wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Lecture Objectives

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define the role of ______ cells in innate immunity and identify key cell types involved in immune surveillance across tissues.

a)

sentinel

b)

plasma

c)

erythrocyte

d)

goblet

2.

Differentiate between various ______ recognition receptors (PRRs) and describe their cellular localization and ligand specificity.

a)

pattern

b)

protein

c)

peptide

d)

plasma

3.

Explain the molecular distinctions between pathogen-associated molecular patterns (______) and damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPS), including representative examples of each.

a)

PAMPs

b)

MHCs

c)

CD4s

d)

TCRs

4.

Illustrate the signaling pathways activated by major PRRs (e.g., TLRs, NLRs, RLRs), including downstream factors and cytokine production. (Fill in the blank)

a)

transcription

b)

phagocytosis

c)

apoptosis

d)

autophagy

5.

Discuss the relevance of PRR signaling in health and disease, including the balance between protective immunity and pathological ______.

a)

inflammation

b)

healing

c)

digestion

d)

metabolism

6.

Analyze how tissue localization influences sentinel cell function and contributes to context-dependent ______ responses.

a)

immune

b)

digestive

c)

muscular

d)

skeletal

7.

Evaluate potential therapeutic strategies targeting PRRs or DAMP signaling in infectious and ______ diseases. (Fill in the blank)

a)

inflammatory

b)

genetic

c)

metabolic

d)

degenerative

8.

Sentinel cells (e.g., macrophages, dendritic cells, mast cells, epithelial cells) continuously monitor tissues for infection and damage, serving as the first line of ________ detection.

a)

immune

b)

hormonal

c)

nutritional

d)

genetic

9.

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) are germline-encoded receptors that recognize conserved microbial structures (PAMPs) and endogenous danger signals (______).

a)

DAMPs

b)

MHCs

c)

CD4s

d)

TCRs

10.

PAMPs include conserved aspects of microbial molecules such as LPS, flagellin, dsRNA, and unmethylated ______ DNA.

a)

CpG

b)

GATC

c)

TATA

d)

ATGC

11.

DAMPs include host-derived molecules that signal sterile cellular damage (apoptosis > ________).

a)

necrosis

b)

autophagy

c)

mitosis

d)

phagocytosis

12.

PRRs are categorized into families based on their structure and localization: primarily TLRs, RLRs, and ______.

a)

NLRs

b)

ILRs

c)

CLRs

d)

PLRs

13.

PRR engagement initiates intracellular signaling cascades involving adaptor proteins like MyD88, TRIF, and MAVS, leading to ________ activation.

a)

transcriptional

b)

enzymatic

c)

structural

d)

metabolic

14.

Key transcription factors activated by PRR signaling include NF-κB, IRF3/7, and AP-1, which regulate expression of inflammatory cytokines, interferons, and ________ peptides.

a)

antimicrobial

b)

structural

c)

hormonal

d)

enzymatic

15.

JAK/STAT signaling is a major downstream pathway of many cytokine receptors activated during PRR signaling, and is targeted therapeutically in chronic ________ diseases.

a)

inflammatory

b)

infectious

c)

genetic

d)

degenerative

16.

Sentinel cell activation results in cytokine and chemokine release (e.g., TNF-α, IL-6, IL-1β), upregulation of costimulatory molecules used in adaptive immunity, and recruitment of ________ and antigen presentation cells.

a)

leukocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

platelets

d)

fibroblasts

17.

Therapeutic exploitation of PRR pathways includes: Vaccine adjuvants (e.g., TLR agonists), Immunotherapies (e.g., STING agonists in cancer), and Anti-inflammatory agents (e.g., NLRP3 inhibitors, JAK inhibitors). Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic exploitation of PRR pathways?

a)

Vaccine adjuvants

b)

Immunotherapies

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Anti-inflammatory agents

18.

What are cytokines?

a)

Immune modulating agents made up of proteins

b)

A type of white blood cell

c)

A type of virus

d)

A type of bacteria

19.

Interleukin is a class of glycoprotein made by _______ for regulating immune responses.

a)

leukocytes (WBCs)

b)

neurons

c)

hepatocytes

d)

erythrocytes (RBCs)

20.

Based on the diagram, what is the main difference between chemotaxis and chemokinesis?

a)

Chemotaxis is directional movement towards or against a cellular gradient, while chemokinesis is random movement.

b)

Chemotaxis is random movement, while chemokinesis is directional movement towards a gradient.

c)

Chemotaxis and chemokinesis both refer to the same type of cellular movement.

d)

Chemokinesis is movement in response to light, while chemotaxis is movement in response to temperature.

21.

Chemotaxis involves movement in a specific direction in response to a chemical gradient.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is the first line of defense against pathogens according to the concept of innate immunity?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Vaccination

23.

Which of the following is NOT a function of innate immunity?

a)

A) First line of defense against pathogens

b)

B) Recruit other cells and stimulate inflammation

c)

C) Produce antibodies specific to pathogens

d)

D) Assist in healing and repair of tissues

24.

Cellular receptors in innate immunity are:

a)

Highly specific

b)

Non-specific (self vs. non-self)

c)

Only recognize viruses

d)

Only found in adaptive immunity

25.

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) can recognize which of the following?

a)

Only viral particles

b)

Only bacterial toxins

c)

Large patterns of molecules conserved across large classes of pathogens (PAMPs)

d)

Only self molecules

26.

Fill in the blank: PRRs can also recognize cellular damage, which is referred to as _______.

a)

DAMPs

b)

PAMPs

c)

MHCs

d)

TCRs

27.

According to the diagram, what is the final outcome of the innate immune response?

a)

Activation of adaptive immunity

b)

Destruction of invader

c)

Cytokine release

d)

Phagocytosis

28.

Which of the following is NOT an innate cell?

a)

Mast cell

b)

Eosinophil

c)

B cell

d)

Neutrophil

29.

Fill in the blank: The progenitor cell that gives rise to mast cells, granulocytes, and phagocytes is called the ________ progenitor.

a)

myeloid

b)

lymphoid

c)

erythroid

d)

megakaryocyte

30.

Which of the following cells is considered to overlap between innate and adaptive immunity?

a)

Mast cell

b)

Natural killer cell

c)

B cell

d)

Dendritic cell

31.

Dendritic cells and macrophages are types of phagocytes.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which cell type is NOT listed as a granulocyte?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Monocyte

33.

Kupffer cells are a type of macrophage found in the ________.

a)

liver

b)

lung

c)

kidney

d)

spleen

34.

Langerhans cells are found in which tissues?

a)

Liver

b)

Skin and mucosa

c)

Lung

d)

Brain

35.

Alveolar macrophages are located in the ________.

a)

lung

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

intestine

36.

Microglia are a type of macrophage found in the ________.

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

kidneys

37.

Which type of sentinel cell engulfs and digests pathogens, damaged cells, debris, and foreign substances?

a)

Macrophages (Mφ/MP)

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Fibroblasts

38.

Which type of sentinel cell processes antigen and presents it to circulating T/B cells (antigen-presenting cell or APC)?

a)

Dendritic cells (DCs)

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Mast cells

39.

Which type of sentinel cell is a resident cell of connective tissues with histamine and heparin granules and plays roles in allergy?

a)

Mast cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Fibroblasts

d)

Plasma cells

40.

Which type of sentinel cell acts as a physical barrier with PRRs?

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Mast cells

41.

Which type of sentinel cell is a tissue-resident natural killer cell?

a)

Tissue-resident lymphoid cells

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Kupffer cells

d)

Langerhans cells

42.

Which of the following is a type of granulocyte innate immune cell?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

B cells

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T cells

43.

Fill in the blank: ________ are innate immune cells that are classified as granulocytes and are involved in fighting parasitic infections.

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

44.

Basophils are a type of innate immune cell.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which cell type is both a macrophage and a monocyte in the innate immune system?

a)

Macrophages/monocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Basophils

46.

Which of the following is NOT an innate immune cell?

a)

A) Mast cells

b)

B) Dendritic cells

c)

C) B cells

d)

D) Lymphoid cells (NK cells)

47.

What percentage of blood is made up of plasma?

a)

55%

b)

25%

c)

70%

d)

40%

48.

Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma?

a)

Proteins

b)

Water

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Other solutes

49.

Which type of immune cell is tissue-resident and not circulating?

a)

Dendritic cells

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Eosinophils

50.

Granulocytes circulate, but mast cells are a non-circulating granulocyte that lives in tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is the percentage range of neutrophils among leukocytes?

a)

55-70%

b)

20-35%

c)

75-90%

d)

5-15%

52.

Monocytes are ________ while macrophages are tissue-resident monocytes.

a)

circulating

b)

fixed

c)

secretory

d)

contractile

53.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

White blood cells circulate

b)

Mast cells circulate

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

54.

Which main sentinel cells are found in the skin?

a)

Langerhans cells, macrophages

b)

Neutrophils, eosinophils

c)

B cells, T cells

d)

Kupffer cells, microglia

55.

What is the special role of Kupffer cells in the liver?

a)

Blood filtration, endotoxin sensing

b)

Bile production and secretion

c)

Glycogen storage

d)

Synthesis of plasma proteins

56.

Which tissue contains microglia as its main sentinel cells?

a)

CNS

b)

Liver

c)

Skin

d)

Intestine

57.

What is the special role of sentinel cells in the lung?

a)

Early antigen capture and inflammation

b)

Antiviral responses, homeostasis

c)

Tolerance vs. immunity balance

d)

Neuroimmune surveillance

58.

Dendritic cells and epithelial cells are the main sentinel cells in the gut.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which tissue's sentinel cells are responsible for neuroimmune surveillance?

a)

CNS

b)

Muscle

c)

Liver

d)

Skin

60.

Once sentinel cells are activated, they initiate cytokine and chemokine production. Which of the following is NOT induced by this process?

a)

Local inflammation (TNF-a, IL-1B, IL-6)

b)

Neutrophil (CXCL8) and monocyte (CCL2) recruitment

c)

Antibody production

d)

Shapes magnitude and type of immune response

61.

Once sentinel cells are activated, they initiate upregulation of costimulatory molecules and adaptive immune cell molecules (T cells).

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Type I IFN response is triggered by viral nucleic acid sensing. Fill in the blank: The receptors involved in this process are ______ and ______.

a)

RIG-I, TLR3

b)

CD4, CD8

c)

IgG, IgM

d)

MHC I, MHC II

63.

Once sentinel cells are activated, they initiate phagocytosis and ROS/Nitric Oxide production. Which cells increase phagocytic activity?

a)

Macrophages and neutrophils

b)

B cells and T cells

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platelets

64.

Fill in the blank: Generation of ______ and ______ for pathogen killing is a functional response of sentinel cells.

a)

reactive oxygen species, nitric oxide

b)

antibodies, cytokines

c)

histamine, serotonin

d)

lipids, carbohydrates

65.

What does the abbreviation PRRs stand for?

a)

Pathogen Recognition Receptors

b)

Pattern Recognition Receptors

c)

Protein Recognition Receptors

d)

Phagocytosis Recognition Receptors

66.

Which of the following is recognized by Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?

a)

Hormones

b)

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

c)

Vitamins

d)

Enzymes

67.

Fill in the blank: Damage-associated molecular patterns are abbreviated as _____

a)

DAMPs

b)

PAMPs

c)

MAMPs

d)

LAMPs

68.

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) can be found only on the cell surface.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which of the following is NOT a function initiated by PRRs?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Autophagy

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Photosynthesis

70.

What is the ligand for TLRs (Toll-like receptors)?

a)

LPS, dsRNA, flagellin, CpG DNA

b)

Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, ACTH

c)

Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, myosin

d)

ATP, ADP, NADH, FADH2

71.

Where are NLRs (NOD-like receptors) localized?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Nucleus

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Extracellular space

72.

Which PRR class is responsible for triggering Type I IFN production (antiviral response)?

a)

TLRs

b)

NLRs

c)

RLRs

d)

CLRs

73.

What is the example function of CLRs (C-type lectin receptors)?

a)

Promote antifungal immunity, antigen uptake

b)

Induce apoptosis in infected cells

c)

Synthesize antibodies directly

d)

Inhibit T cell activation

74.

Which PRR class recognizes cytosolic DNA?

a)

ALRs (AIM2-like receptors)

b)

TLRs (Toll-like receptors)

c)

NLRs (NOD-like receptors)

d)

RLRs (RIG-I-like receptors)

75.

Which PRRs are located on the cell surface?

a)

TLR2, TLR4, TLR5, and CLR

b)

TLR3, TLR7, TLR8, TLR9

c)

RIG-1, MDA5, NOD2, AIM2

d)

All of the above

76.

What does TLR2 detect?

a)

LPS

b)

Flagellin

c)

Triacyl and diacyl lipopeptides

d)

CpG DNA

77.

What does TLR4 detect?

a)

dsRNA

b)

LPS

c)

ssRNA

d)

Flagellin

78.

What does TLR5 detect?

a)

CpG DNA

b)

Flagellin

c)

LPS

d)

dsRNA

79.

What type of microbes do cell surface PRRs detect?

a)

EXTRACELLULAR microbes

b)

INTRACELLULAR microbes

c)

VIRAL particles

d)

FUNGAL spores

80.

Which PRRs are endosomal?

a)

A) TLR2, TLR4, TLR5

b)

B) TLR3, TLR7, TLR8, TLR9

c)

C) RIG-1, MDA5, NOD2

d)

D) CLR

81.

What does TLR3 detect?

a)

dsRNA

b)

ssDNA

c)

lipopolysaccharide

d)

flagellin

82.

What do TLR7 and TLR8 detect?

a)

ssRNA

b)

dsDNA

c)

peptidoglycan

d)

lipopolysaccharide

83.

What does TLR9 detect?

a)

CpG DNA

b)

Double-stranded RNA

c)

Lipopolysaccharide

d)

Flagellin

84.

What do endosomal PRRs detect?

a)

Nucleic acids from viruses or bacteria

b)

Proteins from host cells

c)

Lipids from plant cells

d)

Carbohydrates from fungi

85.

Which PRRs are cytosolic?

a)

A) TLR2, TLR4, TLR5

b)

B) TLR3, TLR7, TLR8, TLR9

c)

C) RIG-1, MDA5, NOD2, AIM2

d)

D) CLR

86.

What do cytosolic PRRs detect?

a)

Intracellular infections and cellular damage

b)

Extracellular pathogens only

c)

Hormonal imbalances

d)

Nutrient deficiencies

87.

PRRs are constitutively expressed by _______ immune cells and sentinel cells. (Fill in the blank)

a)

innate

b)

adaptive

c)

memory

d)

plasma

88.

Expression of PRRs can be upregulated by certain cytokines.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Some PRRs are enriched in antiviral sentinel cells like _______.

a)

DCs

b)

RBCs

c)

Platelets

d)

Muscle cells

90.

MULTIPLE PRRs can be activated simultaneously!

a)

True

b)

False

91.

PRR signaling can be context-dependent – viral vs bacterial vs fungal vs cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Negative regulators do exist to prevent overactivation of PRRs.

a)

True

b)

False