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Philippine Festivals and Folk Dances Quiz

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Philippine festival is recognized as the “Mother of All Festivals”?

a)

Sinulog Festival

b)

Pahiyas Festival

c)

Ati-Atihan Festival

d)

Panagbenga Festival

2.

The Sinulog Festival in Cebu is celebrated in honor of which religious icon?

a)

Our Lady of Peñafrancia

b)

Santo Niño

c)

San Lorenzo Ruiz

d)

Jesus the Nazarene

3.

In Lucban, Quezon, which festival decorates houses with colorful rice wafers, fruits, and vegetables?

a)

Panagbenga Festival

b)

Kadayawan Festival

c)

Pahiyas Festival

d)

MassKara Festival

4.

The Panagbenga Festival in Baguio City is best known for which feature?

a)

Floral floats and street dancing

b)

Street plays and giant puppets

c)

Masked dancers and live music

d)

Rice planting rituals

5.

Which festival is held every January in Iloilo City?

a)

Ati-Atihan Festival

b)

Dinagyang Festival

c)

Moriones Festival

d)

Pintados Festival

6.

MassKara Festival in Bacolod City symbolizes what?

a)

Victory in war

b)

Resilience and happiness despite hardships

c)

Bountiful harvest

d)

Devotion to San Isidro Labrador

7.

In Marinduque, the Moriones Festival features people dressed as what characters?

a)

Farmers with harvest

b)

Roman soldiers

c)

Fishermen with nets

d)

Spanish conquistadors

8.

The Kadayawan Festival in Davao City is primarily a celebration of what?

a)

Bountiful harvest and cultural heritage

b)

Military victory

c)

Catholic devotion

d)

Honoring national heroes

9.

Which Zamboanga festival showcases the blending of Christian, Muslim, and indigenous cultures?

a)

Hermosa Festival

b)

Zamboanga La Hermosa Festival

c)

Flores de Mayo

d)

Pintados-Kasadyaan Festival

10.

Pintados Festival in Leyte features dancers painted to look like what?

a)

Warriors with ancestral tattoos

b)

Flowers and gardens

c)

Saints and religious icons

d)

Birds and animals

11.

Which folk dance is often considered the “National Dance of the Philippines”?

a)

Tinikling

b)

Carinosa

c)

Sayaw sa Bangko

d)

Itik-itik

12.

The movements in Tinikling were inspired by which animal?

a)

Monkey

b)

Bird

c)

Fish

d)

Crab

13.

In Tinikling, what dance pattern do performers execute between bamboo poles?

a)

Step-close-step

b)

Slide-hop-step

c)

Hop-step between bamboo poles

d)

Sway-balance-sway

14.

Which step involves stepping to one side and closing the other foot beside it?

a)

Habanera step

b)

Kuradang step

c)

Change step

d)

Bleking step

15.

The Carinosa is a dance of courtship originating from where?

a)

Ilocos Region

b)

Panay Island

c)

Bicol Region

d)

Mindoro

16.

Which describes the Habanera step?

a)

Side step with three counts in 2/4 time

b)

Step-close-step in waltz rhythm

c)

Sideward step with pause and sway

d)

Heel-place followed by hop

17.

Which folk dance imitates a duck’s wading and splashing?

a)

Tinikling

b)

Itik-itik

c)

Maglalatik

d)

Pandanggo sa Ilaw

18.

In Maglalatik, coconut shells are worn on which body parts?

a)

Head and hands

b)

Back and shoulders

c)

Chest, back, hips, and thighs

d)

Legs and feet

19.

Which describes the Sway Balance pattern?

a)

Step to one side, cross behind, sway arms

b)

Step R foot sideward, point L in front, sway arms

c)

Step sideward, step close, sway arms sideward

d)

Step, swing, and step with pause

20.

Which folk dance requires balancing on benches?

a)

Sayaw sa Bangko

b)

Pandanggo sa Ilaw

c)

Kuratsa

d)

Singkil

21.

Singkil tells the story of which epic?

a)

Biag ni Lam-ang

b)

Hudhud

c)

Darangen

d)

Ibalong

22.

In Pandanggo sa Ilaw, what is balanced while dancing?

a)

Bamboo poles

b)

Glasses with candles

c)

Hats

d)

Coconut shells

23.

The Kuratsa originated in which region?

a)

Ilocos

b)

Leyte

c)

Bicol

d)

Palawan

24.

Which step involves placing one heel forward with toe up?

a)

Slide step

b)

Touch step

c)

Bleking step

d)

Habanera step

25.

Itik-itik originated from an improvisation mimicking what?

a)

Farmer planting rice

b)

Duck’s movements

c)

Hunter chasing animals

d)

Fisherman casting nets

26.

What is the most common formation in folk dances?

a)

Single line

b)

Square

c)

Partners facing each other

d)

Circular formation

27.

“Saludo” means what?

a)

Clapping

b)

Pointing the toe forward

c)

Bowing to partner or audience

d)

Jumping with arms up

28.

Which is NOT Visayan?

a)

Kuratsa

b)

Tinikling

c)

Pandanggo sa Ilaw

d)

Itik-itik

29.

Which is TRUE about folk dances?

a)

Only depict war rituals

b)

Preserve traditions and stories

c)

All religious

d)

No set pattern

30.

The Mazurka step uses how many counts?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

31.

Which uses fans and handkerchiefs in courtship?

a)

Tinikling

b)

Carinosa

c)

Kuratsa

d)

Pandanggo

32.

What is the usual time signature in folk dance music?

a)

2/4 and 3/4

b)

6/8

c)

4/4

d)

Free time

33.

Maglalatik depicts conflict between which groups?

a)

Farmers vs fishermen

b)

Christians vs Moros

c)

Hunters vs gatherers

d)

Nobles vs peasants

34.

Which step has three counts in waltz rhythm?

a)

Change step

b)

Kuradang step

c)

Mazurka

d)

Touch step

35.

Which dance shows a princess avoiding bamboo poles?

a)

Singkil

b)

Tinikling

c)

Pandanggo sa Ilaw

d)

Habanera Botoleña

36.

The challenge in Sayaw sa Bangko is what?

a)

Balancing glasses on head

b)

Dancing on benches

c)

Animal imitation

d)

Changing fast formations

37.

Pantomina is a Bicolano dance for what occasion?

a)

Harvest festival

b)

Weddings

c)

Religious procession

d)

Funerals

38.

Which is a war dance with bolos and shields?

a)

Sakuting

b)

Maglalatik

c)

Singkil

d)

Kappa Malong-Malong

39.

Hands on waist is also called what position?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

40.

Hands on waist is also called what position?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

41.

Why are folk dances important as Filipino literature?

a)

Purely entertainment

b)

Express culture and values through movement

c)

Only religious

d)

Without rhythm

42.

In volleyball, what is the official length of the court?

a)

18 meters

b)

16 meters

c)

20 meters

d)

14 meters

43.

How wide is a volleyball court?

a)

9 meters

b)

7 meters

c)

11 meters

d)

10 meters

44.

In basketball, how long is a professional court (FIBA standard)?

a)

28 meters

b)

26 meters

c)

30 meters

d)

25 meters

45.

How wide is a basketball court under FIBA rules?

a)

15 meters

b)

12 meters

c)

17 meters

d)

14 meters

46.

In tennis, what is the length of a doubles court?

a)

23.77 meters

b)

21 meters

c)

25 meters

d)

20 meters

47.

What is the width of a tennis doubles court?

a)

10.97 meters

b)

9 meters

c)

12 meters

d)

11.5 meters

48.

In badminton doubles, how long is the court?

a)

13.4 meters

b)

12 meters

c)

14 meters

d)

15 meters

49.

How wide is a doubles badminton court?

a)

6.1 meters

b)

5.2 meters

c)

7 meters

d)

5 meters

50.

In table tennis, what is the length of the standard table?

a)

2.74 meters

b)

3 meters

c)

2.5 meters

d)

2.9 meters

51.

How high is the net in table tennis?

a)

15.25 cm

b)

18 cm

c)

20 cm

d)

14 cm

52.

In sepak takraw, what is the net height for men?

a)

1.55 meters

b)

1.45 meters

c)

1.65 meters

d)

1.5 meters

53.

How long is the sepak takraw court?

a)

13.4 meters

b)

14 meters

c)

15 meters

d)

16 meters

54.

In football (soccer), what is the length range of the field (FIFA)?

a)

100–110 meters

b)

90–120 meters

c)

105–118 meters

d)

95–115 meters

55.

What is the width range of a FIFA soccer field?

a)

45–90 meters

b)

50–100 meters

c)

60–80 meters

d)

40–70 meters

56.

In baseball, how far is the pitcher’s mound from home plate?

a)

18.44 meters

b)

20 meters

c)

17 meters

d)

15 meters

57.

In softball, the distance from pitcher’s plate to home is?

a)

14.02 meters

b)

12 meters

c)

13 meters

d)

10 meters

58.

How wide is a standard swimming lane in competition?

a)

2.5 meters

b)

3 meters

c)

2 meters

d)

1.5 meters

59.

What is the length of an Olympic pool?

a)

50 meters

b)

25 meters

c)

100 meters

d)

75 meters

60.

In athletics, how long is one lap around a standard track?

a)

400 meters

b)

300 meters

c)

350 meters

d)

450 meters

61.

How many lanes are in a standard athletics track?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

10

d)

12

62.

In volleyball, how high is the men’s net?

a)

2.43 meters

b)

2.24 meters

c)

2.5 meters

d)

2.35 meters

63.

In basketball, what is the official ring height?

a)

3.05 meters

b)

3 meters

c)

2.95 meters

d)

3.1 meters

64.

In tennis, how high is the net at the center?

a)

0.914 meters

b)

1 meter

c)

0.95 meters

d)

1.1 meters

65.

In table tennis, what is the height of the table from the floor?

a)

76 cm

b)

72 cm

c)

80 cm

d)

70 cm

66.

How long is a futsal court for international matches?

a)

40 meters

b)

35 meters

c)

45 meters

d)

30 meters

67.

What is the width of a futsal court?

a)

20 meters

b)

18 meters

c)

22 meters

d)

15 meters

68.

In badminton, how high is the net at the center?

a)

1.524 meters

b)

1.55 meters

c)

1.6 meters

d)

1.5 meters

69.

In sepak takraw, how many players are on each side?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

6

d)

4

70.

How many innings are played in a standard baseball game?

a)

9

b)

7

c)

6

d)

8

71.

How many innings are played in softball (fastpitch)?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

6

d)

8

72.

Which skeletal function is most directly related to movement in PE?

a)

Protection

b)

Blood cell production

c)

Support

d)

Leverage for motion

73.

What bone is primarily responsible for weight-bearing during jumping activities?

a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Humerus

d)

Clavicle

74.

The shoulder girdle enhances throwing motions in sports because of the:

a)

Ball-and-socket joint of the humerus and scapula

b)

Hinge joint of the ulna

c)

Saddle joint of the wrist

d)

Fixed joint of the ribs

75.

Which type of joint allows flexion and extension, such as in running?

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Hinge joint

c)

Saddle joint

d)

Gliding joint

76.

What skeletal adaptation helps sprinters generate more power?

a)

Long femur and tibia

b)

Shortened metacarpals

c)

Curved clavicle

d)

Fused sacrum

77.

During basketball rebounding, which skeletal part provides shock absorption?

a)

Vertebrae

b)

Carpals

c)

Fibula

d)

Patella

78.

Why is the patella important in kicking?

a)

Reduces friction at the hip joint

b)

Protects the knee joint and improves leverage for quadriceps

c)

Lengthens the femur

d)

Provides blood supply

79.

Which skeletal system function directly supports respiration during PE activities?

a)

Ribs protecting lungs

b)

Clavicle supporting arms

c)

Pelvis anchoring muscles

d)

Skull protecting the brain

80.

What joint movement is critical in squats?

a)

Plantar flexion

b)

Hip flexion and extension

c)

Shoulder abduction

d)

Wrist pronation

81.

What movement is critical in squats?

a)

Plantar flexion

b)

Hip flexion and extension

c)

Shoulder abduction

d)

Wrist pronation

82.

Why is the spine’s S-shape essential in PE?

a)

Makes bones lighter

b)

Improves shock absorption and balance

c)

Shortens muscles

d)

Prevents growth plates from closing

83.

Which joint type is least mobile but most stable?

a)

Hinge

b)

Ball-and-socket

c)

Fibrous (immovable)

d)

Pivot

84.

Which bone is often fractured in contact sports like football or basketball falls?

a)

Radius

b)

Clavicle

c)

Femur

d)

Sternum

85.

Why do gymnasts need strong wrist joints?

a)

Support during weight-bearing stunts

b)

Improve balance only

c)

Prevent spinal curvature

d)

Reduce ankle strain

86.

Which skeletal feature enhances force transmission in volleyball spikes?

a)

Long phalanges

b)

Curved scapula and clavicle

c)

Thickened tibia

d)

Fibrous sutures

87.

Application of skeletal knowledge in teaching PE emphasizes:

a)

Identifying bones only

b)

Teaching movement efficiency and safety

c)

Memorising bone names

d)

Ignoring posture

88.

Which muscle group is essential for explosive vertical jumps?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Biceps

d)

Deltoids

89.

What muscle contracts during push-ups to extend the elbow?

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Deltoid

d)

Rectus femoris

90.

Which type of muscle contraction stabilises posture in balancing exercises?

a)

Isotonic concentric

b)

Isotonic eccentric

c)

Isometric

d)

Isokinetic

91.

What muscle is primarily engaged in sit-ups?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Rectus abdominis

c)

Latissimus dorsi

d)

Gastrocnemius

92.

During sprinting, hamstrings work mainly as:

a)

Hip flexors

b)

Hip extensors and knee flexors

c)

Trunk rotators

d)

Stabilizers of shoulders

93.

Why are antagonistic muscle pairs important in PE?

a)

They prevent fatigue

b)

They allow smooth coordinated movements

c)

They shorten bones

d)

They act independently

94.

What muscle supports breathing efficiency in endurance sports?

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Deltoid

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Gluteus medius

95.

Which muscle group stabilises the shoulder joint in throwing?

a)

Rotator cuff muscles

b)

Abdominals

c)

Gluteals

d)

Trapezius

96.

When landing from a jump, quadriceps perform:

a)

Concentric contraction

b)

Eccentric contraction

c)

Isometric contraction

d)

Isokinetic contraction

97.

What muscle is key in arm flexion during pull-ups?

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Pectoralis minor

d)

Soleus

98.

Why is muscle hypertrophy relevant to PE teachers?

a)

Helps understand performance improvement

b)

Prevents memory loss

c)

Shortens joints

d)

Reduces balance ability

99.

Which muscle is important for plantar flexion in jumping and running?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Deltoid

100.

Which type of contraction best applies in weightlifting curls?

a)

Concentric flexion of biceps

b)

Eccentric extension of quadriceps

c)

Isometric contraction of triceps

d)

Isokinetic contraction of deltoids

101.

Why is muscular endurance important for PE classes?

a)

Prevents overuse injuries

b)

Allows sustained activities like running or swimming

c)

Builds bone density

d)

Improves memory

102.

In teaching PE, knowledge of muscle actions helps teachers:

a)

Design drills safely and effectively

b)

Focus only on memorization

c)

Ignore exercise limitations

d)

Avoid warm-ups

103.

Which anatomical term means “toward the midline”?

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

104.

A PE teacher asking students to do a cartwheel is asking for movement in which plane?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Transverse

c)

Frontal

d)

Oblique

105.

When performing sit-ups, the trunk flexes in which plane?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Vertical

106.

Rotating the head to the left in warm-up is movement in the:

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Frontal plane

c)

Transverse plane

d)

Oblique plane

107.

Which directional term means “toward the head”?

a)

Inferior

b)

Superior

c)

Posterior

d)

Anterior

108.

Jumping jacks primarily involve which plane of motion?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Oblique

109.

Flexion and extension always occur in which plane?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Oblique

110.

Which term describes the back surface of the body?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Distal

111.

The knee is ______ to the ankle.

a)

Superior

b)

Inferior

c)

Distal

d)

Lateral

112.

In analyzing tennis forehand swings, which plane of motion dominates?

a)

Transverse

b)

Frontal

c)

Sagittal

d)

Oblique

113.

Lunges involve which type of motion analysis?

a)

Frontal plane abduction

b)

Sagittal plane flexion/extension

c)

Transverse plane rotation

d)

Oblique movements only

114.

Which term describes farthest from the trunk?

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

115.

When a PE teacher asks students to twist at the waist, this is:

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Rotation

d)

Adduction

116.

In swimming, arm abduction occurs when:

a)

Arms move toward the body

b)

Arms move away from the midline

c)

Arms extend behind the back

d)

Arms rotate inward

117.

Why is knowledge of anatomical planes important for PE teachers?

a)

For medical diagnosis

b)

For accurate movement analysis and exercise design

c)

For memorisation only

d)

For unrelated biology exams

118.

What is the official height of a badminton net for doubles matches?

a)

1.45 meters

b)

1.50 meters

c)

1.55 meters

d)

1.60 meters

119.

Which dance is known for its intricate footwork and is often performed during festivals?

a)

Kuratsa

b)

Pandanggo sa Ilaw

c)

Singkil

d)

Itik-itik

120.

What is the primary purpose of the Kadayawan Festival?

a)

To honor local heroes

b)

To celebrate cultural diversity

c)

To promote agricultural products

d)

To showcase traditional crafts

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