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Worksheets

Basic A&P Vocabulary and Concepts

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are examples of body regions?

a)

Cephalic (head), thoracic (chest), brachial (arm), abdominal, pelvic, etc.

b)

Photosynthesis, respiration, digestion, excretion, etc.

c)

Gravity, friction, inertia, acceleration, etc.

d)

Nucleus, mitochondria, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, etc.

2.

Which directional term means 'above vs. below'?

a)

Superior vs. Inferior

b)

Anterior vs. Posterior

c)

Medial vs. Lateral

d)

Proximal vs. Distal

3.

Which directional term means 'front vs. back'?

a)

Anterior vs. Posterior

b)

Medial vs. Lateral

c)

Superior vs. Inferior

d)

Proximal vs. Distal

4.

Which directional term means 'toward midline vs. away'?

a)

Medial vs. Lateral

b)

Superior vs. Inferior

c)

Anterior vs. Posterior

d)

Proximal vs. Distal

5.

Which directional term means 'closer to attachment vs. farther'?

a)

Proximal vs. Distal

b)

Superior vs. Inferior

c)

Anterior vs. Posterior

d)

Medial vs. Lateral

6.

Which directional term means 'closer to surface vs. deeper in body'?

a)

Superficial vs. Deep

b)

Medial vs. Lateral

c)

Proximal vs. Distal

d)

Anterior vs. Posterior

7.

Which directional term means 'facing upward vs. facing downward'?

a)

Supine vs. Prone

b)

Anterior vs. Posterior

c)

Medial vs. Lateral

d)

Superior vs. Inferior

8.

What is the study of structures visible to the naked eye called?

a)

Gross Anatomy

b)

Surface Anatomy

c)

Microscopic Anatomy

d)

Systemic Anatomy

9.

What type of anatomy studies external features and their relation to deeper structures?

a)

Gross Anatomy

b)

Surface Anatomy

c)

Microscopic Anatomy

d)

Regional Anatomy

10.

Which type of anatomy includes cytology (cells) and histology (tissues)?

a)

Gross Anatomy

b)

Surface Anatomy

c)

Microscopic Anatomy

d)

Systemic Anatomy

11.

What is the study of specific organ systems called?

a)

Systemic Anatomy

b)

Regional Anatomy

c)

Gross Anatomy

d)

Surface Anatomy

12.

Which type of anatomy focuses on a particular body area?

a)

Systemic Anatomy

b)

Regional Anatomy

c)

Gross Anatomy

d)

Surface Anatomy

13.

What detects changes in the environment (stimulus) in homeostatic regulation?

a)

Receptor (Sensor)

b)

Effector

c)

Control Center

d)

Hormone

14.

What processes the information and determines the response in homeostatic regulation?

a)

Control Center

b)

Effector

c)

Receptor

d)

Stimulus

15.

What carries out the response to restore homeostasis?

a)

Effector

b)

Receptor

c)

Stimulus

d)

Control center

16.

In the thermostat model, what detects temperature change?

a)

Control Center

b)

Effector

c)

Receptor

17.

In the thermostat model, what decides to turn the heater on or off?

a)

Control Center

b)

Effector

c)

Receptor

18.

In the thermostat model, what activates or deactivates?

a)

Control Center

b)

Effector

c)

Receptor

19.

What is negative feedback?

a)

Enhances the original stimulus, leading to an even greater response.

b)

Most common. Counteracts the original stimulus to maintain balance. Example: Body temperature regulation and blood sugar control.

c)

Amplifies changes, usually in specific short-term situations.

d)

The central principle of physiology.

20.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback? Choose the correct answer.

a)

Body temperature regulation

b)

Blood sugar control

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Maintaining homeostasis

21.

Fill in the blank: Negative feedback maintains homeostasis by keeping conditions _____.

a)

stable

b)

chaotic

c)

unpredictable

d)

fluctuating

22.

Positive feedback amplifies changes, usually in specific short-term situations such as labor.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the central principle of physiology?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

24.

The difference between positive and negative feedback in relation to homeostasis is:

a)

Positive feedback amplifies changes while negative feedback counteracts changes.

b)

Positive feedback maintains stability while negative feedback disrupts it.

c)

Negative feedback amplifies changes while positive feedback counteracts changes.

d)

Both positive and negative feedback always maintain homeostasis in the same way.

25.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?

a)

A) Cellularity

b)

B) Polarity

c)

C) Vascularity

d)

D) Regeneration

26.

Fill in the blank: Epithelial tissue is supported by a ________ membrane.

a)

basement

b)

plasma

c)

nuclear

d)

mitochondrial

27.

Which function is NOT performed by epithelial tissue?

a)

Protection

b)

Absorption

c)

Filtration

d)

Contraction

28.

Epithelial tissue has a high rate of mitosis due to exposure to friction and environmental damage.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the alveoli of the lungs?

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Simple Cuboidal

c)

Stratified Squamous

d)

Transitional Epithelium

30.

Fill in the blank: Simple cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in ________ tubules and small glands.

a)

kidney

b)

lung

c)

liver

d)

intestine

31.

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the trachea and upper respiratory tract?

a)

Ciliated Simple Columnar

b)

Ciliated Pseudostratified Columnar

c)

Non-ciliated Simple Columnar

d)

Stratified Squamous

32.

Fill in the blank: Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in the ________.

a)

skin (epidermis)

b)

lining of the esophagus

c)

urinary bladder

d)

alveoli of the lungs

33.

Which type of epithelial tissue allows for stretching and expansion?

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Stratified Cuboidal

c)

Transitional Epithelium

d)

Simple Columnar

34.

Where is stratified cuboidal epithelium most likely to be found?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Sweat glands

c)

Trachea

d)

Intestinal lining

35.

What is the main difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

a)

Endocrine glands have ducts, exocrine glands do not

b)

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the blood, exocrine glands secrete onto body surfaces or cavities

c)

Both have ducts

d)

Both secrete onto body surfaces

36.

Which of the following is an example of an endocrine gland?

a)

Sweat gland

b)

Thyroid

c)

Salivary gland

d)

Mammary gland

37.

Which of the following is an example of an exocrine gland?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Adrenal

c)

Salivary

d)

Thyroid

38.

Unicellular exocrine glands include ________ cells.

a)

Mucous (goblet)

b)

Parietal

c)

Chief

d)

Acinar

39.

Which mode of secretion in exocrine glands involves secretion via exocytosis with no cell damage?

a)

Merocrine (Eccrine)

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

40.

Which mode of secretion involves the entire cell rupturing to release its product?

a)

Merocrine (Eccrine)

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

41.

Where are merocrine (eccrine) glands found?

a)

Mammary glands

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Sweat glands, salivary glands, and pancreas

d)

Bone marrow

42.

Which cell type synthesizes melanin pigment?

a)

Mast cells

b)

Melanocytes

c)

Fixed macrophage

d)

Adipose

43.

Which type of loose connective tissue stores fat and is found in hypodermis and around organs?

a)

Areolar

b)

Adipose

c)

Reticular

d)

Elastic

44.

Dense regular connective tissue is found in ________ and ________.

a)

tendons and ligaments

b)

bones and cartilage

c)

skin and muscles

d)

lungs and liver

45.

Elastic dense connective tissue is found in which of the following locations?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Large arteries (aorta) and bronchial tubes

c)

Dermis

d)

Pancreas

46.

Which type of cartilage is smooth and found in joints, nose, and trachea?

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Bone

47.

Which type of cartilage is flexible and found in the ear and epiglottis?

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Bone

48.

Which type of cartilage is strong and found in intervertebral discs and knee menisci?

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Bone

49.

What is the function of bone in supporting connective tissue?

a)

Hard, calcified matrix; supports & protects organs.

b)

Stores fat and insulates the body.

c)

Transports oxygen and nutrients throughout the body.

d)

Produces hormones for metabolic regulation.

50.

What is the main function of blood as a fluid connective tissue?

a)

Transport of nutrients, gases, and waste.

b)

Production of hormones.

c)

Transmission of nerve impulses.

d)

Support and protection of organs.

51.

Lymph helps with ______ and fluid balance.

a)

immunity

b)

digestion

c)

respiration

d)

excretion

52.

Which layer is found under the skin and consists of areolar and adipose tissue?

a)

Superficial fascia

b)

Deep fascia

c)

Subserous fascia

53.

Which fascia is continuous with capsules, ligaments, and other connective tissue structures and forms a strong, fibrous internal framework?

a)

Superficial fascia

b)

Deep fascia

c)

Subserous fascia

54.

Subserous fascia is located between the serous membranes and the ______ fascia.

a)

deep

b)

superficial

c)

muscular

d)

cutaneous

55.

Which type of membrane lines passageways open to the exterior of the body?

a)

Mucous Membranes

b)

Serous Membranes

c)

Cutaneous Membranes

d)

Synovial Membranes

56.

Which type of membrane covers the surface of the body (skin)?

a)

Mucous Membranes

b)

Serous Membranes

c)

Cutaneous Membranes

d)

Synovial Membranes

57.

Which type of membrane lines freely movable joint cavities and lubricates the joint cavity with synovial fluid?

a)

Mucous Membranes

b)

Serous Membranes

c)

Cutaneous Membranes

d)

Synovial Membranes

58.

Which type of muscle tissue is attached to bones?

a)

Skeletal Muscle

b)

Cardiac Muscle

c)

Smooth Muscle

59.

Fill in the blank: The shape of cardiac muscle is ________.

a)

Branched

b)

Spindle-shaped

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Columnar

60.

Which muscle tissue has no striations?

a)

Skeletal Muscle

b)

Cardiac Muscle

c)

Smooth Muscle

61.

Fill in the blank: The nuclei in skeletal muscle are ________.

a)

Multinucleated

b)

Uninucleated

c)

Binucleated

d)

Anucleated

62.

Which muscle tissue is found in the walls of organs and blood vessels?

a)

Skeletal Muscle

b)

Cardiac Muscle

c)

Smooth Muscle

63.

What is the definition of inflammation?

a)

A biological response to injury or infection that aims to remove harmful stimuli and begin healing.

b)

A process by which the body increases blood sugar levels.

c)

A condition where the body loses excessive water.

d)

A type of cell division that produces gametes.

64.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Heat (Calor)

b)

Redness (Rubor)

c)

Pain (Dolor)

d)

Swelling (Tumor)

e)

Fever (Febris)

65.

Fill in the blank: Increased blood flow to the area is known as ________ (Rubor), one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation.

a)

Redness

b)

Swelling

c)

Heat

d)

Pain

66.

Fill in the blank: Fluid accumulation due to increased permeability is called ________ (Tumor), a sign of inflammation.

a)

Swelling

b)

Redness

c)

Heat

d)

Pain

67.

Fill in the blank: Release of chemicals activating pain receptors is known as ________ (Dolor), a sign of inflammation.

a)

Pain

b)

Redness

c)

Swelling

d)

Heat

68.

Fill in the blank: Due to swelling and pain, there may be ________ (Function Laesa), a sign of inflammation.

a)

Loss of Function

b)

Increased Appetite

c)

Improved Vision

d)

Rapid Healing

69.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the integumentary system?

a)

A) Skin

b)

B) Hair

c)

C) Bones

d)

D) Nails

70.

Which glands produce sebum (oil) to moisturize skin and hair?

a)

Sebaceous glands

b)

Sweat glands

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Endocrine glands

71.

What is the main function of Meissner’s corpuscles in the skin?

a)

Detect light touch

b)

Sense deep pressure

c)

Detect temperature changes

d)

Transmit pain signals

72.

Which structure in the skin causes goosebumps?

a)

Arrector pili muscles

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Sweat glands

d)

Meissner's corpuscles

73.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system?

a)

A) Protection

b)

B) Temperature regulation

c)

C) Digestion

d)

D) Synthesis of Vitamin D

74.

The epidermis has five layers. Which layer is the outermost, where dead cells slough off?

a)

Stratum corneum

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum granulosum

75.

True or False: The stratum lucidum is found in all areas of the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

How long does it take for cells to move through all five layers of the epidermis in thick skin?

a)

5-10 days

b)

10-20 days

c)

25-45 days

d)

50-70 days

77.

What is the difference between sensible and insensible perspiration?

a)

Sensible perspiration is noticeable sweating from eccrine glands (active cooling), while insensible perspiration is continuous, unnoticeable evaporation of water through the skin.

b)

Sensible perspiration is unnoticeable and occurs only during sleep, while insensible perspiration is visible and occurs during exercise.

c)

Sensible perspiration is produced by sebaceous glands, while insensible perspiration is produced by sweat glands.

d)

Sensible perspiration is only found in infants, while insensible perspiration is only found in adults.

78.

What is the main difference between the skin on the soles of the feet and the skin on the legs?

a)

The skin on the soles of the feet is thick with a stratum lucidum, more sweat glands, and no hair, while the skin on the legs is thin, has hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and fewer sweat glands.

b)

The skin on the soles of the feet is thinner and contains more hair follicles than the skin on the legs.

c)

The skin on the legs has a stratum lucidum and more sweat glands than the soles of the feet.

d)

Both the soles of the feet and the legs have the same thickness and number of sweat glands.

79.

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin D?

a)

Helps in calcium and phosphate absorption for bone health

b)

Produces sweat

c)

Protects against UV light

d)

Causes hair growth

80.

What is the first step in the absorption of Vitamin D?

a)

UV light converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin into cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3).

b)

Vitamin D binds to calcium in the intestines.

c)

Vitamin D is stored in the liver immediately after synthesis.

d)

Vitamin D is excreted by the kidneys before activation.

81.

Fill in the blank: The liver converts cholecalciferol into ________.

a)

calcidiol

b)

calcitriol

c)

bilirubin

d)

bile acids

82.

Fill in the blank: The kidney converts calcidiol into ________, the active form of Vitamin D.

a)

calcitriol

b)

cholecalciferol

c)

ergocalciferol

d)

calcitonin

83.

What does calcitriol help the intestines absorb?

a)

Calcium and phosphate

b)

Potassium and sodium

c)

Iron and zinc

d)

Vitamin C and D

84.

Which part of the nail is the visible part?

a)

Nail body

b)

Nail root

c)

Lunula

d)

Cuticle

85.

What is the function of the cuticle (eponychium)?

a)

Protects nail root

b)

Produces sweat

c)

Regulates body temperature

d)

Secretes oil

86.

Where is the nail root located?

a)

Beneath the skin, site of nail growth

b)

At the tip of the finger

c)

On the surface of the nail plate

d)

Inside the bone of the finger

87.

What is the white crescent at the base of the nail called?

a)

Lunula

b)

Cuticle

c)

Matrix

d)

Nail bed

88.

What is the hyponychium?

a)

Under free edge of nail

b)

Base of the nail

c)

Cuticle of the nail

d)

Surface of the nail plate

89.

What condition is characterized by blue skin due to lack of oxygen?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Erythema

c)

Jaundice

d)

Vitiligo

90.

What condition is characterized by yellow skin due to liver dysfunction?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Anemia

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Eczema

91.

What condition results from Vitamin D deficiency and causes weak bones?

a)

Rickets

b)

Scurvy

c)

Anemia

d)

Goiter

92.

Which condition is an autoimmune loss of melanocytes, causing white patches?

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Eczema

d)

Rosacea

93.

What is melanoma?

a)

A dangerous skin cancer from uncontrolled melanocyte growth.

b)

A type of benign mole on the skin.

c)

A bacterial infection of the skin.

d)

A vitamin deficiency affecting the skin.

94.

Which organ system is responsible for protection, excretion, temperature regulation, and vitamin D production?

a)

Integumentary (skin) system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Nervous system

95.

Which organ system includes bones, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and joints for support, protection, movement, and blood cell formation?

a)

Skeletal system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Nervous system