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Preliminary Business Studies Revision Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which option best identifies an SME in the Australian context?

a)

Independently owned/operated; fewer than 200 employees in most industries

b)

Any business earning under $10m revenue

c)

Any sole trader regardless of size

d)

Any business not listed on the ASX

2.

What is the most significant economic role of SMEs in Australia?

a)

Driving employment and innovation

b)

Setting monetary policy

c)

Collecting GST for states

d)

Controlling exchange rates

3.

SMEs primarily contribute to GDP by:

a)

Producing goods/services and employing large numbers of people

b)

Setting monetary policy

c)

Paying higher company tax than large firms

d)

Importing to increase the trade deficit

4.

Which factor best explains why many niche SMEs succeed?

a)

Flexibility and close customer relationships

b)

Access to monopoly power

c)

Guaranteed bank finance

d)

High levels of bureaucracy

5.

Which is an internal cause of SME failure?

a)

Poor financial management and cash flow control

b)

Sudden change in exchange rates

c)

Entry of a new competitor

d)

New government regulation

6.

Which is an external cause of SME failure?

a)

Interest rate rises increasing loan costs

b)

Inaccurate stock records

c)

Overstaffing

d)

Owner’s inexperience

7.

How do SMEs support Australia’s Balance of Payments?

a)

By exporting goods/services in niche markets

b)

By increasing government spending

c)

By reducing savings rates

d)

By setting tariffs

8.

Which feature is typical of an SME?

a)

Simple organisational structure with direct owner management

b)

Separation of ownership and control

c)

Global oligopoly power

d)

Multi-layer board committees

9.

Which combination most improves SME survival in the first five years?

a)

Sound planning, access to information, and prudent cash management

b)

Rapid expansion, high debt, and price cutting

c)

Minimal record keeping and informal HR

d)

Relying on one major customer

10.

Why do SMEs increase market competition?

a)

They offer alternative suppliers and reduce barriers to entry

b)

They coordinate prices with large firms

c)

They receive exclusive government contracts

d)

They set industry-wide wages

11.

Which is a personal quality linked to successful entrepreneurship?

a)

Motivation and resilience

b)

Guaranteed risk-free attitude

c)

Avoidance of innovation

d)

Delegating all decisions

12.

How do qualifications and skills influence SME establishment?

a)

They improve capability to operate and comply with regulations

b)

They remove the need for market research

c)

They guarantee bank finance approval

d)

They eliminate competition

13.

Cultural background may influence entrepreneurs by:

a)

Shaping networks, market insights and product ideas

b)

Ensuring legal immunity

c)

Providing automatic grants

d)

Eliminating the need for planning

14.

Which source offers free guidance for start-ups in NSW?

a)

Government small business websites and Service NSW

b)

Only paid management consultants

c)

Foreign central banks

d)

Private equity firms

15.

Which best distinguishes an entrepreneur from a manager?

a)

Entrepreneurs assume risk to create value; managers organise resources to achieve goals

b)

Entrepreneurs only work alone; managers work in teams

c)

Entrepreneurs avoid planning; managers plan

d)

Entrepreneurs are volunteers; managers are paid

16.

How is motivation critical at start-up?

a)

It sustains effort through uncertainty and setbacks

b)

It guarantees profit

c)

It replaces capital requirements

d)

It removes legal obligations

17.

How does industry networking support SME success?

a)

Provides market information, mentors and supplier contacts

b)

Eliminates competition

c)

Locks in customers by law

d)

Avoids the need for a business plan

18.

Which is a non-financial reward of entrepreneurship?

a)

Independence and work flexibility

b)

Guaranteed leave loading

c)

Award wage protection

d)

Government pension

19.

Why use an accountant when establishing a business?

a)

To set up records, advise on structure, and tax compliance

b)

To approve all prices by law

c)

To write employment contracts for government

d)

To eliminate GST obligations

20.

To what extent can entrepreneurship offset limited capital at start-up?

a)

It helps via creative, low-cost strategies but does not replace funding needs

b)

It fully replaces finance requirements

c)

Copying any competitor without change

d)

It is irrelevant to resource use

21.

Which is a common source of a viable business idea?

a)

Identified customer pain point or unmet need

b)

Random product with no target market

c)

Ignoring feedback

d)

Random product with no target market

22.

Which indicator best suggests high competitive intensity in a local market?

a)

Many similar firms with low switching costs for customers

b)

High barriers to entry and one dominant firm

c)

Geographic isolation with one supplier

d)

Government monopoly

23.

Which best distinguishes buying an existing business from starting new?

a)

Existing business has customers and systems; new business starts from scratch

b)

Existing business is always cheaper

c)

New business has guaranteed success

d)

Existing business has no risk

24.

Which is a key advantage of franchising for a new owner?

a)

Proven model and brand recognition

b)

Complete strategic freedom

c)

No fees or royalties

d)

Guaranteed profitability

25.

Which is a likely disadvantage of franchising?

a)

Ongoing fees and less control over business decisions

b)

No training support

c)

No marketing assistance

d)

Unlimited product range freedom

26.

Why does analysing competitors help planning?

a)

It informs differentiation and pricing decisions

b)

It guarantees monopoly power

c)

It replaces market research

d)

It eliminates the need for promotion

27.

Which option best lowers start-up risk?

a)

Buying an existing profitable business after due diligence

b)

Starting new without research

c)

Leasing equipment with no plan

d)

Ignoring cash flow needs

28.

Why is a minimum viable product (MVP) useful?

a)

It tests demand quickly with low cost

b)

It locks in patents automatically

c)

It replaces a business plan

d)

It ensures market dominance

29.

A town already has two 24/7 gyms. Which strategy best avoids direct price wars for a new gym entrant?

a)

Differentiate on niche classes and community programs

b)

Match competitor prices and features exactly

c)

Spend nothing on marketing

d)

Reduce opening hours

30.

Which is typically part of due diligence when buying a business?

a)

Reviewing financial statements and existing contracts

b)

Announcing new prices before purchase

c)

Changing legal structure immediately

d)

Firing existing staff on day one

31.

Which is a service rather than a good?

a)

Personal training session

b)

Coffee beans

c)

T-shirt

d)

Laptop

32.

If demand is price sensitive, which pricing strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Competitive pricing near rivals’ prices

b)

Premium pricing above market

c)

Price skimming far above market

d)

No pricing strategy

33.

Which location is most suitable for a convenience-based café?

a)

High foot-traffic strip near transport

b)

Remote industrial estate

c)

Second-floor office hidden from street

d)

Warehouse district open weekends only

34.

Offering both dine-in and delivery primarily affects which marketing mix element?

a)

Place (distribution)

b)

Product quality

c)

Promotion only

d)

People only

35.

A smoothie bar sets price at 8withvariablecost8 with variable cost 3 and fixed costs $5,000/month. Break-even units?

a)

1000

b)

625

c)

1600

d)

500

36.

What is the main risk of aggressive discounting to gain market share?

a)

Eroded margins and unsustainable expectations

b)

Improved brand equity

c)

Guaranteed loyalty

d)

Higher perceived quality

37.

Which location factor most explains success of a suburban childcare centre?

a)

Proximity to residential areas and parking

b)

Distance from customers

c)

Lack of signage

d)

Restricted opening hours

38.

Which is an augmented product feature for a gym membership?

a)

Access to a mobile app and training plans

b)

The physical treadmill

c)

Electricity used on site

d)

Lease of the building

39.

Online-only retail primarily changes which cost structure element?

a)

Lower store rent but higher shipping/returns costs

b)

Higher store rent and utilities

c)

No need for inventory

d)

Guaranteed faster delivery

40.

If price is 10,variablecost10, variable cost 6, and fixed cost $4,000, break-even units equal:

a)

1,000

b)

400

c)

666

d)

2,500

41.

Which is an example of equity finance?

a)

Owner’s savings invested into the business

b)

Bank overdraft

c)

Trade credit

d)

Term loan

42.

Main cost of debt finance to a business is:

a)

Interest payments and fees

b)

Loss of ownership

c)

Dividend obligations

d)

Reduced tax obligations

43.

Which distinguishes debt from equity finance?

a)

Debt must be repaid with interest; equity involves ownership shares

b)

Debt gives voting rights; equity does not

c)

Debt requires dividends; equity requires interest

d)

Debt has no covenants; equity does

44.

Why is cash flow forecasting essential for SMEs?

a)

To ensure liquidity for bills despite seasonal sales

b)

To eliminate fixed costs

c)

To set exchange rates

d)

To avoid budgeting

45.

A $50,000 loan at 8% simple annual interest costs how much in interest for one year?

a)

$4,000

b)

$8,000

c)

$400

d)

$6,000

46.

When might trade credit be most useful?

a)

To smooth short-term inventory purchases without immediate cash

b)

To finance long-term property purchases

c)

To raise owner equity

d)

To pay dividends

47.

High gearing (high debt-to-equity) increases which risk most?

a)

Interest rate and cash flow stress

b)

Loss of brand identity

c)

Supplier concentration

d)

Technological obsolescence only

48.

If monthly fixed costs are 12,000andcontributionperunitis12,000 and contribution per unit is 6, monthly break-even units are:

a)

2,000

b)

720

c)

1,200

d)

12,006

49.

Which item is a cash outflow?

a)

Loan principal repayment

b)

Accrued depreciation

c)

Accounts receivable increase

d)

Inventory revaluation gain

50.

Why might an SME choose equity over debt at start-up?

a)

Lower cash burden from repayments, despite diluted ownership

b)

Guaranteed control retention

c)

Faster approval than any loan

d)

Better tax deductibility

51.

Registering a business name in Australia primarily:

a)

Allows trading under a chosen name

b)

Creates a separate legal entity automatically

c)

Provides trademark protection automatically

d)

Eliminates need for an ABN

52.

Zoning laws most directly affect which aspect of business?

a)

Where certain business activities can operate

b)

Which prices may be charged

c)

How many staff must be hired

d)

What software must be used

53.

A key WHS responsibility of employers is to:

a)

Provide a safe workplace and training

b)

Set wages above award at all times

c)

Provide free lunch

d)

Guarantee promotions

54.

Which is a non-wage labour cost?

a)

Superannuation contributions

b)

Overtime pay

c)

Base hourly wage

d)

Commission

55.

Why do skills shortages matter to SMEs?

a)

They increase wages and reduce productivity

b)

They eliminate demand

c)

They remove training needs

d)

They reduce competition for labour

56.

Which tax is federal in Australia?

a)

Company income tax

b)

Payroll tax

c)

Stamp duty

d)

Council rates

57.

Which statement about GST is correct?

a)

It is a 10% tax on most goods/services collected by businesses for the ATO

b)

It is a tax on company profits only

c)

It is a state tax set by NSW Treasury

d)

It is paid only by exporters

58.

Why is ethical tax compliance important?

a)

It reduces legal risk and supports public services

b)

It guarantees higher sales

c)

It eliminates competition

d)

It replaces financial planning

59.

Which approach best supports retention in a café?

a)

Clear rosters, training, and recognition programs

b)

Cutting all breaks to increase hours worked

c)

No feedback policy

d)

Random roster changes

60.

Country-of-origin food labelling mainly helps consumers to:

a)

Understand where ingredients are grown or processed

b)

Determine the exact profit margin

c)

Identify award wages paid

d)

Learn the business’s ABN

61.

Which section summarises the whole business plan for busy readers?

a)

Executive summary

b)

Operations plan

c)

Financial statements

d)

Appendices

62.

Why include a marketing plan in the business plan?

a)

To outline target market and strategies for the 4Ps

b)

To comply with labour law

c)

To replace budgeting

d)

To set tax rates

63.

Which pair shows internal vs external SWOT analysis correctly?

a)

Strengths/Weaknesses are internal; Opportunities/Threats are external

b)

Strengths/Threats are internal; Weaknesses/Opportunities are external

c)

All four are internal

d)

All four are external

64.

Which is an Opportunity for a suburban gym?

a)

New housing development nearby

b)

High staff turnover

c)

Aging equipment

d)

Poor cash flow

65.

What is the purpose of situational analysis?

a)

To assess current internal and external environment before choosing strategies

b)

To set tax rates

c)

To avoid market research

d)

To replace financial reporting

66.

If projected sales fall short of budget, which part of the plan must be revisited first?

a)

Cash flow forecasts and funding needs

b)

Legal structure

c)

Logo design

d)

Org chart titles

67.

Why include HR planning in a start-up?

a)

To match staffing, training and costs to operational needs

b)

To set global exchange rates

c)

To replace marketing activities

d)

To avoid compliance

68.

A 5-year expansion target is which type of goal?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

d)

Incidental

69.

Price 12,variablecost12, variable cost 5, fixed cost $7,000. Break-even units?

a)

1,000

b)

700

c)

500

d)

2,400

70.

Which strategy best converts a strength into growth for a café with a strong local brand?

a)

Launch a loyalty program and local partnerships

b)

Cut staff training

c)

Reduce product range randomly

d)

Avoid social media

71.

Budgeted profit 15K,actualprofit15K, actual profit 6K with sales below budget. First corrective action?

a)

Investigate demand and adjust pricing/promotion

b)

Increase fixed costs

c)

Ignore variance

d)

Borrow more immediately

72.

Which is an example of corrective action?

a)

Negotiating cheaper supplier contracts after overspending

b)

Reprinting the plan without changes

c)

Ignoring cash deficits

d)

Sacking staff without cause

73.

Why is a business plan critical to success?

a)

It sets goals, strategies, and financial forecasts used to guide decisions

b)

It guarantees profits

c)

It replaces management

d)

It removes market risks

74.

Which practice best improves team performance?

a)

Regular feedback, training and clear role definitions

b)

No induction

c)

Unpredictable rosters

d)

No delegation

75.

Sales increase each Nov–Dec annually. Best managerial response?

a)

Increase inventory and staffing for peak season

b)

Cut marketing in Oct

c)

Reduce opening hours in Dec

d)

Raise fixed costs permanently

76.

Which example shows sustained competitive advantage?

a)

Proprietary technology that lowers cost over time

b)

One-day promotion

c)

Copying rivals’ ads

d)

Random price cuts

77.

Opening 5 stores in 6 months funded by short-term debt mainly risks:

a)

Liquidity squeeze and failure if sales lag

b)

Instant economies of scale

c)

Guaranteed market share

d)

Lower interest rate risk

78.

How can POS data help a café?

a)

Identify top sellers and schedule staff accordingly

b)

Set tax rates

c)

Replace budgeting completely

d)

Eliminate fixed costs

79.

How do rising interest rates affect leveraged SMEs?

a)

Increase repayments and reduce cash flow

b)

Lower borrowing costs

c)

Boost discretionary demand

d)

Guarantee growth

80.

Sales 80,000;COGS80,000; COGS 32,000; expenses $38,000. Profit equals:

a)

$10,000

b)

$48,000

c)

$42,000

d)

$-

81.

Price is $5; expected sales is 3,000 units. Forecast revenue equals:

a)

$15,000

b)

$3,000

c)

$5,000

d)

$30,000

82.

Fixed costs 10,000;variable10,000; variable 2/unit; output 4,000 units. Total cost equals:

a)

$18,000

b)

$8,000

c)

$14,000

d)

$10,000

83.

A forecast shows negative cash in Month 2 but profit for the quarter. Why?

a)

Timing of inflows/outflows causes a temporary shortfall

b)

The profit figure must be wrong

c)

GST is always negative

d)

Sales were cash only

84.

When is equity preferable to debt?

a)

When early cash flows are uncertain and flexibility is needed

b)

When quick tax deductions are the only goal

c)

When control must never be shared

d)

When interest rates are zero forever

85.

Why do food businesses monitor labelling rules?

a)

Non-compliance risks fines and brand damage

b)

It reduces rent

c)

It increases wages automatically

d)

It sets exchange rates

86.

Which pair shows wage vs non-wage cost?

a)

Base pay vs superannuation

b)

Superannuation vs overtime

c)

Workers’ comp vs uniforms

d)

Training vs equipment

87.

Why do clear roles matter in an org chart?

a)

They reduce duplication and improve accountability

b)

They increase hierarchy for its own sake

c)

They guarantee promotions

d)

They eliminate training needs

88.

Which action best sustains a differentiation advantage?

a)

Continuous product innovation based on customer feedback

b)

One big launch then no updates

c)

Random price cuts

d)

Copying rivals’ menus

89.

High inflation most likely leads SMEs to: budgeted expenses 25,000;actual25,000; actual 27,500. What is the variance?

a)

Review prices and cost controls to protect margins

b)

Cut prices permanently

c)

Increase stock with no plan

d)

Ignore budgeting

90.

27,50027,500 - 25,000. What is the variance?

a)

$2,750 unfavourable

b)

$2,750 favourable

c)

$2,500 unfavourable

d)

$-

91.

Strategic vs operational goals differ because strategic goals are:

a)

Long-term and organisation-wide; operational are short-term and task-focused

b)

Short-term and task-focused; operational are long-term

c)

Always financial; operational are non-financial

d)

Set by staff only; operational by owners

92.

Mall vs strip location: which statement is most accurate?

a)

Malls have higher rent but greater foot traffic; strips offer street visibility and lower fixed costs

b)

Strips always have more traffic

c)

Malls have lower rents

d)

Location choice does not affect sales

93.

Rising interest rates most affect which finance source?

a)

Variable-rate bank loans

b)

Owner's equity

c)

Retained profits

d)

Trade credit on 0% terms

94.

Which is a legal requirement in hiring?

a)

Complying with anti-discrimination and Fair Work laws

b)

Offering above-award wages only

c)

Providing free meals

d)

Using only word-of-mouth ads

95.

If a café’s SWOT finds a threat of new low-cost entrants, which response aligns?

a)

Improve loyalty and differentiate on service/quality

b)

Slash prices to zero

c)

Stop marketing

d)

Increase fixed costs randomly

96.

Which KPI best measures sales productivity?

a)

Revenue per staff hour

b)

Floor area

c)

Number of suppliers

d)

Total assets

97.

Fixed 9,000;price9,000; price 15; variable $9. Break-even units?

a)

1,500

b)

600

c)

900

d)

10,000

98.

A key benefit of adding online ordering to a café is:

a)

Expanding reach and smoothing demand via pre-orders

b)

Eliminating all in-store costs

c)

Guaranteed 5-star reviews

d)

Removing the need for staff

99.

Which signal suggests resource over-extension?

a)

Stockouts, quality issues, and cash deficits after rapid expansion

b)

Higher training levels

c)

Improved cash reserves

d)

Lower debt ratios

100.

During a downturn, which strategy is most prudent for an SME?

a)

Tighten costs, protect cash flow, and focus on core customers

b)

Leverage up and expand rapidly

c)

Cease all marketing

d)

Ignore budgets