Only the genus name is underlined.

b)

Both words are separately underlined

c)

Both words are written in block letters.

d)

Only the specific epithet is underlined.

9.

The process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories based on some easily observable characters is called:

a)

Identification

b)

Nomenclature

c)

Systematics

d)

Classification

10.

The scientific term used for convenient categories that help in the study of organisms and can indicate different hierarchical levels is:

a)

Species

b)

Taxa

c)

Classes

d)

Genera

11.

The study branch that deals with characterisation, identification, classification, and nomenclature of organisms is known as:

a)

Systematics

b)

Biology

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Morphology

12.

Which of the following statements about 'taxa' is correct according to the sources?

a)

Animals', 'mammals', and 'dogs' are all taxa representing different levels

b)

Taxa only refer to the species level

c)

Taxa are categories based solely on an organism's use to humans.

d)

Wheat' is a species, but not a taxon

13.

What was the title of Linnaeus's publication related to the systematic arrangement of organisms?

a)

Systema Naturae

b)

Genera Plantarum

c)

Philosophia Botanica

d)

Species Plantarum

14.

Each category in a taxonomic arrangement, referred to as a unit of classification, is commonly termed as a:

a)

Species

b)

Taxon

c)

Class

d)

Genus

15.

Which of the following is the lowest category in the taxonomic hierarchy for both plant and animal kingdoms?

a)

Genus

b)

Family

c)

Species

d)

Order

16.

A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities is considered a:

a)

Species

b)

Genus

c)

Family

d)

Order

17.

Panthera leo*, *P. pardus*, and *P. tigris* are all species belonging to the genus *Panthera*. This genus differs from *Felis* which includes:

a)

Dogs

b)

Lions

c)

Leopards

d)

Cats

18.

The order Primata, comprising monkey, gorilla, and gibbon, is placed in which Class along with the order Carnivora?

a)

Chordata

b)

Animalia

c)

Mammalia

d)

Insecta

19.

Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals constitute the next higher category called:

a)

Kingdom

b)

Division

c)

Order

d)

Phylum

20.

As one moves from species to kingdom in the taxonomic hierarchy, what happens to the number of common characteristics shared by members within a taxon?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains constant

d)

It first increases then decreases

21.

The mode of nutrition in Kingdom Animalia is described as:

a)

Saprotrophic

b)

Parasitic

c)

Autotrophic

d)

Holozoic

22.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of organisms belonging to Kingdom Animalia, as described in the sources?

a)

Presence of cell wall and autotrophic nutrition

b)

Unicellular organization and presence of cell wall

c)

Autotrophic nutrition and multicellular organization

d)

Lack of cell walls and heterotrophic nutrition

23.

Organisms in Kingdom Animalia digest their food in an internal cavity and store food reserves primarily as:

a)

Glycogen or fat

b)

Starch or cellulose

c)

Proteins or nucleic acids

d)

Amino acids or glucose

24.

Most organisms in Kingdom Animalia are capable of:

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Fixing nitrogen

c)

Locomotion

d)

Forming fruiting bodies

25.

The five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker does not mention:

a)

Monera and Protista

b)

Fungi and Plantae

c)

Animalia and Monera

d)

Lichens and acellular organisms like viruses

26.

Which statement accurately describes viruses outside a living cell, according to the sources?

a)

They have an inert crystalline structure

b)

They are active and perform metabolic functions

c)

They grow and reproduce independently

d)

They are free-living multicellular organisms

27.

The scientist who recognized certain microbes as the causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco and found them to be smaller than bacteria was:

a)

M.W. Beijerinck (1898)

b)

Dmitri Ivanowsky (1892)

c)

W.M. Stanley (1935)

d)

R.H. Whittaker (1969)

28.

M.W. Beijerinck (1898) named the new pathogen causing tobacco mosaic disease as "virus" and called the fluid:

a)

Virulent pathogen fluid

b)

Infectious crystalline fluid

c)

Contagium vivum fluidum

d)

Venomous living fluid

29.

Which of the following statements about the genetic material of viruses is universally true, as per the provided information?

a)

All viruses contain both RNA and DNA

b)

A virus contains either RNA or DNA, but never both

c)

Viruses only contain single-stranded RNA

d)

All plant viruses have double-stranded DNA

30.

W.M. Stanley (1935) made a significant discovery about viruses. What was it?

a)

Viruses are obligate parasites

b)

Viruses cause diseases in plants and animals

c)

Viruses could be crystallized and largely consist of proteins

d)

Viruses contain either RNA or DNA.

31.

In general, viruses that infect plants typically have:

a)

Double-stranded DNA

b)

Double-stranded RNA

c)

Either single or double-stranded DNA

d)

Single-stranded RNA

32.

Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages are usually:

a)

Single-stranded RNA viruses

b)

Double-stranded DNA viruses

c)

Single-stranded DNA viruses

d)

Double-stranded RNA viruses

33.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a common viral disease in humans in the sources?

a)

Mumps

b)

Smallpox

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Herpes

34.

The small subunits that make up the protein coat of a virus are called:

a)

Nucleoproteins

b)

Capsomeres

c)

Enzymes

d)

Genetic elements

35.

The protein coat of a virus, which protects the nucleic acid, is called a:

a)

Viroid

b)

Prion

c)

Capsomere

d)

Capsid

36.

Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by:

a)

A virus

b)

A viroid

c)

A prion

d)

A bacterium

37.

Prions are infectious agents consisting of:

a)

Free RNA

b)

DNA and Protein

c)

Capsomeres

d)

Abnormally folded protein

38.

Prions cause certain infectious neurological diseases. Which disease is listed as an analogous variant of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) in humans?

a)

Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD)

b)

Influenza

c)

Smallpox

d)

AIDS

39.

Lichens represent a symbiotic association between which two components?

a)

Bacteria and Fungi

b)

Viruses and Algae

c)

Algae and Fungi

d)

Protozoans and Fungi

40.

In a lichen, the algal component is known as the:

a)

Bacteriobiont

b)

Phycobiont

c)

Zoobiont

d)

Mycobiont

41.

In the symbiotic association of lichens, the fungal component is referred to as the:

a)

Phycobiont

b)

Mycobiont

c)

Autotroph

d)

Chemotroph

42.

What is the role of the algal component (phycobiont) in a lichen?

a)

To prepare food for the fungi

b)

To provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients.

c)

To fix atmospheric nitrogen.

d)

To decompose dead organic matter.

43.

Which of the following infectious agents is smaller than viruses and causes potato spindle tuber disease, lacking a protein coat?

a)

Prion

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Viroid

d)

Mycoplasma

44.

What ecological significance do lichens hold, according to the sources?

a)

They are primarily decomposers in aquatic habitats

b)

They are important nitrogen fixes in marshy areas

c)

They cause diseases in polluted environments

d)

They are very good pollution indicators

45.

Why are lichens considered good pollution indicators?

a)

They thrive in areas with high levels of pollution

b)

They change color in the presence of pollutants

c)

They do not grow in polluted areas

d)

They absorb pollutants without showing any adverse effects