Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

apps of biotech unit 1

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In PCR what role does the template DNA play?

a)

Serves as reference sequence

b)

stabliizes the reaction temperature

c)

initiates the reaction

d)

Provides the target for amplification

2.

When replicating DNA in the lab, what is used to indicate the starting place for synthesis?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Template

c)

dNTPs

d)

Primers

3.

these are the steps for PCR, which of these is the correct sequence

1.Primer annealing at a lower temp

2.Cooling to allow primers to bind to the template DNA

  1. 3. DNA denaturation at 95 degrees C

  2. 4.Extension of DNA strands by DNA polymerase

  3. 5. Warming to enable DNA synthesis

a)

3, 1, 2, 4, 5

b)

1, 5, 4, 3, 2

c)

5, 3, 2, 1, 4

4.

What is the purpose of nucleotides in a PCR reaction?

a)

To hold DNA strands apart

b)

To amplify DNA

c)

To build the new DNA strands

d)

To provide the template

5.

What is the function of DNA primers in a PCR reaction?

a)

The copy RNA

b)

They provide heat resistance

c)

They hold DNA strands apart

d)

They initiate DNA synthesis

6.

Which reagent ensures that DNA polymerase remains active during the high-temperature cycles of PCR?

a)

Primers

b)

Buffer Solution

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Taq polymerase

7.

What is the function of the phosphate groups in dNTPs during DNA synthesis

a)

initiating the formation of hydrogen bonds

b)

determining the specificity of base pairing

c)

stabilizing the DNA double helix

d)

providing energy for the reaction

8.

What does the denaturation step in PCR involve

a)

Separating DNA strands

b)

Cooling the reaction mixture

c)

Adding primers

d)

Extending DNA strands

9.

What is the purpose of a master mix in a polymerase chain reaction?

a)

to amplify the target DNA sequence

b)

to serve as a control DNA sample

c)

to contain all essential components except template DNA and primers

d)

to provide a template for DNA synthesis

10.

Match this function to the enzyme:

adds nucleotides

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

11.

Match this function to the enzyme:

unzips DNA

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

12.

Match this function to the enzyme:

adds nucleotides

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

13.

Match this function to the enzyme:

initiates DNA synthesis

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

14.

Match this function to the enzyme:

relaxes supercoiled DNA

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

15.

Match this function to the enzyme:

"glues" fragments of DNA together

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

ligase

16.

Is this in vivo DNA reproduction or PCR?

replication occurs within the cellular nucleus, the template DNA is typically the entire genome of a living cell, DNA replication proceeds at physiological temperatures around 37 degrees, the primary purpose is cell division and the transmission of genetic information to daughter cells

a)

in vivo DNA reproduction

b)

PCR

17.

Is this in vivo DNA reproduction or PCR?

involves cycles of temperature changes, including denaturation at temperatures as high as 95°C, the template DNA is a specific target sequence chosen by researchers, takes place in a test tube or reaction vessel outside of living cells, Correct answer:

employed for various laboratory applications, such as DNA amplification, cloning, and diagnostic testing

a)

in vivo DNA reproduction

b)

PCR

18.

What is a potential downside of using chelating agents in DNA extraction?

a)

Improved primer binding efficiency

b)

Decreased purity of extracted DNA

c)

Enhanced DNA stability

d)

Potential DNA degradation

19.

What is a potential consequence of using too much template DNA in a PCR reaction?

a)

Increased primer specificity

b)

Inhibition of the reaction

c)

Accelerated cycling parameters

d)

Enhanced reaction efficiency

20.

Which of the following is NOT considered a variable in the PCR reaction?

a)

Primer design

b)

cycling parameters

c)

PCR product length

d)

quality of template DNA

21.

What is the primary use of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) PCR in forensic science?

a)

To sequence the entire genome

b)

To identify individuals based on their unique genetic profiles

c)

To clone DNA sequences

d)

To determine the age of DNA samples

22.

What are Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)?

a)

Short sequences of DNA, typically 2-6 base pairs long, that are repeated in a head-to-tail manner in specific regions of the genome

b)

Sequences in the DNA that code for proteins

c)

Single nucleotide variations within the DNA

d)


Long sequences of DNA with complex structures

23.

Which of the following is a key application of RT-PCR?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Protein quantification

c)

Gene expression analysis

d)

Enzyme activity assays

24.

What is the primary function of reverse transcription in RT-PCR?

a)

Generation of cDNA from RNA

b)

synthesis of RNA

c)

Reverse translation

d)

Amplification of DNA

25.

What is the primary advantage of Multiplex PCR over conventional PCR?

a)

Ability to amplify multiple targets in a single reaction

b)

Faster amplification

c)

Increased sensitivity

d)

Higher specificity

26.

What is a potential drawback of Multiplex PCR?

a)

Reduced sensitivity

b)

Difficulty in optimizing reaction conditions

c)

Incompatibility with real-time PCR

d)

Limited specificity

27.

How does Nested PCR minimize nonspecific amplification?

a)

Employing proofreading DNA polymerase

b)

Introducing an additional set of primers in the second round

c)


Increasing the number of PCR cycles

d)

Using a higher annealing temperature

28.

What is the primary function of reverse transcription in RT-PCR?

a)

Synthesis of RNA

b)

Amplification of DNA

c)

Reverse translation

d)

Generation of cDNA from RNA

29.

What is the main advantage of digital PCR over real-time PCR for absolute quantification?

a)

Faster amplification

b)

Lower cost

c)

Simplicity of analysis

d)

Higher sensitivity

30.

In Fast PCR, what is the significance of optimizing primer design?

a)

Reducing the overall reaction time

b)

Minimizing the risk of contamination

c)

Eliminating the need for a hot-start polymerase

d)

Increasing the specificity of amplification

31.

What is the potential consequence of having a melting temperature (Tm) that is too high in PCR primer design?

a)

Improved PCR efficiency

b)

Increased primer spceifity

c)

Primer binding non specifically

d)

enhanced primer binding

32.

In real-time PCR, which of the following is used to detect the accumulation of PCR products during each cycle?

a)

Fluorescent dyes

b)

agarose beads

c)

Radioactive probes

d)

gel electrohphoresis

33.

How does digital PCR improve precision in DNA quantification compared to real-time PCR?

a)

Partitioning the reaction into thousands of individual reactions

b)

Eliminating the need for fluorescent dyes

c)

Increasing the reaction volume

d)

Reducing the number of cycles

34.

When might degenerate PCR be particularly valuable in molecular biology research?

a)

When working with large DNA templates

b)

When using real-time PCR

c)

When studying a single gene with known sequence

d)

When exploring genetic diversity within a gene family

35.

In Fast PCR, what is the significance of optimizing primer design?

a)


Increasing the specificity of amplification

b)

Eliminating the need for a hot-start polymerase

c)

Reducing the overall reaction time

d)


Minimizing the risk of contamination

36.

How does isothermal PCR achieve amplification without thermal cycling?

a)

Utilizing a strand-displacing polymerase

b)


Eliminating the need for primers

c)

Using a hot-start DNA polymerase

d)

Employing a DNA helicase

37.

What is the primary application of RAPD in molecular biology?

a)

Detection of single nucleotide polymorphisms

b)

Gene cloning

c)

Quantitative PCR

d)

Genetic fingerprinting and diversity analysis

38.

In a DNA microarray experiment, what does the term "probe" refer to?

a)

The final result of the experiment

b)

The piece of DNA attached to the microarray

c)

The enzyme used for DNA amplification

d)

The DNA sample being analyzed

39.

Which of the following statements correctly explains why some genes might appear as yellow spots on the microarray?

a)

The genes are tumor suppressor genes (genes that help prevent cells from growing uncontrollably and forming tumors), which are equally active in normal and pathological cells

b)

The genes are housekeeping genes (genes that are always turned on because they are needed for basic tasks in every cell), which are required for basic cellular functions in both normal and pathological cells.

c)

The genes are oncogenes (a mutated gene that can potentially cause cancer) that are activated in both normal and pathological cells.

d)

The genes are irrelevant to the disease and are not involved in the pathology, hence showing no differential expression.

40.

In DNA sequencing what is the role of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)?

a)

They bind to DNA polymerase, speeding up the sequencing process.

b)

They terminate DNA strand elongation, creating fragments of different

c)

They repair mismatches in the DNA sequence during synthesis.

d)

They act as regular nucleotides, allowing DNA synthesis to continue without interruption.

41.

What is the key feature of the DNA sequencing method that allows for the determination of DNA sequences?

a)

The direct sequencing of single DNA molecules through a nanopore device, measuring changes in electrical signals.

b)

The use of high-throughput parallel sequencing to read millions of DNA fragments simultaneously.

c)

The incorporation of dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) that terminate DNA synthesis, with each ddNTP labeled with a different fluorescent dye to identify the sequence.

d)


The generation of DNA fragments using restriction enzymes followed by sequencing with a DNA microarray.

42.

Which of the following statements best describes a key feature of Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS)?

a)

NGS uses restriction enzymes to cut DNA into fragments, which are then analyzed individually for sequencing.

b)

NGS directly reads the sequence of DNA molecules by measuring changes in electrical conductivity through a nanopore.

c)

NGS sequences one DNA fragment at a time using dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) and detects the sequence based on fluorescent dyes.

d)

NGS involves sequencing millions of DNA fragments simultaneously by adding fluorescently labeled nucleotides and detecting the emitted signals during synthesis.

43.

In Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS), what is the purpose of the adapter sequences attached to DNA fragments during library preparation?

a)

To directly sequence the DNA without the need for amplification.

b)

To enable the fragments to bind to the sequencing platform and facilitate the sequencing process.

c)

To label the DNA fragments with fluorescent dyes for detection during sequencing

d)

To amplify the DNA fragments before sequencing.

44.

What is the primary principle behind the sequencing by synthesis method used in Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS)?

a)

DNA fragments are sequenced by measuring the mass of each fragment after cleavage with restriction enzymes.

b)

DNA sequences are determined by adding fluorescently labeled nucleotides one at a time, with each nucleotide emitting a specific signal when incorporated.

c)

DNA is sequenced by hybridizing it to a DNA microarray and detecting the hybridization signals.

d)


DNA sequences are read directly through changes in electrical conductivity as the DNA passes through a nanopore.

45.

In a two-color DNA microarray experiment, what do the different colors represent?

a)

different genes

b)

different experimental conditions

c)

different cell types

d)

different microarray slides

46.

Microarrays are useful for all of the following reasons except:

a)

indicating which proteins are being made

b)

identifying potential drug/therapeutic targets

c)

identifying potential resistant prions

d)

indicating which genes are being expressed in cells

47.

What happens when a dideoxynucleotide gets added to a DNA molecule during a DNA sequencing reaction?

a)

The molecule stops fluorescing

b)

Synthesis proceeds as normal

c)

Synthesis stops at that point

d)

The primer degrades

48.

What tool is available for comparing a specific DNA sequence with all other known similar sequences?

a)

BLAST

b)

Shot-gun cloning

c)

Northern Blot

d)

X-ray crystallography

49.

Which of the following techniques is commonly used in DNA microarrays to detect gene expression levels?

a)

Fluorescent labeling

b)

PCR

c)

Northern blotting

d)

Southern Blotting

50.

What does eDNA (environmental DNA) monitoring involve in the context of bioinformatics?

a)

Sequencing ancient DNA to study evolutionary history.

b)

Comparing DNA sequences from laboratory-grown cells

c)

Extracting and analyzing DNA from environmental samples, such as water, to detect the presence of species

d)

Analyzing genetic sequences from fish tissue samples

51.

Which of the following describes how Ion Semiconductor Sequencing works?

a)


To determine the three-dimensional structure of proteins.

b)

To compare the genetic sequences of different populations for evolutionary studies.

c)

To identify and classify species based on a short, standardized region of their DNA.

d)


To analyze the protein expression levels in different tissues.

52.

Which of the following statements accurately describes Pyrosequencing?

a)

Pyrosequencing involves the use of dNTPs labeled with different colors to determine the DNA sequence

b)

Pyrosequencing relies on detecting changes in pH caused by the release of protons (H+) during DNA polymerase activity.

c)

Pyrosequencing detects the release of pyrophosphate (PPi) during DNA synthesis, which is measured through chemical reactions that generate light.

d)

Pyrosequencing uses DNA ligase to join labeled probes to the DNA fragments.

53.

What challenges might a research scientist encounter when establishing a new PCR protocol?

4 lines
54.
  1. Explain the three steps of PCR, including the role of the thermal cycler. 

4 lines
55.
  1. What are oligonucleotides, and how are they used differently in pCR and DNA microarrays?

4 lines
56.
  1. List the five necessary components (and their functions) for DNA synthesis in a tube.

4 lines
57.
  1. Describe research on human origins and their migration patterns using Alu elements.

4 lines
58.
  1. A microarray is set up to recognize a DNA sequence only found in men with a rare type of prostate cancer. The array reaction is run. Five wells with samples from five men out of 1000 glow 30% more than the negative controls. What do you conclude?

4 lines