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IJCAHPO: COA QUICK STUDY CARDS (01-100)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the principles that dictate appropriate or inappropriate behaviors?

a)

ethics

b)

decency

c)

morality

d)

standards

2.

Informed consent occurs

a)

When the patient signs the consent form.

b)

When the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended.

c)

As a process patient education in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat

d)

When a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment.

3.

The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code, as it refers to procedures and services, must be supported by

a)

All billing practices

b)

The medical records

c)

The policies and procedures manual

d)

The length of time of the appointment

4.

Obtaining informed consent for a procedure

a)

Is having the patient sign the consent form.

b)

Begins at the preoperative visit

c)

Is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary

d)

Is a process involving education of the patient

5.

A patient has been diagnosed with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis. The MOST effective role Allied Ophthalmic Personnel (AOP) can take in preventing the spread of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC) is to

a)

Identify carriers of the disease

b)

Treat all those infected with sulfacetamide drops

c)

Wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments

d)

Wear disposable gloves when coming in contact with all patients

6.

Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?

a)

Choroidal nevus

b)

Congenital glaucoma

c)

Iris coloboma

d)

Retinoblastoma

7.

Color deficient individuals can be

a)

Denied a driver’s license

b)

Improved by drug therapy

c)

Detected by visual field examination

d)

Disqualified from certain occupations

8.

The three-color receptors found in cones are

a)

Blue, green, and yellow

b)

Red, green, and blue

c)

Red, green, and yellow

d)

Red, yellow, and blue

9.

If an ophthalmologist states that a patient's condition is "OU", this means that the condition is present in

a)

Neither eye

b)

The left eye

c)

The right eye

d)

Both eyes

10.

What two items are used to clean the following lenses: retinoscopy, polarizing, red and Maddox rod?

a)

Lens cloth and canned air

b)

Lens cloth and alcohol

c)

Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner

d)

Cotton tip swab and alcohol

11.

What is a symptom of hyperthyroidism?

a)

Low voice

b)

Dry skin

c)

Weight gain

d)

Shortness of breath

12.

A latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)

a)

Tropia

b)

Hemianopia

c)

Phoria

d)

Ametropia

13.

The denominator in the visual acuity recording of low vision patient is

a)

Equal to the numerator

b)

The same for both eyes

c)

Larger than for the patient with normal visual acuity

d)

Smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity

14.

What happens at the chiasmal junction?

a)

All nerve fibers from the right eye cross to the left side of the brain and vice versa

b)

Some of the nasal and some of the temporal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side

c)

The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

d)

The temporal nerve fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

15.

Enucleation is the

a)

Inflammation of the ciliary body

b)

Complete or partial separation of the retina from choroid

c)

Complete surgical removal of the eyeball

d)

Aberration of rays of light

16.

Scattered light rays produce which visual phenomenon?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Photopsia

c)

Glare

d)

Metamorphopsia

17.

What is the term for concentration of a chemical in a pharmaceutical solution?

a)

Stability

b)

Sterility

c)

Tonicity

d)

Toxicity

18.

The name of the oil-secreting glands found in the posterior margin of the eyelid is the

a)

Gland of Moll

b)

Gland of Wolfring

c)

Lacrimal gland

d)

Meibomian gland

19.

What is the name of the condition where both the globe and the ocular tissue are missing?

a)

Anophthalmia

b)

Anisocoria

c)

Buphthalmos

d)

Cytinosis

20.

Evisceration is the

a)

Surgical removal of the contents of the globe

b)

Abnormal turning of the eye outward

c)

Tendency of the eye to turn inward

d)

Turning outward of the eyelid

21.

What is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms on the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea?

a)

Pterygium

b)

Pinguecula

c)

Exoneration

d)

Entropion

22.

Almost all patients who enter the ophthalmologist’s office require a determination of what status regarding their eyes?

a)

Diabetic retinopathy

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Refractive error

d)

Strabismus

23.

Calibration of the applanation tonometer is checked by

a)

A qualified service technician

b)

Using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing are at 0, 2, and 6.

c)

Using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 3, and 5.

d)

Having a second technician verify the IOP measurements on several patients to confirm tonometry accuracy.

24.

What is the possible side effect of Ampicillin?

a)

Anaphylactic reaction

b)

Colitis

c)

Kidney damage

d)

Renal damage

25.

Axial length in IOL formulas refers to the distance from the

a)

Cornea to the iris

b)

Cornea to the lens

c)

Lens to the retina

d)

Cornea to the retina

26.

Color vision defects may be

a)

Refractive

b)

Subjective

c)

Congenital or acquired

d)

More common in women

27.

What is measured during the Schirmer testing?

a)

Tear production

b)

Corneal thickness

c)

Pupillary reflexes

d)

Corneal curvature

28.

The purpose of glare testing (BAT), is to determine if visual acuity varies with different

a)

Refractive errors

b)

Pinhole sizes

c)

Dark adaptations

d)

Lighting conditions

29.

What is the term for "eye up"?

a)

Hypotropia

b)

Esotropia

c)

Hypertropia

d)

Exotropia

30.

Dioptric power of the cornea is determined by what type of reading?

a)

Ultrasonography

b)

Keratometry

c)

Tonometry

d)

Tomography

31.

What is the name of the visual receptors that process color?

a)

Rods

b)

Cones

c)

Ganglion

d)

Bipolar

32.

What is the term for the condition where the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule, or both, becomes opaque, with consequent loss of visual acuity?

a)

Neuritis

b)

Hyphemia

c)

Angioma

d)

Cataract

33.

A patient with severe seasonal allergic conjunctivitis relates that the primary care doctor will not prescribe medication for an allergy due to the patient's glaucoma. The doctor's concern is related to which type of glaucoma?

a)

Angle closure

b)

Open angle

c)

Uveitic

d)

Pigmentary

34.

Which of the following is a sign?

a)

A. A black speck in the field of vision

b)

B. Complaints of difficulty reading

c)

C. Double vision

d)

D. A shallow anterior chamber

35.

A condition in which blood has settled in the bottom half of the anterior chamber of the eye is called a (n)

a)

Erythema

b)

Hematoma

c)

Hyphema

d)

Hypopion

36.

Which structure secrete aqueous fluid and serves as an attachment site for zonules?

a)

Ciliary processes

b)

Iris root

c)

Lens capsule

d)

Ora serrata

37.

Which of the following organisms is likely to cause a corneal ulcer?

a)

A. Adenovirus

b)

B. Pneumococcus

c)

C. Herpes simplex virus

d)

D. Staphylococcus aureusum

38.

Which of the following is NOT normally considered in the differential diagnosis of an inflamed, red eye?

a)

Acute conjunctivitis

b)

Keratitis

c)

Dacryocystitis

d)

Acute Iritis

39.

Inflammation of the tear sac associated with faulty tear drainage is

a)

Trichiasis

b)

Blepharitis

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Dacryocystitis

40.

A parent calls to say that his child has been hit in the eye with a rock from a sling shot. You advise the parent to

a)

Bring the child to the office immediately

b)

Give the child a mild analgesic for pain

c)

Patch the eye tightly to stop bleeding

d)

Pry the lids open to check the eye

41.

Aqueous humor drains out into the

a)

Canal of Schlemm

b)

Ciliary body

c)

Iris

d)

Uveal Tract

42.

A person with a fold of skin overlying the nasal area of the eye lid has

a)

Blepharochalasis

b)

Entropion

c)

Epicanthus

d)

Lagophthalmos

43.

In which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination?

a)

Chronic angle glaucoma

b)

Thyroid Ophthalmopathy

c)

Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

d)

Iritis with secondary glaucoma

44.

Which organ is included in the cardiovascular system?

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Brain

d)

Kidneys

45.

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause diplopia in a patient only when wearing spectacles

a)

High minus lenses

b)

High plus lenses

c)

Improper centering of the lenses

d)

Large frames

46.

Which eye care professional specializes in fitting spectacles?

a)

Orthopedist

b)

Orthodontist

c)

Orthoptist

d)

Optician

47.

Which eye care professional specializes in measurement of eye movement and the extraocular muscles?

a)

Orthodontist

b)

Orthopedist

c)

Orthoptist

d)

Optician

48.

If a patient MUST be kept waiting, convey

a)

Their appointment was never scheduled.

b)

They should not complain.

c)

How long the wait will be and unfortunately, schedules cannot always be controlled due to emergencies.

d)

They should read the pamphlets in the waiting room.

49.

What is a key factor affecting the overall rating of a practitioner?

a)

Cost of Medicare coverage

b)

Number of technicians in the office

c)

Time spent in the waiting area

d)

Size of the waiting area

50.

A firmly applied unilateral eye pad will

a)

Limit the movement in both eyes.

b)

Limit the movement of the patched eye.

c)

Limit the movement of the patched eyelid.

d)

Reduce pressure on the globe.

51.

How is a properly applied eye dress secured?

a)

Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of adhesive tape.

b)

Horizontal parallel strips of adhesive tape.

c)

Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone.

d)

Strips of adhesive tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead.

52.

Which of the following is the MOST common complication of patching an eye?

a)

Corneal Abrasion

b)

Elevated intraocular Pressure

c)

Dilation of the pupil

d)

Tear flow reduction

53.

Which of the following has been designed to measure visual acuity by bypassing optical medical defects?

a)

ETDRS acuity charts

b)

Snellen charts

c)

HOTV

d)

Laser Interferometry

54.

A non-contact lens used to exam the macula is a

a)

Gonio lens

b)

Hruby lens

c)

Koeppe lens

d)

Maddox lens

55.

The swelling of the optic disc with engorged blood vessels is known as

a)

Papilledema

b)

Endophthalmitis

c)

Optic Nerve compression

d)

Anterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

56.

Which patient symptom would require the MOST immediate attention?

a)

Double vision for less than a week

b)

Lid swelling for less than 3 weeks

c)

Blurred vision for more than a week

d)

Progressive vision loss over the last 3 months

57.

IN counseling a patient about upcoming surgery, which of the following is BEST left for the surgeon to discuss?

a)

Specific risks and outcomes of the procedure

b)

What to expect during the procedure

c)

Instructions for postoperative care

d)

Emergency contact information

58.

IN counseling a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following statements is accurate?

a)

A. A cataract is a film that grows over the eye.

b)

B. A cataract need not be treated if vision is good.

c)

C. A cataract may grow back.

d)

D. A cataract must be “ripe” before it is removed.

59.

Which of the following symptoms is of MOST concern in the early postoperative course following cataract surgery?

a)

Intense pain

b)

Redness

c)

Blurry vision

d)

Tearing

60.

A patient who wears contact lenses has had a red eye for two days. How should this patient be triaged?

a)

Schedule routinely within 1 month.

b)

Schedule at your office within 1 week.

c)

Send immediately to the nearest emergency room.

d)

Schedule at your clinic as an urgent add-on with 24 hours.

61.

What eye disorder reveals a constricted pupil and keratic precipitates?

a)

Iritis

b)

Conjunctiva

c)

Episcleritis

d)

Keratoconus

62.

A patient has been hit in the eye with a racquetball and now sees flashes of light and cobwebs. You tell the patient

a)

If the eye is not red or painful to schedule a routine appointment

b)

To come into the office the same day.

c)

If symptoms persist for at least 24 hours, to come into the office.

d)

To patch both eyes and come into the office the next day.

63.

Which of the following constitutes a medical emergency?

a)

Angle closure glaucoma

b)

Ocular Hypertension

c)

Ocular Migraine

d)

Open Angle Glaucoma

64.

Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults chiefly because

a)

It induces allergic sensitization.

b)

Its effects do not last long enough.

c)

Its effects last too long.

d)

It's a poor mydriatic.

65.

What is an important question to ask a patient that complains of a "red-eye"?

a)

Do you have blurred vision?

b)

Do you see flashing lights?

c)

Do you wears glasses?

d)

Do you see floaters?

66.

Symptoms associated with a red, irritated, bloodshot eye are MOST likely due to

a)

Retinal Detachment

b)

Cataracts

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Open-Angle Glaucoma

67.

Which of the following conditions is NOT hereditary?

a)

Migraines

b)

Diabetes

c)

Nystagmus

d)

Conjunctivitis

68.

What is the term used to refer to symptoms due to uncorrected refractive error?

a)

Ametropia

b)

Asthenopia

c)

Esotropia

d)

Anisometropia

69.

A patient's history of pain and low vision could be attributed to

a)

Acute Glaucoma

b)

Strabismus

c)

Stroke

d)

Subconjunctival Hemorrhage

70.

Which of the following is a symptom?

a)

Flakes on the lashes

b)

Flashes of light

c)

Red eye

d)

Swollen lid

71.

Under what heading should the onset of current symptoms be recorded?

a)

Current medications

b)

Past history

c)

Physical signs

d)

Present illness

72.

Which is the main reason for the patient's visit to the ophthalmologist recorded?

a)

Chief complaint

b)

Family history

c)

Past medical history

d)

Past ocular history

73.

Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence?

a)

History

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Measurement

d)

Assessment

74.

In an industrial injury in which the patient complains of a foreign body sensation, a 20/60 vision is recorded by the assistant. What is the next step the assistant should take?

a)

Instill a fluorescein dye.

b)

Patch the eye.

c)

Return the patient to the waiting room.

d)

Try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve.

75.

Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful in patients with

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Cataracts

c)

Optic Neuritis

d)

Age-Related Macular Degeneration

76.

Which of the following is a measure of distance of visual acuity?

a)

20/20

b)

40 arc seconds

c)

D-15

d)

Jaeger 2

77.

What is a probable cause of blurred distance vision that is improved by squinting?

a)

Esotropia

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Uncorrected Myopia

d)

Uncorrected Presbyopia

78.

Which statement correctly refers to the letters on the Snellen chart?

a)

Because they subtend the same amount of arc, each letter is equally recognizable.

b)

Even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others.

c)

Different letters subtend different amounts of arc, yet each letter is equally recognizable.

d)

Different letters subtend different amounts of arc; thus some letters are easier to recognize than others.

79.

An effective means of estimating visual acuity in infants would be to use

a)

An amblyoscope

b)

Preferential looking.

c)

Prism bars.

d)

A Snellen Chart

80.

Which of the following equivalencies is correct?

a)

5/200 is equivalent to 20/400

b)

6/60 is equivalent to 3/120

c)

10/200 is equivalent to 20/100

d)

20/200 is equivalent to 10/100

81.

What is the recommended distance used for assessing the distance acuity?

a)

3'

b)

10'

c)

20'

d)

40'

82.

If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with use of a(n)

a)

Placido disc.

b)

Pinhole disc.

c)

Occluder over non-dominant eye.

d)

Occluder over dominant eye.

83.

Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?

a)

10-12

b)

14-16

c)

18-20

d)

22-24

84.

20/60 visual acuity means the patient sees a test object at

a)

6 meters that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet

b)

20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet

c)

20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 meters

d)

60 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet

85.

If a person is able to clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 60 feet by a person with no refractive error, their visual acuity us said to be

a)

20/20

b)

20/40

c)

20/60

d)

20/80

86.

What examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia?

a)

The alternating cover test with prism

b)

The cover-uncover test

c)

The Krimsky test

d)

The Hirschberg test

87.

What is the best way to perform the Worth 4-Dot test on a child?

a)

A. Tell the child there are four lights and ask which colors they see.

b)

B. Tell the child to alternately close one eye and the other

c)

C. Ask which color the child sees.

d)

D. Give the child the flashlight before they put the glasses on.

88.

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex?

a)

Hess

b)

Worth four-dot

c)

Hirschberg

d)

Krimsky

89.

How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

90.

Stereocuity testing is indicated if a patient has

a)

Retinitis

b)

A phoria

c)

A Chalazion

d)

Hyperplasia

91.

Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?

a)

Worth four-dot

b)

Ishihara plates

c)

Maddox rod

d)

Marcus Gunn

92.

Evaluating the range and symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as

a)

Ductions

b)

Versions

c)

Phorias

d)

Tropias

93.

Consensual light reflex in right eye results in

a)

Right pupil constriction.

b)

Right pupil dilation.

c)

Left pupil constriction.

d)

Left pupil dilation.

94.

If the amount of light information transmittent from the brain to one eye differs from that of the other eyes, the patient has a (n)

a)

A. Afferent pupillary defect.

b)

B. Adie's pupil

c)

C. Tonic pupil

d)

D. Third nerve palsy

95.

What is the term for pupillary constriction?

a)

A. Mydriasis

b)

B. Miosis

c)

C. Cycloplegia

d)

D. Anisocoria

96.

When performing the swinging flashlight test on a patient with a relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) in the left eye, the expected findings would be a(n)

a)

Constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light "swings" to OS.

b)

Constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and hippus movement when the light "swings" to OS.

c)

Constriction of the left pupil in bright light and dilation of both pupils when the light "swings" to OD.

d)

Initial dilation followed by constriction with direct light OD and total dilation OU when the light "swings" to OS.

97.

Marcus – Gunn pupil

a)

Has a diminished pupil reaction to light

b)

Is fixed and dilated

c)

Responds slowly to light

d)

Shows asymptomatic anisocoria

98.

Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called

a)

Indirect light reflex

b)

Consensual light reflex

c)

Direct light reflex

d)

Near light reflex

99.

The cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors?

a)

Red, green, and blue

b)

Green, blue, and red

c)

Blue, yellow, and red

d)

Red, green, black

100.

How many layers compromise the tear layer?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6