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Tissue Regeneration and Neoplasia Quiz

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Healing is defined as…

a)

Formation of clot in wound

b)

Replacement of destroyed tissue by living tissue

c)

Invasion of microbes into wound

d)

Removal of dead tissue by macrophages

2.

Regeneration means…

a)

Replacement of lost tissue by scar

b)

Replacement of destroyed tissue by the same type of cells

c)

Replacement of necrotic cells by fat

d)

Healing with infection

3.

Fibrosis (repair by scar) means…

a)

Replacement of damaged cells by identical tissue

b)

Replacement of tissue by supportive fibrous tissue

c)

Healing without scar

d)

Replacement of tissue by fat cells

4.

In the central nervous system, repair occurs by…

a)

Regeneration of neurons

b)

Gliosis (fibrosis by glial tissue)

c)

Fat deposition

d)

Hemorrhage

5.

Labile cells are characterized by…

a)

Non-dividing nature

b)

Continuous division under normal conditions

c)

No regeneration

d)

Permanent inability to proliferate

6.

Which of the following is an example of labile cells?

a)

Hepatocytes

b)

Skeletal muscle cells

c)

Surface epithelium

d)

Neurons

7.

Stable cells are characterized by…

a)

Continuous division throughout life

b)

Non-dividing and no regeneration

c)

Divide only in response to injury

d)

Derived only from neurons

8.

Hepatocytes are classified as…

a)

Labile cells

b)

Stable cells

c)

Permanent cells

d)

None

9.

Which of the following are permanent cells?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Nerve cells

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Renal tubular cells

10.

Muscle cells belong to which category?

a)

Labile

b)

Stable

c)

Permanent

d)

None

11.

Healing by first intention is seen in…

a)

Clean surgical wound with sutures

b)

Large contaminated wound

c)

Ulcer healing

d)

Burn wound

12.

Healing by second intention is seen in…

a)

Small incised wound

b)

Large infected wound with tissue loss

c)

Sutured skin incision

d)

Superficial scratch

13.

Which healing type has minimal granulation tissue?

a)

Primary intention

b)

Secondary intention

c)

Both

d)

None

14.

Which healing type has prominent wound contraction?

a)

Primary intention

b)

Secondary intention

c)

Both

d)

None

15.

The scar in healing by first intention is usually…

a)

Large and irregular

b)

Thin and linear

c)

Absent

d)

Keloid-like

16.

The scar in healing by second intention is usually…

a)

Small and thin

b)

Wide and irregular

c)

Absent

d)

Atrophic

17.

Healing time in first intention is…

a)

Long

b)

Short

c)

Absent

d)

Variable only with infection

18.

Healing time in second intention is…

a)

Short

b)

Long

c)

Same as first intention

d)

Absent

19.

Which is a local factor affecting wound healing?

a)

Age

b)

Anemia

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Blood supply

20.

Which systemic factor delays wound healing?

a)

Good nutrition

b)

Glucocorticoid therapy

c)

Adequate blood flow

d)

Youth

21.

Squamous cell carcinoma developing in a chronic scar is called…

a)

Kaposi’s sarcoma

b)

Marjolin’s ulcer

c)

Keloid ulcer

d)

Epidermal carcinoma

22.

Implantation of epithelium into the dermis during wound healing may lead to…

a)

Epidermal cyst

b)

Keloid

c)

Ulcer

d)

Fibroma

23.

Healing time in secondary intention is…

a)

Short

b)

Long

c)

Absent

d)

Same as primary

24.

Which systemic disease delays healing due to high blood sugar?

a)

Uremia

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Malignancy

d)

Anemia

25.

Stable cells under normal conditions…

a)

Continuously divide

b)

Do not divide at all

c)

Divide rapidly only after injury

d)

Replace lost tissue by scar

26.

Permanent cells after injury are replaced by…

a)

Regenerated identical cells

b)

Fibrous scar tissue

c)

Bone tissue

d)

Labile cells

27.

Healing by second intention differs from first intention by…

a)

Absence of granulation tissue

b)

Faster healing

c)

Larger scar and wound contraction

d)

Minimal scar

28.

Which of the following is defined as a complete failure of development of an organ or tissue?

a)

Aplasia

b)

Agenesis

c)

Hypoplasia

d)

Hamartoma

29.

A rudimentary organ is seen in…

a)

Agenesis

b)

Aplasia

c)

Hypoplasia

d)

Teratoma

30.

Failure of an organ to reach normal size, resulting in undersized organ with limited function is called…

a)

Agenesis

b)

Hypoplasia

c)

Atrophy

d)

Dysplasia

31.

Which of the following is a tumor-like lesion characterized by presence of normal tissue in an abnormal site?

a)

Hamartoma

b)

Choristoma

c)

Teratoma

d)

Embryonal tumor

32.

An overgrowth of mature cells and tissues normally present in the affected part but irregularly arranged is called…

a)

Hamartoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Hypoplasia

d)

Anaplasia

33.

Which congenital abnormality of growth arises from totipotent germ cells and contains more than one germ layer?

a)

Dysplasia

b)

Teratoma

c)

Embryonal tumor

d)

Hamartoma

34.

Highly malignant tumors derived from embryonic cell remnants that occur mostly in infants and young children are…

a)

Embryonal tumors

b)

Teratomas

c)

Hamartomas

d)

Adenomas

35.

Retinoblastoma is an example of…

a)

Pluripotent embryonic tumor

b)

Unipotent embryonic tumor

c)

Hamartoma

d)

Teratoma

36.

Nephroblastoma and hepatoblastoma are examples of…

a)

Hamartoma

b)

Pluripotent embryonic tumor

c)

Teratoma

d)

Aplasia

37.

Dysplasia is characterized by all EXCEPT…

a)

Loss of polarity

b)

Pleomorphism

c)

Intact basement membrane

d)

Invasion into surrounding tissue

38.

Increased nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio and hyperchromatic nuclei are features of…

a)

Normal tissue

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Hamartoma

d)

Agenesis

39.

Mild dysplasia involves…

a)

One third of epithelium

b)

Two thirds of epithelium

c)

Full thickness of epithelium

d)

None of the above

40.

Moderate dysplasia involves…

a)

Lower one third of epithelium

b)

Lower two thirds of epithelium

c)

All thickness of epithelium

d)

Basement membrane destruction

41.

Severe dysplasia (carcinoma in situ) involves…

a)

Lower one third of epithelium

b)

Lower two thirds of epithelium

c)

All thickness of epithelium

d)

Only superficial layer

42.

The fate of dysplasia may include…

a)

Regression

b)

Persistence

c)

Progression

d)

All of the above

43.

Neoplasia is defined as…

a)

Controlled multiplication of cells

b)

Autonomous and purposeless growth of cells

c)

Regression of tissue

d)

Developmental malformation

44.

Which is NOT true about neoplasia?

a)

Autonomous

b)

Progressive

c)

Controlled by physiological stimuli

d)

May be benign or malignant

45.

Anaplasia refers to…

a)

Complete loss of differentiation

b)

Partial differentiation with intact BM

c)

Increase in cell size

d)

Regression of growth

46.

Hyperplasia is characterized by…

a)

Arises spontaneously independent of stimuli

b)

Regresses when stimulus is removed

c)

Purposeless growth

d)

Uncontrolled proliferation

47.

Neoplasia differs from hyperplasia because it…

a)

Is controlled by stimuli

b)

Regresses when stimulus is removed

c)

Progresses irrespective of stimuli

d)

Always increases normal function

48.

Benign tumors grow by…

a)

Infiltration and metastasis

b)

Expansion compressing surrounding tissues

c)

Direct hematogenous spread

d)

Lymphatic permeation

49.

A common gross feature of benign tumors is…

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Frequent hemorrhage

c)

Ill-defined irregular edges

d)

Ulceration

50.

Malignant tumors are usually…

a)

Small, encapsulated, and slow-growing

b)

Large, non-encapsulated, and fast-growing

c)

Always cystic and benign

d)

Harmless to the host

51.

Malignant tumors often recur after surgical removal because…

a)

They remain local at the site of origin

b)

They send metastases to distant sites

c)

They are encapsulated

d)

They regress spontaneously

52.

Which statement is true about locally malignant tumors?

a)

They grow rapidly and metastasize widely

b)

They spread locally without distant metastasis

c)

They are always benign

d)

They never infiltrate surrounding tissues